Book 2 Pages 1 - 101 Flashcards

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1
Q

a device used to manage risk by having a large pool of people share in the financial losses suffered by members of the pool

A

Insurance

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2
Q

a condition where there is a possibility of an adverse deviation from the desired outcome

A

risk

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3
Q

The larger the number of members in the group, the ____ the probability that actual losses will equal expected losses

A

greater

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4
Q

the cause of a financial loss

A

Peril

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5
Q

examples of perils

A

The actual cause of a loss, such as fire, wind, tornado, earthquake burglary and collision and illness

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6
Q

a condition that increases the probability that a loss will occur

A

hazard Ex: moral, morale and physical hazard

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7
Q

physical characteristics of the person or property that increase the probability of a loss occurring

A

Physical Hazard is a tangible condition that increases the probability of a peril occurring, such as:Icy roads, poor lighting, defective equipment

Physical hazards are actions, behaviors, or conditions that cause or contribute to peril. Smoking is considered a physical hazard because it increases the chance of a fire occurring.

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8
Q

examples of physical hazards

A

Physical hazards are actions, behaviors, or conditions that cause or contribute to peril. Smoking is considered a physical hazard because it increases the chance of a fire occurring.

Ex: Icy roads, poor lighting, defective equipment

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9
Q

the chance of loss from dishonesty or when a person intentionally causes a loss or overstates a loss

A

Moral Hazard

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10
Q

the chance of a loss occurring due to ones indifference or a person lack of caring if a loss occurs because they know they have insurance

A

Morale Hazard

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11
Q

a stated amount of money the insured is required to pay on a loss before the insurer will make any payments

A

Deductible

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12
Q

an outline of the perils that are not covered under the policy

A

Exclusions

Exclusions example : Outlines specifically what will not be covered, such as: May exclude perils such as war and flood. May exclude losses such as a private hospital room when a semi-private room will do. May exclude specific items such as cash.

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13
Q

Examples of exclusions

A

earthquake, war, floods

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14
Q

describe written additions to an insurance policy

A

riders/endorsements

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15
Q

exposure to a risk that may cause financial loss

A

Financial risk

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16
Q

exposure to a risk that does not cause financial loss

A

Non-financial risk

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17
Q

losses that are caused by factors other than a change in the economy, i.e. risks that are always present

A

Static risks

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18
Q

Examples of static risks

A

Static risks are risks that involve losses brought about by acts of nature or by malicious and criminal acts by another person
Ex: natural disasters, death, flood, earthquake

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19
Q

True or False?

Static risks are not insurable

A

False, they are insurable

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20
Q

losses that are a result of the economy changing

A

Dynamic risks

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21
Q

Examples of Dynamic risks

A

Inflation, changes in business cycle

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22
Q

True or False?

Dynamic Risks are insurable

A

False, they are not

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23
Q

a risk that affects a large group of people

A

Fundamental risk

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24
Q

examples of fundamental risks

A

recession, earthquake

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25
Q

a risk that is individual in nature or affects a small number of people

A

Particular risk

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26
Q

a risk that involves only the chance of a loss or no chance of a loss

A

Pure risk

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27
Q

Are pure risks insurable?

A

Yes

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28
Q

loss of income or asset resulting from the loss of ability to earn income caused by disability, death, or sickness

A

Personal risk

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29
Q

direct or indirect loss to property itself from theft or destruction

A

Property risk

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30
Q

intentional or unintentional injury to property or others

A

Liability risk

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31
Q

failure to meet or follow through on an obligation

A

Risk from failure of others

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32
Q

risk that involves both the chance of loss or gain

A

Speculative risk

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33
Q

examples of speculative risk

A

gambling

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34
Q

Is speculative risk insurable?

A

No

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35
Q

True or False?

Risk management involves managing both insurable and non insurable risks?

A

True

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36
Q

In risk management, insurance should be justified on the basis of what kind of an analysis?

A

cost-benefit analysis

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37
Q

What are the 6 steps to risk management?

A
  1. Determine the objectives
  2. Identify the risks that the subject is exposed to
  3. Evaluate the risks as to the probability of occurrence and potential loss
  4. Determine alternatives for managing risk and select most appropriate for each risk
  5. Implement the most appropriate alternative
  6. Evaluate and review periodically
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38
Q

happens when a person refuses to accept risk by not engaging in an action that creates risk

A

risk avoidance

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39
Q

examples of risk avoidance

A

not driving a car or going on a plane

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40
Q

happens when a person chooses to retain the risk and takes no action to avoid the risk

A

Risk retention Ex: deductibles are a way of insurance companies forcing the insured to retain risk

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41
Q

examples of risk retention

A

self insurance, coinsurance, deductibles

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42
Q

happens when a person transfers the risk through an individual or insurance contract

A

risk transfer

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43
Q

happens when a person shares the risk with a group of others

A

Risk sharing

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44
Q

happens when risk is reduced through loss prevention methods or safety improvements

A

Risk reduction

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45
Q

What are some methods that can be used to decrease the insurance premiums?

A
increase the deductible
increase the elimination period
install an alarm system
improve health and diet
avoid tobacco
choose a safer job
reduce coverage term (years)
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46
Q

What characteristics must be present for a loss to occur?

A
  1. Large homogeneous exposure
  2. must be measurable and definite
  3. must be accidental
  4. can’t be catastrophic to society
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47
Q

the likelihood that parties with the greatest probability of loss are the ones most likely to purchase insurance

A

Adverse selection

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48
Q

mandatory insurance that seeks to protect individuals against large fundamental risks

A

Social insurance

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49
Q

What are some examples of social insurance?

A

Social security
Medicare
Workers comp
Medicaid

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50
Q

insurance that seeks to enhance public trust and is usually mandatory

A

Public insurance

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51
Q

What are some examples of public insurance?

A

federal deposit insurance corp (FDIC)
Pension benefit guarantee corp (PBGC)
securities investor protection corp (SIPC)

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52
Q

What insurance coverage should a client have during the asset accumulation phase?

A

health, disability, life, property and casualty

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53
Q

What insurance coverage should a client have during the conservation phase?

A

health, disability, life, property and casualty

may consider long term care

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54
Q

What insurance coverage should a client have during the gifting/distribution phase?

A

health, property and casualty, long term care, and life to lesser extent

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55
Q

an organization made up of the states’ insurance commissioners, whose purpose is to discuss industry problems that may require legislation or regulation

A

National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)

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56
Q

What are the 5 elements of an insurance contract?

A
  1. Offer and acceptance
  2. Consideration
  3. Legal Object
  4. Legal Capacity
  5. Legal Form
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57
Q

acts that are prosecuted by the state and are punishable by fine, imprisonment, or death

A

Criminal acts

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58
Q

Are criminal acts insurable?

A

generally no

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59
Q

an infringement on the rights of another; the wrongdoer creates a right in the damaged party to bring a civil action

A

Tort

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60
Q

What are examples of intentional torts?

A

battery, assault, libel, slander, false imprisonment, trespass, etc

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61
Q

an act or failure to act in a reasonably prudent manner, and such act or failure to act causes harm to another

A

unintentional tort

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62
Q

happens when one person becomes legally liable for the torts of another

A

Vicarious liability

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63
Q

examples of vicarious liability

A

an employer becomes liable due to an employees actions

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64
Q

the failure to act in a way that a reasonably prudent individual would have acted in a similar situation

A

Negligence

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65
Q

liability that may be imposed without proof of an individual’s negligence or bad intent

A

Strict (absolute) Liability

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66
Q

What are some examples of strict liability?

A

workers comp
product liability
extraordinarily dangerous activities (handling hazardous materials)

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67
Q

What are the two forms of injury that can result from a tort?

A

Bodily injury and property damage

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68
Q

type of injury that may lead to medical expense, loss of income, pain and suffering, mental anguish and loss of consortium

A

bodily injury

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69
Q

damages used to compensate for measurable losses

A

special damages

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70
Q

damages used to compensate for intangible losses (pain and suffering)

A

general damages

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71
Q

damages exceeding simple compensation and awarded to punish the defendant

A

punitive damages

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72
Q

True or False?

Property damage is usually measured by the actual monetary loss

A

True

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73
Q

a rule that states that damages assessed to a negligent party should not be reduced simply because the injured party has other sources of recovery available, such as insurance or employee benefits

A

Collateral Source Rule

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74
Q

a defense of negligence stating that the injured party fully understood and recognized the dangers involved in an activity and voluntarily chose to proceed

A

Assumption of Risk

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75
Q

examples of assumption of risk

A

a fan got hit by a baseball while sitting behind first base at a game

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76
Q

a defense of negligence stating that the injured party’s negligence also contributed to their injury

A

Contributory negligence

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77
Q

a defense of negligence where the amount of damages is adjusted to reflect the extent to which the injured party’s own negligence contributed to the injury

A

Comparative negligence

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78
Q

the actual authority that an insurance company gives representatives

A

Expressed authority

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79
Q

the authority that is reasonably necessary to carry out the agent’s duties

A

Implied authority

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80
Q

the authority that the agent is not expressly given by the principal but that an agent in a similar situation normally possesses

A

implied authority

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81
Q

when the insured is led to believe the agent has authority, either express or implied, where no such authority actually exists

A

Apparent authority

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82
Q

principle that states the insured may only recover from the insurance company the amount of financial loss they experienced

A

Indemnity

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83
Q

a relationship where the person applying for insurance will incur a loss from the destruction, damage, or death of the insured subject

A

insurable interest

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84
Q

When does an insurable interest for property have to exist? i.e. at the time of issuance or the time of the loss?

A

Both

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85
Q

When does an insurable interest have to exist for life insurance? i.e. at the time of issuance or the time of loss?

A

Time of issuance

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86
Q

Do life insurance policies follow the indemnity rule? Why or why not?

A

No because the recovery amount is the death benefit or face value of the policy not the actual value of the insured’s life

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87
Q

the amount that can be recovered under a contract that provides for the repairs or replacement needed

A

replacement cost

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88
Q

contracts that set an agreed upon value of the property at issuance and at the time of the loss the insurer must pay that value to the insured

A

Started value contracts

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89
Q

True or False?
Insurance contracts, other than life insurance, cannot be transferred to another person without the written consent of the insurance company

A

True

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90
Q

an oral or written statement that is false and intended to defraud, which induces a party to enter a contract

A

Misrepresentation

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91
Q

type of misrepresentation where the statement is false and material

A

misrepresentation of fact

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92
Q

type of misrepresentation where the statement is false, material, and fraudlent

A

Misrepresentation of opinion

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93
Q

failure to disclose material facts relative to the application for insurance

A

Concealment

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94
Q

the intentional relinquishment of a known right by the insured

A

waiver

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95
Q

prevents denying a fact that was previously admitted

A

Estoppel

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96
Q

An insurance contract is a _________ contract meaning that the insurer promises to perform, but the policy owner does not promise to pay the premiums

A

unilateral

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97
Q

an insurance contract is a _____ contract meaning that the insurer will make pay benefits, but only if the insured is paying premiums

A

conditional

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98
Q

an insurance contract is an _____ contract meaning that if no loss occurs the insurer will pay nothing, but if a loss does occur the insurer will pay more than the premiums received

A

aleatory

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99
Q

states that if an insurer pays the insured for a loss caused by a third party, the insured is required to assign his right to recover from the third party to the insurer

A

subrogation

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100
Q

insurance contracts are contracts of _____ meaning you can’t negotiate, it’s take it or leave it

A

adhesion

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101
Q

Who is said to be making the offer under an insurance contract when the application includes the first premium?

A

The applicant/future insured

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102
Q

when the policy owner assigns all or a portion of the death benefit to a creditor as security for a loan

A

Collateral assignment

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103
Q

how long is the period of time before the incontestable clause for a life insurance policy kicks in?

A

usually 2 years

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104
Q

What is the typical grace period under a life insurance policy to pay premiums?

A

30 or 31 days

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105
Q

What happens when the insured dies during the grace period?

A

The amount of premium due will be deducted from the death benefit

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106
Q

How long does a typical suicide clause in an insurance policy last?

A

Two years

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107
Q

True or False?

If suicide occurs within two years the beneficiary receives the premiums paid plus any interest accumulated

A

False, only premiums paid, interest does not get paid out

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108
Q

4 rules for a life insurance policy to be reinstated

A
  1. lapse can’t be longer than 3-5 years as stated in policy docs
  2. policy must not have been surrendered
  3. acceptable proof of insurability must be provided
  4. all premiums due from the time of the lapse must be paid
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109
Q

What is the maximum loan size under a life insurance policy?

A

an amount equal to the cash surrender value

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110
Q

What does the automatic premium loan provision do?

A

It pays the premium from the cash value of the policy if the premium is not paid by the due date

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111
Q

Rules involved with an accidental death benefit rider?

A

death must occur within 90 days of accident
cause of death must be related to accident
age limitation is usually imposed
excludes suicide, death from disease, and acts of war

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112
Q

a rider that permits the policyowner to purchase additional life insurance at specific intervals without providing evidence of insurability

A

guaranteed insurability rider

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113
Q

a rider that offers additional life insurance as inflation protection

A

cost of living rider

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114
Q

a clause that provides protection against the beneficiary’s alienation of the policy proceeds by denying the beneficiary the right to convey, alienate, or assign his interest in the policy proceeds

A

Spendthrift clause

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115
Q

clause that stipulates that settlement of the policy is withheld for a specified number of days (usually 30) after the death of the insured; furthermore any surviving beneficiary who dies within this period is considered to predecease the insured

A

Common disaster clause

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116
Q

How long can most term insurance policies be renewable without having to provide evidence of insurability?

A

until age 70

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117
Q

provision involved with term insurance policies that allow you to convert to a permanent insurance policy without evidence of insurability up to a specified age

A

Convertible

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118
Q

type of term insurance that has a level face amount and exponentially increasing annual premiums

A

annual renewable term

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119
Q

type of term insurance that has a level face amount and premiums that remain constant for the term then increase if the policy is renewed at the end of the term

A

Level term

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120
Q

type of term insurance that has exponentially increasing premiums and policy cannot be renewed beyond specified age

A

Term to age 65 or 70

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121
Q

type of term insurance that has level premiums and a decreasing face amount

A

Decreasing term

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122
Q

type of term insurance that is used to protect ones mortgage

A

decreasing term

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123
Q

type of term insurance used in buy-sell agreements, mortgage protection, paying off debt, and education expenses

A

first to die or joint term life

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124
Q

life insurance policies that pay the face value of the policy only if the insured survives the endowment period

A

Pure endowment policies

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125
Q

True or False?

Pure endowment policies are available in the US

A

False

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126
Q

type of life insurance policy that pays the face value of the policy only if the insured dies within the endowment period or pay the face value (usually in the form of an annuity) if the insured survives the endowment period

A

regular endowment contract

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127
Q

type of life insurance where premiums are level and are paid for life, the face amount also remains constant for life

A

whole ordinary life

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128
Q

type of life insurance where premiums are paid for a specific number of years but the death benefit remains constant for life

A

limited pay life

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129
Q

type of insurance policy where there premium is low in the first year then increases each year for early policy years then levels off after 5-1o years

A

Graded premium whole life

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130
Q

type of insurance policy where premiums are lower for the first 3-5 years then increase to a premium slightly more than what a whole life policy would cost at that age but less than what a level premium whole policy would be at that age

A

Modified life

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131
Q

type of insurance policy where premiums are fixed but the face amount may vary with no guarantee of cash value

A

Variable life

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132
Q

True or False?

A client should have higher risk tolerance if they want to use variable life

A

True

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133
Q

Does the death benefit of variable life have a minimum guaranteed?

A

Yes

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134
Q

a life insurance policy that is interest sensitive in which the insurer’s current investment experience under nonparticipating policies is credited to the cash values

A

Current assumption whole life (CAWL)

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135
Q

under (CAWL) favorable experience relative to assumptions may make the insured have a ____ premium

A

lower

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136
Q

unfavorable experience under a (CAWL) relative to assumptions may make the insured have a ______ premium

A

higher

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137
Q

life insurance that has a flexible premium, adjustable death benefit, and is an unbundled life insurance policy

A

Universal Life

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138
Q

universal life policy that has a level death benefit

A

Universal Life A or Option 1

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139
Q

universal life policy where the death benefit equals face amount of policy plus cash value (increasing DB)

A

Universal Life B or Option 2

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140
Q

true or false?

universal life B is more expensive than universal life A

A

True

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141
Q

an universal life policy with investment options for the cash value and no minimum guarantee rate of return or interest

A

Variable Universal Life

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142
Q

Are death benefits under VUL guaranteed?

A

No

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143
Q

are premiums greater for first to die or second to die policies?

A

first to die

second to die has cheaper premiums

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144
Q

life insurance that protects the lender or borrower from financial loss in the event the borrower dies before completing payment of debt

A

Credit Life

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145
Q

what does the death benefit under credit life usually equal?

A

the loan balance

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146
Q

True or False?

Credit life premiums are high relative to the amount of coverage provided

A

True

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147
Q

life insurance that has a known maximum cost and a minimum death benefit

A

whole life

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148
Q

life insurance that has a know maximum costs and minimum death benefit but allows for investment options

A

Variable Life (Whole)

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149
Q

a method of evaluating a person’s need for capital resources upon death

A

Programming for Life Insurance

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150
Q

a method of determining the amount of life insurance needed that uses interest only to furnish the continued support of the family

A

Capital Retention

151
Q

True or False?

Capital Retention method accounts for inflation

A

False, it does not

152
Q

under this method, the original principal or capital saved by the client still remains at the end of the income period

A

Capital Retention

153
Q

a method of determining the amount of life insurance needed by projecting the income of the individual through the remaining work life expectancy, including raises - then discount it back to PV

A

Human Life

154
Q

a method of determining the amount of life insurance needed by examining all recurring expenses to dependent survivors and any unusual expenditures that may result from the death of the individual

A

Financial Needs

155
Q

What are the factors that should be considered if using the financial needs method?

A

marital status, role of spouses (work or not), size of family, and dependents’ willingness to work

156
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit that includes last medical costs and funeral costs

A

fund for final expenses

157
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit that covers the period following death and may include nonrecurring costs as the family adjusts to the death of a provider

A

fund for readjustment

158
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit that covers the period with highest needs because dependents require income for living and other expenses

A

dependency period income fund

159
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit used to pay of debts

A

the mortgage payment fund

160
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit that establishes money for education

A

the education fund

161
Q

in regards to life insurance this is a fund of pooled death benefit that establishes a way for the surviving spouse to have income for life if they do not work or does not have the skills necessary to work

A

life income for the spouse fund

162
Q

True or false?

Guaranteed values in an insurance contract mean that the insurance company holds the risk

A

True

163
Q

what is the largest component of price and performance in a term life policy?

A

Mortality assumptions

164
Q

what is the largest component of price and performance is a whole life policy?

A

Investment experience

165
Q

how to calculate the net cost of an insurance policy

A

Face Value - total premiums paid - total dividends paid - cash value at end of term - cost per year = net cost per year

then take net cost per year divided by (policy face value divided by 1,000) to get cost per $1,000

166
Q

problems associated with net cost of insurance method

A

does not account for TVM
assumes future cash value, premiums, dividends
assumes policy lasts until expiration

167
Q

how to calculate the interest adjusted method

(surrender cost) index

A

face value
- total premiums that have been inflated by an interest rate
- dividends that have been inflated by same interest rate
- cash value at end of term
= insurance cost
calculate pmt using annuity due with n selected terms and i interest rate
take that pmt and divide it by (Face value/1,000)

168
Q

what is the difference between the surrender cost index method and net payment cost index method

A

the net payment cost index does not account for the cash value of policy

169
Q

company that rates insurance companies based on public info and interviews with management

A

AM Best

170
Q

company that rates insurance companies based on public info and management interviews, but public info alone may be enough to assign a rating

A

Fitch

171
Q

company that rates insurance companies based on the basis of public info alone

A

Moody’s or Fitch

172
Q

company that rates insurance companies only upon request

A

Standard and Poor’s

173
Q

what is the risk of superannuation?

A

the risk of running out of money

174
Q

type of annuity that has a lump sum premium with an annuitization period deferred until some point in the future

A

Single Premium Deferred Annuity (SPDA)

175
Q

type of annuity that allows for periodic, nonfixed contributions/premiums and earnings accumulate tax free and are then distributed at somepoint in the future

A

Flexible premium deferred annuity (FPDA)

176
Q

type of annuity where the annuitant pays a single premium then the payments begin

A

SPIA (Single premium immediate annuity)

177
Q

true or false?

with fixed annuities the insurer bears the investment risk?

A

True

178
Q

true or false?

fixed annuities are better for high risk tolerance clients

A

false, fixed annuities are better for low risk tolerance

179
Q

an annuity contract that is credited with a return based on changes in an equity index

A

Equity Index Annuity (EIA)

180
Q

Do equity index annuities usually have a guaranteed minimum rate of return?

A

Yes, usually

181
Q

a type of annuity that offers a credit based on a percentage of the premium paid

A

Bonus annuity

182
Q

the practice of using misrepresentations to induce a policyowner with one company to lapse/forfeit/surrender a life insurance or annuity policy for the purpose of taking out a policy with another company

A

Twisting

183
Q

the practice by which policy values in an existing life insurance policy or annuity contract are used to purchase another policy or contract with that same insurer for the purpose of earning additional premiums or commissions

A

churning

184
Q

formula for investment in an insurance contract

A

premiums paid - dividends received - outstanding loans or withdrawals

185
Q

formula for basis in an insurance contract

A

premiums paid - dividends received - outstanding loans or withdrawals - cost of insurance before the sale

186
Q

formula for gain at surrender in an insuarnce contract

A

cash surrender value - investment in contract

187
Q

formula for gain at sale of an insurance contract

A

sale price - basis

188
Q

True or False?
The general rule is that the annual cash value increase in a life insurance policy is not subject to current income taxation

A

True

189
Q

True or FAlse?

Invetment gains in variable life contracts are tax deferred

A

True

190
Q

True or FAlse?
life insurance premiums that are considered as alimony payments resulting from a divorce or separate maintenance decree are tax deductible by the payor and taxable to the payee

A

True

191
Q

True or False?

Dividends distributed from an insurance contract are taxable

A

False, generally speaking

192
Q

True or False?

Dividends distributed from an insurance contract are considered a return of basis

A

True

193
Q

True or FAlse?

If dividends distributed under an insurance contract exceed the owner’s premiums paid then they are taxable

A

True

194
Q

True or FAlse?
No gain is realized if you exchange a life insurance policy for another life insurance policy, an endowment policy, an annuity contract, or a qualified ltci policy

A

True

195
Q

True or false?
no gain is realized if you exchange an endowment contract for for a life insurance policy, an endowment policy, an annuity contract, or a qualified ltci policy

A

false, only no gain if exchanged for last 3 listed

196
Q

In order for no gain to be realized from an annuity exchange, the annuity must be exchanged for what kind of policy or policies?

A

another annuity or qualified LTC event

197
Q

in order for no gain to be realized from a ltci policy the policy must be exchanged for what type of policy or policies?

A

another LTC policy

198
Q

Withdrawals under a non Modified Endowment Contract use what taxation method?

A

First in First out

basis comes out first

199
Q

withdrawals under a modified endowment contract use what taxation method?

A

Last in First out

taxed until it gets down to basis

200
Q

what is the taxation of the cash surrender value?

A

ordinary income if cash surrender value exceeds the investment in the contract

201
Q

if the beneficiary chooses to receive interest only payments instead of the lump sum death benefit, will the interest payments be taxable?

A

Yes

202
Q

If Karen took an annuity settlement option for a $100,000 face policy that would pay her $644.30 per month for the rest of her life (25 years life expectancy), how much of each monthly payment would be taxable?

A

$310.94

203
Q

True or false?
An annuity from life insurance proceeds retains its original exclusion ratio after the annuitant/beneficiary lives past the original life expectancy

A

True

204
Q

True or false?

Life insurance death benefit proceeds avoid probate if there is a named beneficiary

A

True

205
Q

3 situations where the death benefit proceeds are included in the gross estate

A
  1. the policy was gifted to someone else within 3 years of death
  2. the proceeds are payable to the estate, executor of the estate, or creditors of estate
  3. the decendent (person who died) retained incidents of ownership such as the right to assign the policy, the right to change bene, the right to change policy provisions
206
Q

an agreement that states the insured is expected to die within 24 months and the proceeds received from the sale of the policy are not subject to income tax

A

viatical agreement

207
Q

True or false?
an insured who is chronically ill can exclude the gain from a sale of life insurance policy if the proceeds are used for the insured ltc.

A

True

208
Q

When did annuities change from FIFO to LIFO

A

August 1982

209
Q

calculation for fixed annuity exclusion ratio

A

investment in the contract / expected return

210
Q

Jimmy has a basis of $400,000 in his non qualified fixed annuity. His life expectancy at age 65 is 25 years, and his monthly payment is expected to be $2,000. What is his expected return on the contract and his exclusion ratio?

A

expected return = 25 x 12 x 2,000 = $600,000

exclusion ratio = 400 / 600 = .6667

211
Q

True or false?

Payments beyond the projected life expectancy of an individual under a fixed annuity are fully taxable

A

True, unless payments began before 1986

212
Q

calculation for variable annuity exclusion ratio

A

investment in contract / annuitant’s life

213
Q

William purchased a variable annuity at age 63. The total cost of the contract was $15,000. The annuity starting date was january 1 of the year he purchased the annuity. His annuity will be paid annually starting on july 1 of the year he purchased it. His life expectancy is 21.6 years. What is his exclusion ratio?

A

$15,000 / 21.6

$694.44 per year is tax free

214
Q

True or False?
if an annuity contact is held by an entity who is not a natural person (i.e. a corporation), the earnings or loss on that contract are included in taxable income for the year

A

True

215
Q

Group life insurance premiums up to the first $_____ of coverage paid by the employer are tax exempt to the employee

A

$50,000

216
Q

ABC company maintains a group life insurance policy for its employees. An employee age 56 is provided with $200k worth of coverage. The cost per $1,000 of protection per month is $.43 for someone in his age bracket. If the employee contributes $350 annually towards the cost of his coverage, how much will be included in his gross income

A
excess coverage
- cost per $1,000
- monthly cost of coverage
multiplied by 12
= annual cost of coverage 
- employee contribution
=taxable amount
217
Q

True or FAlse?

health insurance premiums paid by the employer for health insurance are taxable to the employee

A

False, they are tax exempt

218
Q

True or False?

health insurance premiums paid by the employer are tax deductible for the employer

A

true

219
Q

an arrangement between an employer and an employee, where the costs and benefits of the life insurance policy are shared

A

Split-dollar life insurance

220
Q

True or false?

under a split dollar life insurance plan, the employer receives a tax deduction for the premium payments it makes

A

false

221
Q

True or false?

A split dollar life insurance plan can be effective for employees who fear a post retirement death

A

false, helps protect pre retirement death more

222
Q

what are the three ways to split a split dollar life insurance policy?

A

premium
cash value
policy ownership

223
Q

split dollar plan where the employer pays a portion of the premiums equal to the increase in cash surrender value

A

the classic or standard split dollar plan

224
Q

split dollar plan where the employee’s premium share is level for a number of years

A

level premium plan split dollar

225
Q

True or false?

under key employee life insurance, the premiums are tax deducitble by the employer

A

FAsle

226
Q

split dollar policy ownership where the the employee is the owner

A

collateral assignment

227
Q

split dollar policy ownership where the employer is the owner

A

endorsement method

228
Q

True or false?

under an executive bonus life insurance plan, the employer has an income tax deduction in the year the bonus is paid

A

True

229
Q

True or false?

under an executive bonus life insurance plan, the employee does not recognize taxable income when the bonus is received

A

False

230
Q

True or false?

the cost of life insurance is deductible for self employed individuals

A

FAlse

231
Q

True or false?

IRA’s are not permitted to hold life insurance

A

True

232
Q

In regards to life insurance in qualified plans, no more than ___% of the employer’s contributions can be used to purchase a whole life policy

A

50%

233
Q

In regards to life insurance in qualified plans, no more than ____% of the employer’s contributions can be used to purchase a life policy other than whole life

A

25%

234
Q

for defined benefit plans no more than ___ times the monthly benefit can be covered by the death benefit

A

100 times

example: Monthly benefit is $2,000….death benefit can be no more than $200k

235
Q

The 4 R’s associated with nonqualified deferred compensation plans

A

recruit
retain
reward
retire

236
Q

true or false?

non qualified deferred compensation plans do not need to meet discriminatory testing

A

True

237
Q

Under nonqualified deferred compensation plans, when can an employer realize a tax deduction?

A

Not until the year where the income is taxable to the employee

238
Q

True or FAsle?

S corps and parthnerships cannot take full advantage of nonqualified deferred comp plans

A

True

239
Q

occurs within nonqualified deferred comp plans if the executive has access to funds or if the funds are securely set aside for the executive

A

constructive receipt

240
Q

True or False?

Funds under construtive receipt do not have to be reported as taxable income

A

False

241
Q

True or false?

a substantial risk of forfeiture allows for the nonqualified deferred comp plan to be tax deferred

A

True

242
Q

Which of the following qualifies as a substantial risk of forfeiture, resulting in no current income tax?

  1. an unsecured promise to pay
  2. a rabbi trust
  3. a secular trust
A

1 and 2 only

243
Q

a trust set up to hold property for funding a deferred comp plan

A

Rabbi Trust

244
Q

a trust for the exclusive benefit of the employee

A

Secular trust

245
Q

True or false?

secular trusts are irrevocable

A

true

246
Q

True or false?

Rabbi trusts are subject to creditors

A

True

247
Q

true or false?

secular trusts are subject to creditors

A

FAlse

248
Q

a nonqualified retirement plan for key company employees, such as executives, that provides benefits above and beyond those covered in other retirement plans such as IRA, 401(k) or nonqualified deferred compensation NQDC plans.

A

SERP Plans

Supplemental Executive Retirement Plan

249
Q

type of plan that has a salary continuation design that provides a specified deferred amount payable in the future without reducing current income

A

SERP Plans

250
Q

true or false?

under a SERP plan an employer receives a tax deduction only when the benefits are paid to the executive

A

True

251
Q

a nonqualified deferred compensation (NQDC) plan that provides supplemental retirement income benefits to employees whose benefits under the employer’s qualified retirement plan are limited by the application of Internal Revenue Code (IRC)

A

Excess Benefit Plan

252
Q

When is income on a nonqualified stock option realized?

A

at exercise

253
Q

when you exercise a nonqualified stock option how is your basis in the stock determined?

A

basis = exercise price plus the ordinary income you realize from exercising the option

254
Q

how much income will Brewster include in his wages if he receives 10,000 NQSO at $10 per share and exercises them when the market price is $25 per share

A

$150,000

255
Q

How much gain does Brewster have if he receives 10,000 in NQSO at $10 per share and exercises them when the market price is $25, he then sells them several years later for $100 per share

A

$750,000 in gain - long term

256
Q

True or false?
the employee will realize ordinary income when the transferee exercises the NQSO that were transferred from the employee to the other entity

A

True

257
Q

Which date is used to determine when NQSO are considered gifts?

A

the latter of the transfer date or vested date

258
Q

True or FAlse?
If an employee transfers NQSO to a charity, the employee will still realize compensation income when the charity exercises them

A

true

259
Q

true or false?

the expiration date for ISOs can be greater than 10 years from the grant date

A

false

260
Q

True or false?

while living, an employee can transfer ISOs to another party

A

false

261
Q

when must ISOs be be exercised by?

A

within 3 months from retirement/termination date

262
Q

how long do you need to hold ISOs for favorable tax treatment?

A

2 years from grant date, 1 year from exercise date

263
Q

true or false?

when you exercise ISO you realize compensation income

A

false

264
Q

is there payroll tax on ISO that are sold within 1 year of exercise

A

No, but it is included as compensation income

265
Q

In regards to ISO, how do you calculate an employee’s adjusted basis for regular tax

A

the exercise price x # of shares

266
Q

In regards to ISO, how do calcualte the basis for AMT

A

it equals # shares x fmv of stock

267
Q

If there is a non qualified disposition with an ISO, is it possible to have a capital loss?

A

no

268
Q

Calculate the cost of the following cashless exercise NQSO: and how many shares would have to be sold to satisfy the cashless transfer
Three years ago, Tina was granted a nonqualified stock option to purchase 100 shares of employer stock at $20 per share. She exercised the option when the FMV of the stock was $30, assume her marginal rate is 28%

A

exercise cost = 20 x 100 = 2,000
tax cost = 30 - 20 x 100 x 28% = $280
total cost = $2,280
shares to be sold = $2,280 / 30 = 76

269
Q

Under an Employee Stock Purchase Plan, what is the mimum grant price allowed?

A

85% of the FMV on the date of grant or

85% of FMV on the date of exercise

270
Q

how long does an employee have to hold shares under a ESPP to receive favorable tax treatment

A

2 years from grant and 1 year from exercise

271
Q

Through his company’s ESPP, David receives an option to purchase 1,000 shares of XYZ stock at $20 per share, when the FMV of the stock was $22 per share. He exercises the options when the market price is $25 per share. 5 years later, Dave sells the shares for $100. What are the tax consequences?

A

$2,000 ordinary income

$78,000 capital gain

272
Q

how do you determine the income component of stocks exercised under a ESPP?

A

the lesser of fmv on date of grant - option price

or the fmv on date of disposition - option price

273
Q

how is phantom stock taxed to the employee?

A

at retirement or other termination event the vested value is received as cash and taxed as ordianry income

274
Q

similar to phantom stock, except it gives the right to the monetary equivalent of the increase in the value of shares of stock over a specified time period

A

stock appreciation rights

275
Q

states that an employee who receives restricted stock may elect to recognize the income immediately rather than waiting until there is no longer a substantial risk of forfeiture

A

Section 83b election

276
Q

how long does an employee have to make an 83b election?

A

30 days after receiving the restricted stock

277
Q

when is restricted stock taxed?

A

when there is no longer a substantial risk of forfeiture:
when it is vested
meeting performance goals

278
Q

What are the tax consequences of the following transaction assuming no section 83b election:
Mark has restricted stock of 1,000 shares worth $10 at time of grant. Mark is required to work for the company for 5 years otherwise the restricted stock is forfeited. Mark works for 7 years. The stock was $40 by end of year 5. Mark then sells the restricted stock at $45

A

Mark realizes $30,000 in compensation income at year 5
Mark has a long term capital gain of $5,000 in year 7

If 83b was elected:
Mark has $10,000 in compensation in year 1
Mark has long term capital gain of $35,000 in year 7

279
Q
True or false?
an employee is taxed when they convert junior class shares into common class shares
A

False

280
Q
True or false?
an employee is not taxed on the date the junior class shares are issued
A

True

281
Q

a plan in which employee may, within limits, choose the form of employee benefits from a selection of benefit provided by the empolyer

A

cafeteria plan

282
Q

true or false?

cafeteria plans must include a cash option

A

true

283
Q

True or false?

cafeteria plans are not complex

A

false

284
Q

true or false?

cafeteria plans are expensive to administer

A

true

285
Q

are cafeteria plan subject to discriminatory testing?

A

Yes

286
Q

Employers who employed on average ___ or fewer employees during the preceding two years are allowed to use SIMPLE cafeteria plan

A

100

287
Q

eligible employers who start a SIMPLE cafeteria plan can maintain the plan until they exceed ____ employees during the preceding year

A

200

288
Q

can scholarships or fellowships be provided under a cafeteria plan?

A

no

289
Q

can dependent care services be provided under a cafeteria plan?

A

yes

290
Q

can employee discounts be provided under a cafeteria plan?

A

no

291
Q

can non qualified or qualified deferred comp be included in a cafeteria plan?

A

no

292
Q

can group life insurance be provided under a cafeteria plan?

A

yes

293
Q

can a HSA be included in a cafeteria plan?

A

Yes

294
Q

can accident and health benefits be included in cafeteria plans?

A

yes

295
Q

can long term care insurance be included in cafeteria plans?

A

no

296
Q

how many hours are required for an employee to be eligible under a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

1,000

297
Q

can someone under 21 years old take part in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

No

298
Q

how many years of service are required to participate in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

1 year

299
Q

a cafeteria plan in which employees can be reimbursed for qualified expenses

A

flexible spending account

300
Q

what are the two types of FSA’s?

A

health FSA

dependent care assistance fsa

301
Q

maximum amount allowed to be reimbursed for health/medical expenses under a FSA for 2017 is ___

A

$2,600

302
Q

what is the maximum annual salary reduction for dependent care expenses under a FSA for 2017?

A

$5,000

303
Q

what is the maximum salary reduction if an employee uses a health FSA and dependent care FSA for 2017?

A

$7,600

304
Q

are contributions to FSA’s subject to payroll taxes?

A

no

305
Q

are FSA’s use it or lose it? or do they allow carry over?

A

use it or lose it

306
Q

true or false?

long term care insurance and over the counter drugs are eligible for reimbursement under a FSA

A

false, besides for insulin

307
Q

Calculate the total tax savings from the below FSA assuming all expenses are qualified:

employer uses $2,000 of FSA for qualified expenses avoiding the following taxes:
15% fed
4% state
1.45% medicare
6.2% SSI
A

total savings = 26.65% x 2,000 = $533

308
Q

are prepaid legal services included in the employees gross income?

A

Yes

309
Q

are prepaid legal services tax deductible to the employer?

A

Yes

310
Q

true or false?
an employee does not have to include child and dependent care services under $5,000 in their gross income if provided by the employer

A

True

311
Q

True or False?

dues paid to a private health club/gym by the employer are taxable to the employee as wage compensation

A

True

312
Q

is qualified employer provided educational assistance at undergrad and graduate levels included in an employee’s gross income?

A

no, maxed at $5,250 though

313
Q

benefits that are so small that accounting for them would be impractical and therefore are excluded from an employee’s gross income

A

de minimis fringe benefits

314
Q

example of de minimis fringe benefits

A

company computer or copy machine

315
Q

a type of welfare benefit plan into which employers make deposits that will be used to provide future employee benefits

A

Voluntary Employees’ Beneficiary Association (VEBA)

316
Q

in what year are VEBA contributions deductible to the employer

A

in the year they are made

317
Q

can life insurance benefits be included in a VEBA?

A

yes

318
Q

can commuter expense coverage be covered in a VEBA?

A

no

319
Q

can vacation be included in a VEBA?

A

yes

320
Q

can job training benefits be included in a VEBA?

A

yes

321
Q

true or false?

A VEBA sits inside an irrevoacble trust

A

True

322
Q

can accident/homeowners insurance be included in a VEBA?

A

no

323
Q

Can savings, retirement, or deferred comp be included in a VEBA?

A

no

324
Q

how long do short-term disability benefits generally last?

A

2 years

325
Q

how long do long-term disability benefits generally last?

A

more than two years or until a certain age, usually 65

326
Q

what has greater chances of occurrence, generally speaking, death or disability?

A

disability

327
Q

true or false?

own occumpation disability is the msot expensive

A

true

328
Q

what is the difference between own occupation and modified occupation?

A

modified states that the insured can not be working to claim benefits

329
Q

under the social security definition of disability, how long must the disability last

A

at least 5 months and expected to last at least 12 months or unti ldeath

330
Q

does disability insurance usually exclude preexisting sicknesses?

A

yes

331
Q

disability policy where if the employee returns to work for lesser pay the policy will pay the difference between original pay and the lesser pay

A

residual policy rider

332
Q

occurs when an insured is unable to perform one or more important duties of his own but can still perform some duties

A

partial disability

333
Q

true or false?

when disability benefits under a policy are lowered by social security disability benefits your premiums will be lower

A

true

334
Q

designed to cover the expenses that are usual and necessary in the operation of a business should the owner/insured become disabled

A

business overhead expense insurance

335
Q

are premiums deductible under business overhead expense insurance

A

yes

336
Q

what is the maximum benefit length under business overhead expense insurance

A

1-2 years

337
Q

are benefits under business overhead expense insurance taxable?

A

yes

338
Q

under key employee disability insurance, are premiums deductible if the employee is the beneficiary?

A

yes

339
Q

under key employee disability insurance, are premiums deductible if the employer is the beneficiary?

A

no

340
Q

under key employee disability insurance, are benefits tax free if paid to the employee?

A

no

341
Q

under key employee disability, are benefits tax free if paid to the employer?

A

yes

342
Q

how long does a policy owner have to wait until they can receive their first disability payment with most policies?

A

elimination period plus 30 days

343
Q

health or dissability policies that guarantee the insured the right to renew until a specified age or # of year with no premium increases

A

noncancelable policies

344
Q

health or disability policies where a right to renew is guaranteed but the insurance company can increase premiums on a class basis

A

guaranteed renewable

345
Q

health or disability polices where the insurance company may terminate the policy if certain conditions are met

A

conditionally renewable

346
Q

what is the time limit for incontestability?

A

two years except for fraud

347
Q

how long does the insured have to notify the insurance company of a claim they want to file?

A

20 days

348
Q

how long does the insured have to provide proof of loss?

A

90 days from date of loss

349
Q

disability option you can select that increases the coverage amount as your income increases

A

guarantied insurability option

350
Q

disability option you can select that increases your benefit each year by inflation or some other index

A

cost of living adjustment benefit

351
Q

what is the difference between hospital reimbursement contract and hospital service contracts

A

reimbursement contracts pay the insured for the costs they realized during hospital stay, where as service contracts allow the insured to receive actual hospital services for a stated number of days

352
Q

amounts an insured must pay to receive certain covered services

A

copayments

353
Q

what does 80/20 coinsurance mean?

A

the insured pays 20% of covered expenses after the deductible is reached and before the stop loss limit is reached

354
Q

the dollar amount of covered benefits to which the coinsurance provision is applied

A

stop loss limit

355
Q

the maximum amount the insured must pay including the deductible and coinsurance payment

A

maximum out of pocket

356
Q

how much does does Jane’s insurance company pay in the following scenario:
jane becomes ill and has a insurance policy with $250 deductible and 80% coinsurance. She incurrs medical bills of 7,000 and doctor expenses of 3,250

A

$8,000

357
Q

how much would mary pay under the following scenario:
mary becomes ill and realizes 6k of medical expense. her policy has a $300 deductible with a 5,000 stop loss limit. coinsurance is 80/20

A

300 + 20% x 5,000 = $1300

358
Q

an organization that provides a broad range of health services to a group of subscribers for a fixed periodic payment

A

Health maintenance organization

359
Q

hospital and surgical expenses coverage that requires the insurance company to pay the first costs that are insured, without being subject to a deductible

A

first dollar coverage

360
Q

can self employed personas deduct health insurance costs?

A

yes

361
Q

do HMO’s provide out of network service?

A

no

362
Q

do PPO’s provide out of network service?

A

yes but at higher costs

363
Q

what are the qualifying events under extended cobra coverage?

A

death
termination of employment
change in employment status (full time to part time)
divorce or legal separation
child reaching an age where the child is no longer eligible
employee reaches medicare age and spouse/dependents lose coverage as a result

364
Q

how long does the individual have to select coverage if they want to be covered by COBRA’s extended coverage provision?

A

within 60 days of qualifying event

365
Q

how long does the individual have to pay the premium for coverage under COBRA’s extended coverage provision?

A

45 days

366
Q

how much can the employer charge for COBRA coverage?

A

up to 102% of normal group rates

367
Q

Named vs. All-Risk (Comprehensive)

A
368
Q

How much coverage should one have for disability insurance?

A

60-70% of pre-tax income

369
Q

Principle of Indemnity

A

A person is entitled to compensation only to the extent that financial loss has been suffered

370
Q

Principle of Subrogation

A

Insured cannot indemnify himself from both the insurance company and a negligent third party for the same claim

371
Q

Insurable Interest

A

The insured must be subject to emotional or financial hardship resulting from the loss

372
Q

Concealment

A

The insured and insurer must both be forthcoming with all relevant facts about the insured risk and coverage provided for that risk

373
Q

When must an insurable interest exist for a property insurance claim

A

At policy inception and at time of loss

374
Q

When must insurable interest exist for life insurance?

A

At time on policy inception.

Ex: Husband and wife get married. Wife gets LI policy on husband. They divorce. Wife would still collect the LI policy if he died.