Book 1 Flashcards

Question

Cryptologic technicians Networks (CTN) Superseded by CWT Cyber warfare Tech

Answer 1

monitor, identify, collect and analyze information, provide data for digital network products, and conduct computer network operations

Answer 2

operate state-of-the-art computer systems to conduct information operations; collect, analyze and exploit signals of interest to identify, locate and report worldwide threats.

Answer 3

operate and maintain electronic sensors and computer systems; collect, analyze, exploit, and disseminate Electronic Intelligence (ELINT) all in accordance with fleet and national tasking.

Answer 4

assist in every phase of the planning, collectionm processing, analysis, and idssemination of intelligence information; assemble and analyze multi-source operational intelligence in support of all warfare areas.

Answer 5

perform core and specialty functions of Communications Operations, message processing, and network administration and security.

Answer 6

Norfolk, VA. Provides secure and reliable, classified and unclassified, voice, messaging, video, and data, telecommunications to surface, subsurface, air and ground forces in support of Command, Control, Computer, Communications, and Intelligence (c4I) for real-world operations and exercises and to US Naval, Joint and Coalition operating forces worldwide.

Answer 7

Wahiawa, HI. Provides similar infrastructure support mainly for PACFLT Aswell as a backup to NCTAMS LANT.

Answer 8

Provides multi-spectral connectivity, network operations and information assurance to navy, joint and coalition forces in support of operations

Answer 9

(NCTS Guam) is a United States Navy communications facility on the U.S. territory of Guam. NCTS Guam is under 10th Fleet and NCTAMS PAC

Answer 10

The Naval Computer and Telecommunications Station Naples (NCTS Naples) provides voice, video and data services to the U.S. Navy joint, allied and coalition customers.

Answer 11

NCTS San Diego is a regional communication office that provides quality, integrated tactical and non-tactical telecommunications connectivity to local and regional customers, both afloat and ashore

Answer 12

COMMAND, CONTROL, COMMUNICATION, COMPUTERS, COLLABORATION, AND INTELLIGENCE.

Answer 13

TO PROVIDE COMMAND AND CONTROL CAPABILITIES AND ENTERPRISE INFRASTRUCTURE TO ASSURE GLOBAL NET-CENTRIC ENTRPRISE ACROSS FUL SPECTRUM OF OPERATIONS.

Answer 14

NAVAL AIR AND SPACE INTELLIGENCE CENTER- PROVIDSE INTEL DIRECTLY TO MILITARY UNITS DEVELOPMENT AND SUSTAINMENT OF US AIR, SPACE AND CYBERSPACE CAPABILITIES.

Answer 15

TO COORDINATE, MONITOR AND OVERSEE THE DEFENSE OF THE NAVY COMPUTER NETWORKS AND SYSTEMS; TO EXECUTE COMPUTER NETWORK DEFENSE MISSIONS AS ASSIGNED BY COMMANDER, TENTH FLEET AND COMMANDER, US CYBER COMMAND.

Answer 16

OFFICE OF DIRECTOR OF NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE

Answer 17

DEFENSE INTELLIGENCE AGENCY

Answer 18

NATIONAL SECURIT AGENCY

Answer 19

CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY

Answer 20

NATIONAL GEOSPATIAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY

Answer 21

DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Answer 22

FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION

Answer 23

DRUG ENFORCEMENT AGENCY

Answer 24

DEPARMENT OF ENERGY

Answer 25

DEPARTMENT OF STATE

Answer 26

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Answer 27

NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION

Answer 28

NATIONAL MEDIA EXPLOITATION CENTER

Answer 29

NATINOAL RECONNAISSANCE OFFICE

Answer 30

USAIRFORCE

Answer 31

US MARINE CORP

Answer 32

US COAST GUARD

Answer 33

DIRECT, SENIOR, EXECUTIVE.

Answer 34

PRESIDENT OF THE UNITED STATES, DONALD J. TRUMP IS THE OVERALL HEAD OF THE US ARMED FORCES.

Answer 35

PETE HEGSETH. HEAD OF THE US DOD CONCERNED WITH THE ARMED SERVICES AND MILITARY MATTERS, THIS POSITION ROUGHLY OCRRESPONDS TO MINISTER OF DEFENSE IN OTHER COUNTRIES.

Answer 36

CARLOS DEL TORO WAS THE PREVIOUS. SUBORDINATE TO THE SECRETARY OF DEFENSE, THE SECRATARY OF THE NAVY IS RESPONSIBLE FOR, AND HAS STATUTORY AUTHORITY (TITLE 10 OF THE UNITED STATES CODE SECTION 5013) TO "CONDUCT ALL THE AFFAIRS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY"

Answer 37

Currently General Charles Q. Brown, Jr is the principal military adviser to the President, Secretary of Defense, and the National Security Council (NSC), also the highest-ranking military officer

Answer 38

Admiral Lisa Marie Franchetti. Reports directly to the Secretary of the Navy for the command, utilization of resources and operating efficiency of the operating forces of the Navy and of the Navy shore activities assigned by the Secretary. Under the authority of the Secretary of the Navy, the CNO also designates naval personnel and naval resources to the commanders of Unified Combatant Commands.

Answer 39

Each fleet is led by a three-star vice admiral, except Fourth Fleet is led by a rear admiral. These seven fleets are further grouped under Fleet Forces Command (the former Atlantic Fleet), Pacific Fleet, Naval Forces Europe, and Naval Forces Central Command, whose commander also doubles as Commander Fifth Fleet; the first three commands being led by four-star full Admirals

Answer 40

COMNAVAIRFOR is responsible for modernization needs, training initiatives, and operational concept development for the naval aviation community throughout the U.S. Navy's operational fleet.

Answer 41

James Honea. The senior enlisted leader of the Navy and reports directly to the CNO.

Answer 42

responsible for larger fleet commands: e.g., U.S. Pacific Fleet. There are Five Fleet Master Chief positions in the Navy

Answer 43

Force Master Chief: responsible for larger force commands: e.g., Submarine Force U.S. Atlantic Fleet. There are ten Force Master Chief positions in the Navy.

Answer 44

Command Master Chief: Is the senior enlisted person at a command and as such works as a liaison between the Commanding Officer and the enlisted ranks, serving as the senior enlisted leader.

Answer 45

Billet Based Distribution – 10 Section document that gives a command all the pertinent information concerning

Answer 46

The Officer Distribution Control Report – is similar to the BBD, except is utilized for the placement of officers.

Answer 47

Activity Manpower Document – contains the manpower requirements for the Navy.

Answer 48

is an evaluation of a Sailor’s performance in the last year and is used for personnel E-6 and below

Answer 49

Fitness reports are similar to the Evaluation reports but are designed for Officers W2-W5 and O1-O9.

Answer 50

Concurrent reports are filed when Sailors are away from their parent command such as IA or TAD for a period greater than 90 days

Answer 51

SGLI and dependents page.

Answer 52

Administrative comments in a Sailor’s record can be a local record or be added to their permanent record.

Answer 53

A listing of qualifications, awards earned, Schools attended and the history of assignments.

Answer 54

$400,000 life insurance policy for all active-duty service members.

Answer 55

any incident military, political, or media interests that are of high Navy, vice national level, interest; may include murder, rape, forcible sodomy, aggravated sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated assault, assault with a deadly weapon, kidnapping, carjacking, and burglary of an occupied dwelling. Sent to CNO.

Answer 56

used to report any event or incident that could attract national-level interest, are sent to the Pentagon.

Answer 57

reported to the Operational Commander, and includes lesser misconduct to include domestic violence, domestic abuse, child abuse/neglect, child sexual abuse, indecent assault, assault with intent to commit rape or forcible sodomy, sexual harassment, DUI, suicide-related behavior, EO incidents, unlawful discrimination, and hazing.

Answer 58

The Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense was established as an independent and objective unit within the Department of Defense to conduct and supervise audits and investigations relating to the programs and operations of the Department of Defense.

Answer 59

The correspondence manual provides the user with the proper means of drafting Navy Messages from formatting to proper titles and spacing.

Answer 60

It is used for retention purposes to determine whether an individual was eligible to re-enlist and the manning volumes for each rating.

Answer 61

1. US Naval Academy and Naval Academy Preparatory School 2. Selection and Training Program (BOOST) 3. Officer Candidate School (OCS) Program 4. Limited Duty Officer (LDO) and Chief Warrant Officer (CWO) Programs 5. Seaman to Admiral-21 (STA-21) Program 6. Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program 7. Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program

Answer 62

The Defense Language Proficiency Test: is a battery of foreign language tests produced by the Defense Language Institute and are intended to assess the general language proficiency of native English speakers in a specific foreign language, in the skills of reading and listening.

Answer 63

Education Service Officer: assists the Executive Officer in administering education programs and oversees the command’s training program.

Answer 64

Assists the local command with administering urinalysis testing to reduce or eliminate illicit drug use in the Navy.

Answer 65

1. Career Development Board 2. Sponsorship 3. Mentorship 4. Sailor Recognition 5. Command Indoctrination 6. Command Ombudsmen

Answer 66

1. Integrity 2. Accountability 3. Initiative 4. Toughness

Answer 67

The Public Affairs Officer: Their function is to coordinate between media outlets and the command’s OPSEC officer to prevent sensitive material from being disclosed to the public

Answer 68

1. 3M: Maintenance and Material Management is a program designed for commands to conduct maintenance on a specific schedule to achieve maximum equipment operational readiness. 2. PMS: Preventive Maintenance System: is a standardized method for planning, scheduling, and accomplishing preventive maintenance.

Answer 69

Naval Tactical Command Support System (NTCSS) is a logistics command and control support information system.

Answer 70

Relational Administration; Used for muster, PQS input, role assignments, and recall information.

Answer 71

Relational Supply; Used to order tools/parts

Answer 72

Organizational Maintenance Management System-Next Generation, Job submission on ship’s equipment

Answer 73

Defense Property and Accountability System: is software developed to standardize property accountability, asset management and financial reporting across all of the DoD.

Answer 74

Material Obligation Validation: is a system used to verify the unfilled quantity of a requisition that is not immediately available for issue (backorder).

Answer 75

Depot Level Repairable: are repaired at the organizational or intermediate level based on the cost and need for repair

Answer 76

DOD components shall physically turn in their property to the nearest DRMO when economically feasible and permitted by Hazardous Waste regulations.

Answer 77

occurs when a command cannot remove the current part until a replacement can be made available for install.

Answer 78

is a system recording, reporting and evaluating the maintenance requirements of the fleet.

Answer 79

spare parts located near or within a work center to provide easy access to replacement parts for items that require frequent repair.

Answer 80

Casualty reporting – A system for requisitioning emergency replacement parts for equipment or components out of commission that are essential to the command’s mission.

Answer 81

Non-sufficient impact on command.

Answer 82

major degradation of secondary mission or minor degradation of a primary mission.

Answer 83

minor degradation of secondary mission

Answer 84

Cognizance Symbol

Answer 85

loss of at least one primary mission (i.e. DIW).

Answer 86

National Stock Number

Answer 87

Allowance Parts List

Answer 88

Allowance Equipage List

Answer 89

Not Carried

Answer 90

Not in Stock

Answer 91

DOD Single Line-Item Requisition System Document

Answer 92

Selected Item Management

Answer 93

Contractual procurement

Answer 94

Military interdepartmental purchase request

Answer 95

On the spot, over-the-counter purchase request ($2,500 MAX for supplies, $25,000 for Aviation Fuel)

Answer 96

Solicitation Contract Order for commercial items

Answer 97

Modification of contract

Answer 98

shipment invoice

Answer 99

Survey Form - for missing or non-repairable electronic test equipment

Answer 100

Report of Deficiency - for shipping or packing discrepancies

Answer 101

Quality Deficiency Report - to report deficiencies in materials received

Answer 102

Requisition and invoice/shipping document

Answer 103

The Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization and inventory Management Program serves as a fundamental element of the Navy’s life cycle control and management of hazardous materials.

Answer 104

Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office. A service that is designed to save valuable ships resources by providing an inventory or excess material that has been turned into through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS)

Answer 105

A self-service store operated by an ashore supply activity. Provides a ready supply of relatively low-cost items frequently required by customers in the area.

Answer 106

Operational Target: is an estimated amount of money that will be required by an operating unit to perform tasks and functions that are assigned.

Answer 107

Is used as a payment vehicle for commercial invoices valued at or below the micro-purchase threshold ($3,000)

Answer 108

Power supplied by the power company.

Answer 109

Backup or generator power if normal power fails

Answer 110

Assures continued performance during a power outage or allow time to transfer of function to an alternate power source.

Answer 111

Purpose of personnel security is to authorize initial and continued access to classified information and/or initial and continued assignment to sensitive duties to those persons whose loyalty, reliability and trustworthiness are such that entrusting them with classified information or assigning them to sensitive duties is clearly consistent with the interests of national security. Additionally, the PSP ensures that no final unfavorable personnel security determination will be made without compliance with all procedural requirements.

Answer 112

(ORANGE) highest level, compromise would cause “exceptionally grave damage” to national security.

Answer 113

(RED) compromise would cause “serious damage” to national security.

Answer 114

(BLUE) lowest level, would cause “damage” to national security.

Answer 115

(GREEN) can be released without clearance, but is sometimes restricted—SBU (Sensitive, But Unclassified), FOUO (For Official Use Only), or NOFORN (No Foreign Officials).

Answer 116

Limits materials to personnel who have the appropriate clearance and a necessity for the information to perform their duties.

Answer 117

SSBI – 5 years

Answer 118

NACLC – 10 and 15 years

Answer 119

NACLC – 10 and 15 years

Answer 120

SSBI – 5 years

Answer 121

Security Access Eligibility Report is used to identify changes in a person’s eligibility for a security clearance.

Answer 122

Any unlawful or criminal acts, foreign travel, changes in marital status, financial difficulties, and, but not limited to, any contact with foreign peoples or officials.

Answer 123

Special Security Officer (SSO).

Answer 124

security container information.

Answer 125

activity security checklist.

Answer 126

container checklist.

Answer 127

Top Secret Cover Sheet (SF704-Secret Cover Sheet & SF705-Confidential Cover Sheet)

Answer 128

COMSEC (CMS) Report.

Answer 129

classified information Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).

Answer 130

1. When first placed in use. 2. When someone transfers out of the facility. 3. When subjected to compromise. 4. When taken out of service.

Answer 131

The DDA has the authority and responsibility to control disclosures of Classified Military Information (CMI) and Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) to foreign governments and international organizations and their representatives or persons sponsored by them.

Answer 132

Defense Courier Service: tasked with establishment, staffing, maintaining and operating an international network of couriers for secure transmission of classified documents and materials (USPS).

Answer 133

classified documents and material shall be addressed with the standardized DCS two-line address. Envelopes, labels, or tags with visible "postage and fees paid" indicia shall not be used. Security classification markings, special security caveats, and other extraneous markings must not appear on the outer wrapper. Nickname and/or special project markings previously approved by the DCS must be placed on the outer wrapper.

Answer 134

when transferring information inside a facility, use a coversheet. If it must be carried outdoors, double-wrap the item.

Answer 135

1. NORMAL: general threat of terrorist activity is possible. 2. ALPHA: threat of possible terrorist activity is unpredictable. 3. BRAVO: a predictable terrorist activity exists. 4. CHARLIE: a terrorist attack is imminent. 5. DELTA: terrorist attack is occurring or just occurred.

Answer 136

used to deter possible terror plot by changing force protection posture (i.e. gate changes, hour changes, shift rotation changes, etc.).

Answer 137

Physical Security Program, provides authorized access to classified material.

Answer 138

Anti-Terrorism Force Protection, provides a safe and secure environment for and deter acts of terrorism against DOD personnel, assets, and facilities.

Answer 139

Emergency Action Plan: establishes procedures to protect classified information and communications security materials during emergency situations such as abandoning ship or natural disasters. Can only be initiated by the Commanding Officer or the highest ranking official

Answer 140

Prescribes policy and procedures for planning, protecting, and destroying COMSEC material during emergency conditions

Answer 141

The Commanding Officer or other responsible official must be aware of and approve the emergency plan as outlined in the CO’s battle orders.

Answer 142

Items are destroyed in the following order by burning, shredding, destroying, sinking, or physically smashing equipment. 1. Priority One-- Top Secret information 2. Priority Two--Secret information 3. Priority Three--Confidential information

Answer 143

Sensitive Compartmented Information. Classified information concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods, or analytical processes that is required to be handled within formal access control systems

Answer 144

1. PROHIBITED EXCEPT FOR OFFICIAL DUTY: a. Two-way transmitting equipment. b. Recording equipment (audio, video, optical). Associated media will be controlled. c. Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment.

Answer 145

2. PROHIBITED IN SCIFs: a. Personally owned photographic, video, and audio recording equipment. b. Personally owned computers and associated media.

Answer 146

1. PDS: A failure to comply with the provisions of security regulations causing a potential compromise of classified information 2. Security Violation: A compromise of classified information to persons not authorized to receive it or a serious failure to comply with the provisions of security regulations which is likely to result in compromise.

Answer 147

a solid, permanent facility that is sound-proof, one primary entrance with an automatic closing door, vents/ducts that are protected with bars, as well as opaque windows or no windows.

Answer 148

Tactical SCIF has physical barriers like a facilities SCIF, but also has physically armed sentries standing guard over the space.

Answer 149

For Secret and above, recertification and inspections occur every six months. For Confidential and below, every nine months.

Answer 150

All of these are required for accountability purposes and to prevent the loss or theft of materials.

Answer 151

The movement of all visitors shall be controlled to ensure that access to classified information is deliberate and consistent with the purpose of the visit.

Answer 152

The removal of information from the media or equipment such that data recovery using any known technique or analysis is prevented.

Answer 153

a. COMSEC: Communications Security, protects classified and unclassified voice, video, and data systems. b. INFOSEC: Information Security, protects US information and information systems. c. COMPUSEC: Computer Security, protects computing systems against compromise.

Answer 154

Principal means by which the DNI provides guidance, policy, and direction, and instruction to the Intelligence Community.

Answer 155

Special Security Officer for the Navy has been designated as the Cognizant Security Authority (CSA), and is responsible for implementing SCI security policy and procedures.

Answer 156

The SSO is responsible for the operation (i.e. security, control, use, etc.) of all command Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities (SCIFs).

Answer 157

The command security manager must be an officer or a civilian employee, GS-11 or above, with sufficient authority and staff to manage the program for the command.

Answer 158

The CSM ensures that the security programs are coordinated and inclusive of all requirements as outlined in SECNAVINST-M-5510.36. (See section 204 for more information)

Answer 159

Joint Personnel Adjudication System: provides centralized, integrated system to assist verification of a person’s security clearance status and eligibility.

Answer 160

Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility reports directly to DIRNCIS and conducts clearance verification to enhance national security and protect government information.

Answer 161

1. Must be properly stored and labeled 2. Must be degaussed and/or properly destroyed 3. Records of materials and their destruction must be maintained

Answer 162

Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation.

Answer 163

Missions are executed to defend the DODIN, or other cyberspace DOD cyberspace forces have been ordered to defend, from active threats in cyberspace

Answer 164

Missions intended to project power in and through foreign cyberspace through actions taken in support of CCDR or national objectives.

Answer 165

comprehensive evaluation of the technical and non-technical security safeguards of an information system that establishes the extent to which a particular design and implementation meets a set of specific security requirements.

Answer 166

a process in which certification of competency, authority, or credibility is presented.

Answer 167

the Designated Approving Authority, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk.

Answer 168

the purpose of the system security plan (SSP) is to provide an overview of the security requirements of the system and describe the controls in place or planned responsibilities and expected behavior of all individuals who access the system.

Answer 169

Authorization to Operate, the official management decision issued by a DAA or authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the residual risk to agency operations.

Answer 170

an Interim Authorization to Operate (IATO), is the temporary authorization granted by a DAA for an information system to process information based on preliminary results of a security evaluation of the system.

Answer 171

management of security features and assurances through control of changes made to hardware, software, firmware, and documentation, test, test fixtures, and test documentation throughout the life cycle of an information system.

Answer 172

In addition to command specified required training, transferring of files from a lower classification to a higher classification requires malware scanning of the source files, but is not limited to the type of file being transferred. From higher classification down however, the files MUST be converted to a .txt document and ran through a buster tool designed to look for key words to enable the user to safely transfer information without leaking potentially classified documents. Also, the user and a subject matter expert need to go through any document being transferred down to ensure that no potentially dangerous material is spilled onto an unclassified host.

Answer 173

Process of managing risks to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals resulting from the operation of an information system. The process considers effectiveness, efficiency, and constraints due to laws, directives, policies, or regulations.

Answer 174

a. Confidentiality: is assurance that information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, processes, or devices. b. Integrity: is assurance that information is not modified by unauthorized parties or in an unauthorized manner. c. Availability: is assurance of timely, reliable access to data and Information Systems by authorized users. Availability-focused IA controls protect against degraded capabilities and denial of service conditions. d. Non-repudiation: is assurance that the sender of data is provided with proof of delivery and the recipient is provided with proof of the sender's identity, so neither can later deny having processed the data. e. Authentication: is assurance of the identity of an e-mail message sender or receiver is who they claim they are.

Answer 175

Root-Level Intrusions – Unauthorized privileged access (administrative or root access) to a DOD system

Answer 176

User-Level Intrusions – Unauthorized non-privileged access (user-level permissions) to a DOD system. Automated tools, targeted exploits, or self-propagating malicious logic may also attain these privileges.

Answer 177

Unsuccessful Activity Attempt – Attempt to gain unauthorized access to the system, which is defeated by normal defensive mechanisms. Attempt fails to gain access to the system (i.e., attacker attempt valid or potentially valid username and password combinations) and the activity cannot be characterized as exploratory scanning. Can include reporting of quarantined malicious code.

Answer 178

Denial of Service – Activity that impairs, impedes, or halts normal functionality of a system or network

Answer 179

Non-Compliance Activity – Occurs when a system is not compliant with appropriate Navy or DOD regulations (i.e. block list not applied, command not up-to-date, etc.).

Answer 180

An activity (scan/probe) that seeks to identify a computer, an open port, an open service, or any combination for later exploits. This activity does not directly result in a compromise.

Answer 181

Malicious Code – Installation of malicious software (i.e. trojan, backdoor, virus, or worm).

Answer 182

Investigating – Events that are potentially malicious or anomalous activity deemed suspicious and warrants, or is undergoing, further review. No event will be closed out as a Category 8. Category 8 will be re-categorized to appropriate Category 1-7 or 9 prior to closure.

Answer 183

Events that are initially suspected as being malicious but after investigation are determined not to fit the criteria for any of the other categories (e.g., system malfunction or false positive). *Category 0 (zero) events are for training purposes only.*

Answer 184

Provides primary governing policy for all unclassified DOD WWW sites to prevent the release of classified information.

Answer 185

address severe network vulnerabilities resulting in immediate and potentially severe threats to DON systems and information.

Answer 186

address new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate risk to DON systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could increase the risk.

Answer 187

a formal tasking order that contains detailed guidance and missions for each component to accomplish.

Answer 188

a formal tasking order that contains guidance for official Navy communication circuits.

Answer 189

NMCI Information Advisory, NMCI Information Bulletin, Overseas Navy Enterprise Network Advisory, Overseas Navy Enterprise Network Bulletin

Answer 190

Updates, fixes and/or enhancements to a software program delivered in the form of a single installable package.

Answer 191

Systematic examination of an information system or product to determine the adequacy of security measures, identify security deficiencies, provide data from which to predict the effectiveness of proposed security measures, and confirm the adequacy of such measures after implementation.

Answer 192

1. Vulnerability: Weakness in an IS, system security procedures, internal controls, or implementation that could be exploited. 2. Threat: Any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact an IS through unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure, modification of data, and/or denial of service.

Answer 193

The Information Systems Security Manager/Officer: Is the individual responsible to the Commanding Officer for the proper execution of an effective IA program for their system or site. The ISSM is designated in writing by the CO and is overall in charge of and responsible for the network, its security, as well as any training requirements to ensure the safety of the network, its systems, and its users.

Answer 194

Personnel must meet and maintain the minimum qualification standards of their assigned Specialty Area/Work Role and proficiency level.

Answer 195

a. Blue Team Operations: uses a team specifically constructed for the Inter-Deployment Training Cycle charged with assisting in the protection of the targeted assets and conducting training to local personnel.

Answer 196

b. Red Team Operation: is an independent and threat-based effort by an interdisciplinary, simulated opposing force, which after proper safeguards are established, uses both active and passive capabilities on a formal, time-bounded tasking to expose and exploit IA vulnerabilities of friendly forces.

Answer 197

Command Cyber Readiness Inspection (CCRI) – quick look methodology for compliance validations for COCOMs. NAVIFOR is the Office of the Designator Approving Authority and is the overall authority for operating a network.

Answer 198

1. PII is any information which can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, such as their name, social security number, biometric records, etc. alone, or when combined with other personal or identifying information which is linked or linkable to a specific individual, such as date and place of birth, mother’s maiden name, etc.

Answer 199

2. Safeguarding is protective measures to prevent compromise or unauthorized disclosure of personally identifiable information (PII) The loss of PII can result in substantial harm to individuals, including identity theft or other fraudulent use of the information.

Answer 200

Official government email system restricts access to official users providing CIANA requirements as well as meeting IA and accreditation requirements.

Answer 201

any node that can be connected to a network, and allow users to interact with it and utilize its resources (i.e. a computer or other networking device).

Answer 202

a server with the specific purpose of providing services to users from a centralized source.

Answer 203

a layer 1 network device that allows for computers to be connected to share data. This device does not separate collision domains.

Answer 204

layer 2 network device that allows for computer to be connected to share data. This device separates each host onto its own collision domain allowing for fast, reliable communication between hosts.

Answer 205

layer 3 network device that interconnects two or more computer networks together. A router is a networking device whose software and hardware are customized to the tasks of routing and forwarding information and has two or more network connections to allow cross-network communication to occur.

Answer 206

Wireless Access Point, a layer 2 network device that functions similarly to a switch.

Answer 207

allows for multiple hosts to share a single internet connection. Has the ability to filter web traffic, as well as cache commonly used internet pages to speed up internet activity.

Answer 208

can be either layer 4 or layer 7, and can be comprised of either hardware or software, or a combination of both. Firewalls are frequently used to prevent unauthorized Internet users from accessing private networks connected to the Internet, especially intranets.

Answer 209

built specifically for creating a remote-access VPN. They provide high availability, high performance and scalability and include components, called scalable encryption processing (SEP) modules that enable users to easily increase capacity and throughput.

Answer 210

refers to making copies of data so that these additional copies may be used to restore the original after a data loss event (i.e. natural disaster or compromise).

Answer 211

a layer 1 device used to amplify signals transmitted between network nodes.

Answer 212

consists of hubs, repeaters, switches and bridges (layer 1 and layer 2).

Answer 213

LAN-based routers and layer 3 switches to interconnect separate networks.

Answer 214

the network back-bone. Designed to be fault tolerant, have high data transfer rates, and low latency periods.

Answer 215

the logical layout of the network.

Answer 216

Local Area Network, a computer network covering a small area and contained behind a router.

Answer 217

Wide Area Network, a computer network that covers a broad area or services multiple groups of people by linking LANs together.

Answer 218

Metropolitan Area Network, a large computer network that usually spans a city or a large campus. Utilizes multiple access point to allow users over a large geographical area or location to connect to the same network and use its resources.

Answer 219

Global Area Network, a computer network that spans the globe.

Answer 220

1. Physical – media, signal, binary 2. Data-Link – physical addressing (Media Access Control or Logical Link Control) 3. Network – logical addressing 4. Transport – end-to-end connections 5. Session – inter-host communications 6. Presentation – data presentation and encryption 7. Application – network process to application

Answer 221

Link Layer: Frame Header | Frame Data | Frame Footer Internet Layer: IP Header | IP Data Transport Layer: TCP Header | TCP Data Application Layer: Data

Answer 222

Non-classified Internet Protocol Router Network, is used to exchange sensitive but unclassified information between "internal" users as well as providing user’s access to the Internet.

Answer 223

1. IPv4 uses only 32 bits and has no unique identifiers; IPv6 uses a 128-bit address where the last 48 bits is the device’s full MAC address 2. IPv4 uses numeric addresses (205.x.x.x); IPv6 uses hexadecimal address (2001:0D45:FF00::0) 3. IPv4 octets are separated by a dot(.); IPv6 octets are separated by a colon(:)

Answer 224

Secret Internet Protocol Router Network, is a system of interconnected computer networks to transmit classified information up to and including SECRET.

Answer 225

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System, is a system of interconnected computer networks cleared up to Top Secret and SCI.

Answer 226

Combined Enterprise Regional Information Exchange System is a collection of classified coalition networks, called enclaves, that enable information sharing using email and Web services, instant messaging or chat, the Common Operational Picture service, and Voice over IP. CENTRIXS supports combatant commands throughout the world, including the U.S. Pacific, Central and European commands. Also known as Secret Releasable

Answer 227

Consolidated Afloat Networks and Enterprise Services (CANES) provide a common computing network and common operating system for command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems onboard Navy ships.

Answer 228

Department of Defense Information Network, is defined as a "globally interconnected, end-to-end set of information capabilities for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information.”

Answer 229

Defense Information Systems Network, has been the United States Department of Defense's enterprise network for providing data, video and voice services for 40 years.

Answer 230

Navy/Marine Corps Intranet, is an Information System provided by a contracting company (HP) to allow interoperability between CONUS Navy and Marine commands.

Answer 231

OCONUS Navy Enterprise Network; OCONUS version of NMCI.

Answer 232

Shipboard network. Legacy has been getting replaced by canes

Answer 233

is a system of instructions and data executed directly by a computer's central processing unit. Machine code may be regarded as a primitive programming language or as the lowest-level representation of a compiled and/or assembled computer program.

Answer 234

is a type of low-level language for programming computers, microprocessors, microcontrollers, and other integrated circuits. They implement a symbolic representation of the numeric machine codes and other constants needed to program a particular CPU architecture.

Answer 235

is a programming language with strong abstraction from the details of the computer. In comparison to low-level programming languages, it may use natural language elements, be easier to use, or be more portable across platforms.

Answer 236

is a set of system software programs in a computer that regulate the ways application software programs use the computer hardware and the ways that users control the computer.

Answer 237

is computer software designed to help the user to perform singular or multiple related specific tasks.

Answer 238

: is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer using a host (typically benign looking) file. Requires user interaction to propagate across systems.

Answer 239

is a self-replicating malware program that uses a computer network to send copies of itself to other nodes. Unlike a virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program.

Answer 240

is malware that appears to perform a desirable function for the user prior to executing, but instead facilitates unauthorized access of the user's computer system.

Answer 241

is a method of bypassing normal authentication, securing remote access to a computer, obtaining access to plaintext, and so on, while attempting to remain undetected.

Answer 242

is the criminally fraudulent process of attempting to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and credit card details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.

Answer 243

is a Denial-of-Service attack that overloads a system’s input capacity, thereby crashing the program, system, or preventing the user from accessing its resources.

Answer 244

is the process of scanning and compiling pertinent information of the layout of a network, its users, and its resources.

Answer 245

overloads the input sector of an SQL database and allows the ability to execute arbitrary code forcing the database to divulge its contents or access privileges.

Answer 246

attempts to crack passwords based on a list of words or values.

Answer 247

the ability to escalate privileges to a level allowing the intruder to access or execute programs or data higher than the original intrusion perspective.

Answer 248

physically inputting a user’s PII until access is granted to a system when credentials are unknown.

Answer 249

the ability to get a user to divulge their credentials or other useful information about themselves or their organization by impersonating someone of authority.

Answer 250

precomputed table for caching the output of cryptographic hash functions, usually for cracking password hashes. Usually through brute force or dictionary attack.

Answer 251

cyber-attack in which the perpetrator seeks to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users by temporarily or indefinitely disrupting services of a host connected to the Internet.

Answer 252

malicious attempt to disrupt the normal traffic of a targeted server, service or network by overwhelming the target or its surrounding infrastructure with a flood of Internet traffic.

Answer 253

Public Key Infrastructure is a set of hardware, software, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates to provide encryption and data security in computer networks.

Answer 254

On Microsoft Servers, a domain controller (DC) is a server that responds to security authentication requests (logging in, checking permissions, etc.) within a Windows domain. A domain is a concept introduced in Windows NT whereby a user may be granted access to a number of computer resources with the use of a single username and password combination.

Answer 255

Microsoft Exchange Server is a calendaring and mail server developed by Microsoft that runs exclusively on the Microsoft Windows Server product line.

Answer 256

translates URLs to IP addresses, and vice versa. It allows users to input an easy to remember domain name and be directed to the appropriate website.

Answer 257

PORT 20/21- File transfer Protocol

Answer 258

PORT 22- Secure Shell

Answer 259

PORT 23 - Unsecure

Answer 260

PORT 25 – Simple Mail Transfer

Answer 261

PORT 53 - Translates Domain name to IP

Answer 262

PORT 67/ 68 - Dynamic Host Configuration, used to assign IPs

Answer 263

PORT 30- Hypertext Transfer, used for internet connection

Answer 264

PORT 443- HTTP combined with SSL ot TLS

Answer 265

PORT 110- Retrieve Mail

Answer 266

PORT 143- POP3 with more support for remote mailboxes

Answer 267

It is a connection-oriented protocol. Reads data as streams of bytes, and the message is transmitted to segment boundaries.

Answer 268

It is a connectionless protocol. Messages contain packets that were sent one by one. It also checks for integrity at the arrival time.

Answer 269

The operating system or database constrains the ability of a subject or initiator to access or generally perform some sort of operation on an object or target.

Answer 270

Defined by the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria "as a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong.

Answer 271

restricting system access to only authorized users

Answer 272

divides critical functions among different staff members in an attempt to ensure that no one individual has enough information or access privilege to perpetrate damaging fraud.

Answer 273

Voice over Internet Protocol, also called IP telephony, is a method and group of technologies for the delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol networks

Answer 274

must be able to access only the information and resources that are necessary

Answer 275

the translation of private IP address to a public IP address

Answer 276

an extension of Network Address Translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a LAN to be mapped to a single public IP address to conserve IP addresses.

Answer 277

demilitarized zone is a perimeter network that protects an organization's internal local-area network (LAN) from untrusted traffic

Answer 278

: process of creating a software-based, or virtual, representation of something, such as virtual applications, servers, storage and networks. It is the single most effective way to reduce IT expenses while boosting efficiency and agility

Answer 279

Provides Domain Services, Rights Management Services, Federation Services, Certificate Services, and Lightweight Directory Services. Integrated with Windows Server, gives out-of-the-box functionality needed to centrally configure and administer system, user, and application settings

Answer 280

Is used to notify a service member of an emergency or other important event such as the birth of a child or serious illness or death of a family member.

Answer 281

Automated Digital Networking System connects Navy shipboard networks to other ship and shore networks for transferring IP data of various classification levels.

Answer 282

Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem has the capability to both send and receive narrative shipboard message traffic.

Answer 283

VLF Digital Information Network is a broadcast system that provides a highly reliable and secure system for worldwide delivery of operational, tactical, and administrative messages from the Fleet Submarine Broadcast System (FSBS) and Minimum Essential Emergency Communications Network (MEECN).

Answer 284

Automated Message Store and Forward is a switching system that provides automated readdressed and quote functions for authorized users.

Answer 285

INTEGRATED BROADCAST SYSTEM disseminates threat avoidance, targeting, maneuvers, force protection, target tracking, and target/situation awareness information, and will be continuously refined by data from national, theater, and tactical sensors.

Answer 286

(DEFENSE MESSAGE SYSTEM): Employs the messaging and directory services using internationally recognized COTS-based X.400 and X.500 messaging and directory products.

Answer 287

International Maritime Satellite is a critical communications path for SIPRNET, NIPRNET, and POTS (plain-old telephone system) ship-to-shore communication for all Navy ships less the CV/CVN/LHA/LHD/AGF and LCC classes. This multipurpose SATCOM system provides both simultaneous voice and IP data up to 128 Kbps.

Answer 288

(NAVY REGIONAL ENTERPRISE MESSAGE SYSTEM): Provides web-based messaging capability that allows users to send and receive DMS messages using a web browser or via SMTP.

Answer 289

(AUTOMATED MESSAGE HANDLING SYSTEM): Implements on-site redundancy and full Continuity of Operations Planning (COOP) capability between NCTAMS LANT and NCTAMS PAC.

Answer 290

Video Teleconferencing Service is an extension of traditional telephony technologies with the added feature of being able to see the person or persons with whom one is talking.

Answer 291

Defense Coordinating Officer, will help provide war fighters and supporting elements with some of the tools required for collaboration during engagements.

Answer 292

Gingerbread indicates that an unauthorized person is present on a circuit. The only proper response to this is "Roger out" and communications are to cease on that circuit

Answer 293

Occurs when the previous transmission may have disclosed unauthorized EEFI information and uses a code word and a number combination which is transmitted immediately by any net member to the unit disclosing the EEFI. Proper response for a net member receiving a BEADWINDOW will be "ROGER OUT" using proper net call signs.

Answer 294

Essential Elements of Friendly Information – designed to protect friendly intelligence by granting it the same classification level of our own corresponding intelligence to include: position, capabilities, operations, personnel, COMSEC, and inappropriate transmissions (Wrong Circuit) of friendly and enemy combatants and their systems.

Answer 295

River City is an OPSEC countermeasure. There are various levels that further restrict the outbound transmission/radiation of communication systems and RADAR.

Answer 296

a system of receiving radio beacon signals and rebroadcasting them on the same frequency to confuse navigation.

Answer 297

The intentional insertion of EM energy into transmission paths in any manner, with the objective of deceiving or confusing operators.

Answer 298

The deliberate radiation, re-radiation, or reflection of EM energy for the purpose of preventing or reducing an enemy’s effective use of the EM spectrum with the intent of degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability.

Answer 299

the fine-tuning of RF to reduce crosstalk and converging of different communication systems to maintain COMSEC.

Answer 300

Repeated routing indicators of station who is responsible for delivery

Answer 301

Special Handling Designators

Answer 302

DTG and Precedence

Answer 303

Subject, References, Subject Body and Declassification Instructions

Answer 304

Routine (6hrs)

Answer 305

Immediate (30 minutes)

Answer 306

Priority (3hrs)

Answer 307

Flash (As fast as possible with an objective of less than 10 minutes)

Answer 308

Pinnacle (As fast as possible) (WW is used for CRITIC, which must be routed to DIRNSA in <5 minutes)

Answer 309

Operational Tasking Communications are a means used by which the United States Navy and Allied Navies distribute afloat communications plans.

Answer 310

A Communications Plan provides the communications planner with an automated method of drafting the OPTASK COMMS message.

Answer 311

A Telecommunications Service Order is the authorization from Headquarters, DISA, a DISA area, or DISA-DSC to start, change, or discontinue circuits or trunks and to effect administrative changes.

Answer 312

A Telecommunications Service Request requires additions, deletions or changes in existing Defense Communication System circuits.

Answer 313

A COMSPOT is a report indicative of issues, expected outages, or an outage of a circuit(s) lasting more than 30 minutes. Report is made to NCTAMS and DISA.

Answer 314

1. Over-the-Air Key Transfer (OTAT): Electronically distributing key without changing the traffic encryption key used on the secured communications path over which the transfer is accomplished. (Transmitting electronic key mat for new day, month, etc.)

Answer 315

Prescribes the minimum policies for issuing, accounting, handling, safeguarding, disposing of COMSEC (Communications Security) material, and the application of cryptographic/physical security measures to COMSEC material and facilities.

Answer 316

2. Over-the-Air Rekeying (OTAR): Changing traffic encryption key or transmission security key in remote crypto-equipment by sending new key directly to the remote crypto-equipment over the communications path it secures. (The reception of the new key mat for new day, month, etc.)

Answer 317

Prevents an enemy from detecting, identifying, and locating friendly forces and is used to minimize electromagnetic interference from friendly systems.

Answer 318

Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard is the code name given to the investigation, study, and control of compromising emissions from telecommunications and automated information processing systems.

Answer 319

is a branch of naval warfare that uses surface warships, aircraft, or other submarines to find, track and deter damage or destroy enemy submarines.

Answer 320

activities are conducted daily in peace, crisis, or conflict. As the country enters crisis, existing IO plans can be used as a starting point for supporting a commander’s war fighting mission.

Answer 321

core missions, derived from the tenets of Sea Power 21, guide the preparation and focus of joint and naval forces to achieve SUW objectives

Answer 322

The Naval Reserve supports the mission of Navy by providing trained personnel available for active duty when the need arises.

Answer 323

mission analysis is to determine restrictions and constraints, number of aircraft required to accomplish mission whether it’s air-to-air or air-to-ground combat.

Answer 324

forces conduct special operations (SO) in any environment, and are uniquely trained and equipped to operate from, around, and in maritime environments.

Answer 325

Allows for strategic placement of necessary forces in a peacetime or wartime theater.

Answer 326

is the destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore by conventional or nuclear weapons.

Answer 327

conduct port/harbor shallow water mine warfare utilizing unmanned underwater vehicles (UUVs) operated by small, rapidly deployable teams.

Answer 328

provide detailed tactical weather data to the ASW team.

Answer 329

Provide timely, comprehensive, and tactically relevant meteorological and oceanographic (METOC) products and services in direct support of Numbered Fleet / Navy Component Commanders, deploying Carrier and Expeditionary Strike Group Commanders, assigned units/staff, and other U.S. and Joint / Coalition forces as directed.

Answer 330

are the primary users of the Navy's mobile equipment assets. They are deployable, portable environmental analysts.

Answer 331

uses a team specifically constructed for the Inter-Deployment Training Cycle charged with assisting in the protection of the targeted assets and conducting training to local personnel.

Answer 332

is a rapid-response Navy command that excels at conducting quick turnaround hydrographic surveys in locations around the world using air-transportable rigid hull inflatable boats.

Answer 333

1. MISO – Military Information Support Operations (Formerly PSYOP) 2. MILDEC – Military Deception 3. OPSEC – Operations Security 4. EW – Electronic Warfare 5. CNO – Computer Network Operations

Answer 334

outlines the role of the armed forces. It provides the legal basis for the roles, missions and organizations of each of the services as well as the Department of Defense.

Answer 335

is an independent and threat-based effort by an interdisciplinary, simulated opposing force, which after proper safeguards are established, uses both active and passive capabilities on a formal, time-bounded tasking to expose and exploit IA vulnerabilities of friendly forces.

Answer 336

Maintains operational readiness of Electronic Warfare equipment.

Answer 337

outlines the role of War and National Defense. Allows each department of the armed forces to have their own Secretary and work under the direction of the Secretary of Defense.

Answer 338

Critical Information that is reported in a short, specially formatted message.

Answer 339

provides direct support systems worldwide to support Navy, NSA, and DOD national and theater level missions and perform installation and maintenance of organizational level cryptographic and ancillary equipment and communication devices associated with fleet cryptologic systems and antenna maintenance while deployed.

Answer 340

is a set of meteorology and oceanography forecast, database, and decision aids tailored for specific platforms and uses.

Answer 341

program provides a family of hardware and software capabilities that allow connectivity and interoperability with intelligence systems supporting forces, in garrison, and deployed during peace, crisis and in war.

Answer 342

Is the effective understanding of anything associated with the maritime domain that could impact the security, safety, economy, or environment.

Answer 343

Maritime Operation Centers are in each numbered fleet and allow the Navy to maintain a steady level of readiness. Also known as NTCS.

Answer 344

Short range, 2-dimensional surface search and navigation radar.

Answer 345

The primary function of air search radar is to provide 360 degree from the surface to high altitudes and determine ranges and bearings to aircraft targets.

Answer 346

Provides information to ships fire control systems for use in tracking and destroying enemy targets.

Answer 347

Operations Security is a systematic, proven process that identifies, controls generally sensitive but unclassified information about a mission, operation or activity.

Answer 348

1. Identify – pinpoints critical information about friendly activities, intentions and capabilities. 2. Threat assessment – includes the process of identifying potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions. 3. Vulnerability analysis – Works with other security elements in the organization. Searching for weaknesses that reveal CI through collected and analyzed indicators which create vulnerabilities. 4. Risk assessment – Measuring the level of risk has two components, which are analyzing vulnerabilities and identifying countermeasures. 5. Measures/Counter Measures – Preserve military capabilities by preventing adversarial exploitation of CI. Countermeasures mitigate or remove vulnerabilities that divulge CI. 6.

Answer 349

1. Operational Electronic Intelligence: intelligence that is required for planning and conducting campaigns. 2. Technical Electronic Intelligence: is intelligence derived from the collection, processing, analysis and exploitation of data and information pertaining to foreign equipment and material to prevent technical surprise.

Answer 350

Essential to ensure the PA maintains its credibility. The public affairs officer and OPSEC officer should be coordinating the release of data relative to the mission or to impending potentially sensitive activity.

Answer 351

Administers the Command’s OPSEC Program and is responsible for the development, organization, and administration of an OPSEC program. Provides guidance and oversight for all OPSEC Programs and coordinates OPSEC actions under the Command’s OPSEC Program.

Answer 352

Essential Elements of Friendly Information.

Answer 353

Application of the 5 stop OPSEC process is imperative. Self-assessments are helpful in determining if potential CI is on a command’s web site.

Answer 354

Information about friendly US, allied and/or coalition activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations an adversary seeks in order to gain a military, political, diplomatic, economic, or technological advantage.

Answer 355

The OPSEC Officer is appointed in writing and runs the program. OPSEC Team ensures that command and family maintain an acute OPSEC awareness.

Answer 356

There are five general steps in the force assignment process: 1. Planning and Direction 2. Collection 3. Processing 4. Production 5. Dissemination

Answer 357

To support all aspects of naval operations, to inform the commander of risk factors associated with, objectives, plan and direct operations, and evaluate the effects of their actions.

Answer 358

is required for the formation of policy and military plans at national and international levels.

Answer 359

is required for planning operations within regional theaters or areas of operations.

Answer 360

is required for planning and conducting tactical operations at the component or unit level.

Answer 361

1. National Level: is of a wider scale based on intelligence that can affect the nation. 2. Theater Level: is specific to an AOR. 3. Fleet Level: constitutes any Intel that can be disseminated across the Naval AORs.

Answer 362

A comprehensive list of information requirements identified by the commander as being critical in facilitating timely information management and the decision-making process that affect successful mission accomplishment.

Answer 363

Priority Intelligence Requirements, intelligence requirements for which a commander has an anticipated and stated priority in the task of planning and decision making.

Answer 364

The heads of departments and agencies with organizations in the Intelligence Community or the heads of such organizations, as appropriate, shall report to the Intelligence Oversight Board, and keep the Director of Central Intelligence appropriately informed, concerning any intelligence activities of their organizations that they have reason to believe may be unlawful or contrary to Executive order or Presidential directive.

Answer 365

native-born or naturalized citizens, permanent residents with a Green Card, or persons born on US Military Installations abroad by a U.S. Citizen. It also includes an unincorporated association made up mostly of U.S. citizens and/or permanent resident aliens, an activity incorporated in the U.S. EXCEPT for a corporation directed and controlled by a foreign government(s).

Answer 366

foreign nationals who are lawfully in the US and who are permanent resident aliens are US Persons. An alien in the U.S. is not a U.S. Person unless there is specific information to the contrary. Persons who are in the U.S. on a VISA are not U.S. persons.

Answer 367

The Director of Naval Intelligence exercises staff supervision over the Office of Naval Intelligence (ONI), which provides the intelligence necessary to plan, build, train, equip, and maintain US naval forces.

Answer 368

Used to signify a unified military strategy to integrate and combine armed forces for the military theatre of operations, including air, information, land, sea and space to achieve military goals.

Answer 369

Force assignment is primarily an operations function, but requires considerable intelligence support to ensure intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) assets are integrated into the operation plan.

Answer 370

refers to intelligence gathering activities that bring together disparate elements that do not fit within the definitions of the major disciplines mentioned above.

Answer 371

refers to intelligence gathering by means of interpersonal contact.

Answer 372

A fusion cell combines, in real time, national strategic intelligence, which we gather around the world, with local or tactical intelligence.

Answer 373

is a form of intelligence collection management that involves finding, selecting, and acquiring information from publicly available sources and analyzing it to produce actionable intelligence.

Answer 374

is intelligence-gathering by interception of signals between people, electronic signals, or EM radiation not directly used in communication.

Answer 375

is intelligence-gathering by interception of signals between people, involving electronic signals that are directly used in communication.

Answer 376

from the intercept of foreign electromagnetic emissions associated with the testing and operational deployment of non-US aerospace, surface, and subsurface systems.

Answer 377

is intelligence-gathering by interception of signals.

Answer 378

is an intelligence gathering discipline that collects and processes acoustic phenomena.

Answer 379

Is an intelligence gathering discipline which collects information via satellite and aerial photography.

Answer 380

To provide subscribers with real-time updates on intelligence as it is made available.

Answer 381

a. Operations and planning b. Logistics c. Communications

Answer 382

See physical card

Answer 383

The distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave in a given amount of time.

Answer 384

The number of vibrations, or cycles, of a wave train in a unit of time.

Answer 385

The changing of direction of a wave as it leaves one medium and enters another medium of different density.

Answer 386

Trapping of an RF wave between two layers of the Earth’s atmosphere or between an atmospheric layer and the Earth.

Answer 387

The difference between the highest useable frequency of a device (upper frequency limit) and the lowest usable frequency of the device (lower frequency limit) measured at the half-power points.

Answer 388

: A method for simultaneous transmission of two or more signals over a common carrier wave.

Answer 389

Layers: Regions of the atmosphere. 1. Troposphere: Sea level to 3.7 miles 2. Stratosphere: 3.7 miles to 250 miles 3. Ionosphere: 250 miles to space.

Answer 390

The 360-degree angle at which the radio wave travels. Can have some effect on the angle of incidence at which a radio wave intersects the atmosphere layers.

Answer 391

: Relays used in radio transmitter where the ordinary hand key cannot accommodate the pate current without excessive arcing.

Answer 392

The angle at which the radio wave travels from the antenna to the atmosphere. This affects the angle of incidence at which a radio wave intersects the atmosphere layers.

Answer 393

The number of vibrations, or cycles, of an EM wave in a unit of time.

Answer 394

An electromagnetic wave generated by a transmitter.

Answer 395

When modulated by voice or music signals, all of the sum frequencies above that of the carrier.

Answer 396

Waves traveling through a medium.

Answer 397

Modulation by on/off keying—Morse code. (Can also be Carrier Wave – which carries multiple frequencies over one channel.)

Answer 398

When modulated by voice or music signal, all difference frequencies below that of the carrier.

Answer 399

Any method of modulating an electromagnetic carrier frequency by varying its amplitude in accordance with message intelligence. Used diode detectors (rectifiers)

Answer 400

the variation of the instantaneous frequency of the carrier, either above or below the frequency.

Answer 401

is the most common radar display used for (Pulse Repetition Rate is same as PRF) in which range is indicated by the distance of a bright spot or blip from the center of the screen and the bearing is indicated by the radial angle of the spot.

Answer 402

The rate at which pulses are transmitted, given in hertz or pulses per second. Reciprocal of pulse - repetition time.

Answer 403

the modulated carrier wave from a transmitter.

Answer 404

angular width of the beam’s curvature.

Answer 405

the width of the pulse arc.

Answer 406

The duration of the pulse.

Answer 407

Provides communications in both directions, but only in one at a time.

Answer 408

Systematic movement of a radar beam to cover a definite pattern or area in space.

Answer 409

Provides communications in both directions simultaneously.

Answer 410

Communication that occurs in one direction only

Answer 411

the ability to impress intelligence upon a transmission medium such as radio waves.

Answer 412

Develops and delivers dominant meteorological/oceanographic capabilities in support of U.S. Navy, Joint and national warfighting requirements.

Answer 413

the angle between true north and a line pointed directly at the target. Relative Bearing: The bearing angle to the radar target is measured from the centerline of your own ship or aircraft.

Answer 414

the removal of intelligence from a Transmission medium.

Answer 415

Angular measurement in the horizontal plane in a clockwise direction.

Answer 416

Used by height finding radars, Uses a very narrow beam in both horizontal and vertical search planes.

Answer 417

NMOC provides the preponderance of oceanographic and hydrographic survey capabilities for the Department of the Navy (DoN) and the Department of Defense (DoD).

Answer 418

Battle space on Demand (BonD) supports the long-range Naval Oceanography strategy for linking environmental data to timely and informed decisions – a key aspect of decision superiority.

Answer 419

Consists of data collected while observing the atmosphere and the ocean using a vast range of in-situ sensors and remote sensors, including satellites, altimeters, gliders, buoys, and master clocks, assimilated and fused to provide initial and boundary conditions that accurately describe the current ocean and atmosphere environment, as well as the celestial and temporal reference frames. The output is a collection of raw observation data on the state of the physical environment.

Answer 420

In Tier 1, the Tier 0 data are analyzed, processed, and merged into databases and/or prediction systems or numerical models operated on High Performance Computing (HPC) systems to forecast the future state of the environment. The output is a set of predictions, in space and time, of the expected physical environn1ent for whatever operation is under consideration. The output can also contain a 'confidence factor'.

Answer 421

In Tier 2, the predicted environment is used in conjunction with information about the operational environment to predict how forces, sensors, weapons systems, and platforms will perform over time in a given operational situation. This information is analyzed to provide meaning with respect to implications for the operation, such as influences on planning, force structure, targeting, timing, maneuver, tactics, techniques and procedures. The output of this fusion of information about the predicted environment and the friendly and enemy situation is an impact assessment in terms the operator understands, again with a confidence factor if appropriate. Situational awareness is the desired outcome at this level.

Answer 422

In Tier 3, the situational awareness gained in Tier 2 is applied to specific situations to quantify risk and opportunity at strategic, operational, and tactical levels. Here, actionable recommendation are made to the decision-maker regarding force allocation and employment that directly enhance safety and warfighting effectiveness. In Tier 3, the performance predictions made in Tier 2 are considered with alternative scenarios to develop optimal solutions, i.e., courses of action (COAs), and to understand probabilities of success and elements of risk. The intent is to make recommendations that take maximum advantage of asymmetric opportunities in the changing physical environment, to provide the most advantage to our forces, and the most disadvantages to the enemy. The output is a decision recommendation with compelling rationale, based on our best understanding of the physical environment. The decision-maker cor1bines knowledge of the present and future situation with their judgment into situational understanding to facilitate superior decision-making.

Answer 423

The Navy Enterprise Portal - Oceanography (NEP-Oc) has been created as the Naval Oceanography mission extension to the Navy Enterprise Portal. NEP-Oc will serve as a single access point for all METOC web-accessible information on the NIPRNet and SIPRNet.

Answer 424

(FWC), Norfolk, VA

Answer 425

(FWC), San Diego, CA

Answer 426

(JTWC), Pearl Harbor, HI