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HUBS 191 > Bone and Biomechanics > Flashcards

Bone and Biomechanics Flashcards

1
Q

What do tissues consist of?

A

cells and extracellular materials/fluids.

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2
Q

What are the 4 basic tissue types?

A
  1. Epithelial Tissue
  2. Connective Tissue
  3. Muscle Tissue
  4. Nervous Tissue
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3
Q

What is the function of epithelial tissue?

A

> Covers exposed surfaces and internal pathways. >Provides protection and sensations.
Controls permeability.
produces a secretion.
e.g skin

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4
Q

What is epithelial tissue made up of?

A

Epithelia and glands.

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5
Q

what is the function of tissue?

A 
>Provides structure for the body.
>Support for other tissues. 
>Protection of organs.
>Transportation of fluids. 
>Storage of energy.
>Defense from Microorganisms.
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6
Q

What are the 3 categories of connective tissue?

A

> Connective Tissue Proper: can be loose or dense.
Fluid Connective Tissue: blood and lymph.
Supportive connective tissue: cartilage and bone.

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7
Q

What are the 3 categories of muscle tissue?

A

> Skelatal
Cardiac
Smooth

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8
Q

What is the function of muscle tissue?

A

Provide movement.

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9
Q

What is the function of nervous tissue?

A

Conduction of electrical impulses and transport information.
e.g neurons and glia

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10
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Maintenance of ‘normal’ set points.

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11
Q

What is feedback?

A

When a variable is too far from the set point and the body responds by returning it back to normal.

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12
Q

What is feedforward?

A

When the body does something to minimise the effect of a possible change in a variable.

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13
Q

What is superior?

A

Above something.

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14
Q

What is inferior?

A

Bellow something.

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15
Q

What is proximal?

A

Referring to limbs, closer to the point of attachment.

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16
Q

What is distal?

A

Referring to limbs, further from the point of attachment.

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17
Q

What is anterior?

A

In front of

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18
Q

What is posterior?

A

Behind

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19
Q

What is deep?

A

Further from surface

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20
Q

What is superficial?

A

Close to surface

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21
Q

What are the 3 anatomical planes?

A
  1. Sagital
  2. Colonel
  3. Transverse
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22
Q

What is the cut of Sagital

A

Front and right

Giving left and right sections

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23
Q

What is the cut of Colonel?

A

Side to side

Giving front and back sections

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24
Q

What is the cut of Transerve

A

Horizontal

Upper and lower sections

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25
Q

What is flexion?

A

Decreasing the angle

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26
Q

What is extension?

A

Increasing the angle

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27
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

Brings the toes upwards

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28
Q

What is plantaflexion?

A

Pointing toes down

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29
Q

What is abduction?

A

Moving limbs away from the body

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30
Q

What is adduction?

A

Moving limbs towards the body

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31
Q

What is circumduction?

A

Occurs at joints that undergo flexion, extension, abduction and adduction

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32
Q

What is Rotation?

A

Occurs around the long axis of a joint. Can be lateral (rotation outwards) or medial (rotation inwards).

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33
Q

What is pronation?

A

Palm faces posteriorly

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34
Q

What is supination?

A

Palm faces anteriorly

Forearm bones are parallel

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35
Q

What is inversion?

A

The sole of the foot faces inwards

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36
Q

What is eversion?

A

The sole of the foot faces outwards

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37
Q

What are the 5 functions of the skeleton? (SSMPR)

A
  1. Support
  2. Storage
  3. Movement
  4. Protection
  5. Red blood cell formation
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38
Q

What are the 2 types of bone tissue?

A
  1. Compact

2. Cancellous/trabecular

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39
Q

What is compact bone?

A

Strong and good at transmitting force in 1 direction.

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40
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

Light and spongy, absorbs shock and resists/channels forces in multiple directions.

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41
Q

What is the structure of long bones?

A

> Longer than they are wide

> Wide epiphyses, long and narrow diaphyses

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42
Q

What is the function of long bones?

A

Leavers for movement

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43
Q

What are the structures of short bones?

A

> Equally wide as they are long

> Mostly cancellous

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44
Q

What is the function of short bones?

A

Weight-bearing from multiple directions

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45
Q

What is the structure of flat bones?

A

Thin plates of compact bone (some cancellous)

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46
Q

What is the function of flat bones?

A

> Muscle attachment

> Protection

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47
Q

What is the structure of irregular bones?

A

> Doesn’t fit within the other categories

> Usually has a hole in it

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48
Q

What is the function of irregular bones?

A

Various

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49
Q

What are examples of long bones?

A 
Tibia
Fibula
Humerus
Radius
Ulna 
Metatarsals
Metacarpals 
Phalanges
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50
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Carpals

Tarsals

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51
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

Scapular
Skull
Sternum
Ribs

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52
Q

What are examples of irregular bones?

A

Vertebrae
pelvic bones
Sacrum

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53
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the skeleton?

A

Axial and appendicular

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54
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

Skull
Vertebral column
Rib cage

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55
Q

What is the skull made up of?

A

Cranium and facial bones

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56
Q

What is the vertebral column made up of?

A 
Cervical spine (7)
Thoracic spine (12)
Lumbar spine (5)
Sacrum 
Coccyx
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57
Q

How many ribs do we have?

A

24

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58
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

Upper limbs and lower limbs

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59
Q

What does the upper limb consist of?

A

> Humerus (arm)
Radius and ulan (forearm)
Hands - Carpals (8), metacarpals (5) and phalanges (3 per finger and 2 per thumb)

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60
Q

What is the pectoral girdle?

A

Attaches the upper limb to the axial skeleton. It consists of the clavicle ( a stabilising strut) and the scapular (free-moving).

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61
Q

What does the lower limb consist of?

A

> Femur (thigh)
Tibia and fibula (leg)
Feet - tarsals (7), metatarsals (5) and phalanges (2 per toe and 2 per big toe).

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62
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

Attached the lower limb to the axial skeleton. It consists of 2 hip bones and the sacrum. It functions to weight bear.

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63
Q

What is bipedalism?

A

Walking on 2 limbs.

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64
Q

What is quadrupedalism?

A

Walking on 4 limbs

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65
Q

What is the function of the lower limbs?

A

Stability and movement - cannot supinate or pronate and are made to bear weight.

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66
Q

What is the function of the upper limbs?

A

Precise movements - able to supinate and pronate.

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67
Q

What is the composition of bones?

A

Calcified extracellular matrix made up of connective tissue.

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68
Q

What is the organic bone matrix?

A

> Makes up 33%
made up of proteins containing collagen and proteoglycans.
Resists tension

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69
Q

What is the inorganic bone matrix?

A

> Makes up 67%
Made up of minerals such as hydroxyapatite and other calcium minerals.
Resists compression

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70
Q

What are the 4 cell types found in the bone?

A
  1. Osteogenic cells
  2. Osteoblasts
  3. Osteoclasts
  4. Osteocytes
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71
Q

What are osteogenic cells?

A

Stem cells that create osteoblasts

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72
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Produce new bone matrix

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73
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Destroy bone matrix

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74
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Mature bone cells recycle proteins & minerals from the matrix and control the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

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75
Q

What is the structure of compact bone?

A

> Osteon structure
Appears dense and impenetrable.
Contains foramina for blood supply
Osteon units and circumferential lamellae

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76
Q

What is the structure of cancellous bone?

A

> Trabecular structure
Struts of lamella surrounded by marrow
Orientation of the struts resists forces in multiple directions and directs force down the shaft in 1 direction to spread force distally

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77
Q

What is the function of Osteons?

A

A longitude unit of compact bone: a pathway for nutrients to reach cells in the ECM.

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78
Q

What is the function of the central canal?

A

Contains blood vessels and nerves.

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79
Q

What is the function of lamellae?

A

Cylinders of ECM surrounding the central canal: forms osteon shape and resists forces via collagen fibres.

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80
Q

What is the function of lacunae?

A

Lakes of osteocytes

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81
Q

What is the function of canaliculi?

A

nutrient channels through ECM

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82
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Allows the bone to grow in width
Bone matrix is added in lamellae to the bone surface I osteoblasts, whilst bone is removed from the medullary cavity by osteoclasts.

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83
Q

Why do bones have to maintain homeostasis?

A

It is constantly being created ad destroyed to allow the metabolism of minerals from the matrix.

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84
Q

What are Osteoporosis and osteopenia?

A

Where osteoclasts are working more than the osteoblasts.

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85
Q

What is the process of ossification?

A

> Density increases in the centre of the cartilage model - begins to calcify.
Blood vessels and osteoblasts form outside.
Blood vessels and osteoblasts develop inside cartilage.
Medullary cavity and compact bone form.
Ossficiation centre developed.

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86
Q

Where is the primary centre of ossification?

A

Diaphysis

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87
Q

Where is the secondary centre of ossification?

A

Epiphysis - this is why we have a growth plate because it remained as cartilage to enable uninterrupted growth.

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88
Q

Where does growth in length occur?

A

Growth plate

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89
Q

Where does growth in width occur?

A

Via appositional growth, in which osteoblasts for circumferential lamellae and osteoclasts form the medullary cavity.

90
Q

What are joints?

A

Where bones articulate.

They have no inorganic material and made up of cartilage.

91
Q

What is the general composition of cartilage?

A

> Collagen fibres in a grounded substance.
Chondrocytes in the lacuna between collagen fibres.
Blood vessels do not penetrate cartilage thus they have a slow healing process.
Cartilage receives nutrients that diffuse through the matrix by joint loading.

92
Q

What is the function of hyaline cartilage?

A

> Resist compression
Moulds to surfaces of bone where they articulate
Frictionless, smooth movement
Degrade with age

93
Q

What does fibrocartilage consist of?

A

Bundles of collagen fibres throughout the matrix that align with stresses. Generally found in joints that encounter both compression and tension.

94
Q

What does hyaline cartilage consist of?

A

Barely visible collagen fibres with a high water content in the matrix.

95
Q

What is the fuctionn of fribrocartilage?

A

> Resist compressiona and tesion
Deepening of articular surface
Buffer / shock absorber to distribute force over a wider area ‘cushion’

96
Q

What is the composion of ligaments and tendons?

A

> Dense fibrous connective tissue (DFCT) which consists of collagen, elastin and fibroclats.

97
Q

What is the purpose of ligaments and tendons?

A

To resist tension

98
Q

Why do ligaments and tendons take long to heal?

A

They have minimal vascularity

99
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Connect bone to bone
> Function to restrict movement away from themselves
> Low elastin content, mostly mad eup of collagen.

100
Q

What movemnt do ligaments reistrict?

A

> Lateral = resitrict medial movement (adduction)

> Medial = restrict lateral movement (abduction)

101
Q

What are tendons?

A

Connect bone to muslce
> Function to facilitate and control movement and aid contraction b transmitting mucle movement to bone.
> Higher elastin content - more control of movement.

102
Q

What is bony congurance>

A

Amount of bone surfaces that articulate.

> Inversely proportional to the amount of soft tissue support needed in a joint.

103
Q

Define tissues

A

How cells are grouped together in a highly organised manner according to specific structures and function.

104
Q

Define structures

A

Something formed by tissues.

105
Q

What are the 3 main types of joint classification?

A
  1. Fibrous Joints
  2. Cartilaginous joints
  3. Synovial joints
106
Q

What is the tissue and structure of fibrous joints?

A

T: DFCT
S: ligament

107
Q

What is the function of fibrous joints?

A

> Limit movement

> Provide stability

108
Q

Examples of fibrous joints

A

> Cranial sutures

> Distal tibiofibular joint

109
Q

What is the tissue and structure of cartilaginous joints?

A

T: fibrocartilage
S: various - connected entirely by cartilage

110
Q

What is the function of cartilaginous joints?

A

> Allow some movement

> Various specialised functions

111
Q

Examples of cartilaginous joints

A

> Intervertebral discs

> Pubic symphysis

112
Q

What is the tissue and structure for synovial joints?

113
Q

What is the function of synovial joints?

A

Free moving

114
Q

Example of synovial joints

A

Most limb joints

115
Q

What determines the ROM a joint can undergo?

116
Q

What is the synovial membrane in the knee?

A

Lines the inner surface of the joint capsule and lubricates the joint by secreting synovial fluids.

117
Q

What are the 2 ligaments of synovial joints?

A
  1. Capsular ligament

2. Intracapsular ligament

118
Q

What is the capsular ligament?

A

> Make up the joint capsule by holding the bones together.

> Tight and thick where support is needed and loose where movement is allowed.

119
Q

What is the intracapsular ligament?

A

> Restricts movement between bones.

120
Q

What movement does the ACL restrict?

A

Femoral displacement posteriorly

121
Q

What movement does the PCL restrict?

A

Femoral displacement anteriorly

122
Q

What is the trade-off in synovial joints?

A

stability and mobility

123
Q

What is the difference between biaxial and uniaxial?

A

Biaxial is many planes whereas uniaxial is only 1

124
Q

What are the axis and movements for the plane joint?

A

multiaxial

sliding and gliding

125
Q

What is an example of a plane joint?

A

Intercarpal and intertarsal joints

126
Q

What are the axis and movements for the hinge joint?

A

Uniaxial

Flexion & extension

127
Q

What is an example of a hinge joint?

A

Ankle
Elbow
Interphalangeal joints

128
Q

What are the axis and movements for the pivot joint?

A

Uniaxial

Rotation

129
Q

What is an example of the pivot joint?

A

Radio-ulna joints

C1 and C2

130
Q

What are the axis and movements for the condylar joint?

A

Biaxial

Flexion & extension, rotation

131
Q

What is an example of the condylar joint?

A

Knee

Temporomandibular

132
Q

What are the axis and movements for the ellipsoid joint?

A

Biaxial

Flexion & extension, abduction & adduction, circumdation (no rotation)

133
Q

What is an example of the ellipsoid joint?

A

Wrist joint

134
Q

What are the axis and movements for the saddle joint?

A

Biaxial

Flexion & extension, abduction & adduction, circumduction, obligatory rotation

135
Q

What is an example of the saddle joint?

A

Carpometacarpal joint

136
Q

What are the axis and movements for the ball and socket joint?

A

Multiaxial

Flexion & extension, abduction & adduction, circumduction, rotation.

137
Q

What is an example of a ball and socket joint?

A

Shoulder

Hip

138
Q

What is the process of osmosis?

A

Movement of water from a high concentration to a low concentration.

139
Q

What is the composition of fluids in males?

A 
60%
> 33% ICF
> 21.5% ECF
> 4.5% plasma 
> less than 1% other
140
Q

What is the composition of fluids in females?

A 
50%
> 27% ICF
> 18% ECF
>4.5% plasma 
> less than 1% other
141
Q

How is water conc maintained?

A

Water is absorbed from the digestive tract and formed as a byproduct via metabolic processes.

142
Q

How is water lost?

A

> Sweat
Respiration
Urine/feases

143
Q

Explain isotonic

A

ECF and ICF are balanced therefore no net water movement (eqbm).

144
Q

Explain hypertonic

A

Water loss from ECF = lowered water (high solute) in respect to ICF. The cell will become flaccid (cell volume decrease) as water moves from the ICF to the ECF.

145
Q

Explain hypotonic

A

Water gain from ECF = high water (low solute) in respect to ICF. The cell will become turgid (cell volume increases) as water moves from ECF to ICF.

146
Q

What is the movement of ions in the body?

A

Ions are absorbed from the digestive tract into ICF and lost from the ECF from sweat glands and kidneys.

147
Q

What tissues have an excitable membrane potential?

A

Excitable membranes such as neurons and muscles.

148
Q

What are the cations in the body?

A

Na+ and K+

There is also Ca2+

149
Q

What are the anions in the body?

A

Cl- and proteins

150
Q

What is the function of the lipid bilayer?

A

Prevents the free flow of ions in and out of the cell.

151
Q

What is the concentration of ions outside of the cell (ECF)?

A

High Na+

Low K+

152
Q

What is the concentration of ions inside of the cell (ICF)?

A

Low Na+

High K+

153
Q

What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) inside of the cell?

A

-70mV

Slightly more negative than the outsdie.

154
Q

What is the purpose of the Na+/K= exchange pump?

A

Create a difference in ions in the cell and therefore charge.

155
Q

How does the exchange pump against the concentration gradient?

A

Uses ATP to pump Na+ against the CG (out of the cell), thus is active transport. Simultaneously, K+ ions are pumped down the CG (into the cell).

156
Q

The potassium chemical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

157
Q

The potassium electrical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

158
Q

The potassium electrochemical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

159
Q

The sodium chemical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

160
Q

The sodium electrical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

161
Q

The sodium electrochemical gradient points (into or out of) the cell

162
Q

Define depolarisation

A

Membrane potential becomes less -ve (+), chemical stimulus opens sodium ion channels.

163
Q

Define repolarisation

A

Membrane potential returns to ‘normal’ -70mV, stimulus removed, excess sodium ions transported out of the cytosol.

164
Q

Define hyperpolarisation

A

Membrane potential becomes more -ve, chemical stimulus opens potassium ion channels.

165
Q

What is the location of smooth muscles?

A

Lines hollow organs.

e.g gut, blood vessels.

166
Q

What is the function of smooth muscles?

A

Not under voluntary conditions.

167
Q

What is the location of cardiac muscles?

168
Q

What is the function of cardiac muscles?

A

Generates force to pump blood around the body, not under voluntary control.

169
Q

What is the location of skeletal muscles?

A

Between bones

170
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscles?

A

Under voluntary control.
> Develop tension or force (1 direction)
> Support and protect internal organs
> Provide voluntary control over major openings
> Converts energy to heat
> Provide a major store for energy/ proteins.

171
Q

What are skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Large multinucleated cells with an abundance of proteins, connective tissue, blood vessels and nerve fibres.

172
Q

What are fascicles?

A

Bundles of fibres which bundle up to form muscles

173
Q

What are tendons?

A

Connective tissue that gathers at the end.

174
Q

What are muscle fibres?

A

Multinucleated and have thousands of nuclei. Mycrofibrils bundle up to form these which are made up of repeating sarcomere units.

175
Q

What are sarcomere units?

A

made up of 2 myofilaments: actin and myosin. Organised in a way to give muscles a saturated appearance.

176
Q

What are transverse tubules (t-tubules)?

A

Tubular extensions of the sarcomere units. Conduct action potentials deep into the muscle fibre.

177
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)?

A

A membranous, tubular network that is associated with t-tubules at regular intervals.

178
Q

What is the function of the SR?

A

Store Ca2+ and release it into the cytoplasm when an action potential is conducted along the associated t-tubule.

179
Q

What is actin?

A

The globular protein made up of globules (g-actin) that assemble to form filamentous protein strands (f-actin). It is made up of 2 twisted f-actin strands that terminate at the z-line.

180
Q

What is myosin?

A

A molecule with a long, thin tail and a globular head that has the ability to flex. The thick filament is made up of pairs of myosin molecules of which the tails are pointing towards the m-line, thus forming a double-headed structure.

181
Q

What is the function of contractile proteins?

A

Develop force by the myosin heads of the thick filament ‘walking’ along the thin filament, causing the interlaced filaments to slide past each other (sliding filament theory).

182
Q

What are the stages of E-C coupling?

A
  1. AP from the nerve causes synaptic transmission at the NMJ to trigger an ap in the muscle fibre.
  2. Muscle ap spreads over the sarcolemma surface and invades the t-tubular system.
  3. Depolarisation within the t-tubular system triggers Ca2+ release from nearby SR terminals.
    >mechanical activation of the SR Ca2+ release channel by the voltage sensor.
  4. Ca2+ releases into sarcoplasm to promote Ca2+ binding to contractile apparatus.
    > Myosin then binds actin and the filaments slide.
    > Forces generated - CONTRACTION.
  5. Calcium pumped from the intracellular space and back into SR via SERCA
  6. RELAXATION
183
Q

What is the cross-bridge cycling process?

A
  1. ATP binds to the myosin head, causing the dissociation of myosin from actin.
  2. ATP hydrolysis causes the myosin filament to change shape, the head is ‘cocked’. Products of hydrolysis, ADP & inorganic phosphate remain bound.
  3. Position of the myosin head (due to ‘cocking’) puts it in line with a new actin filament binding site. New cross-bridge is formed.
  4. Myosin binds actin (p is released), the power stroke then generates force, actin towards the sarcomere centre.
  5. Another ATP model binds myosin, causing dissociation from actin.
184
Q

What does muscle tension depend on?

A
  1. frequency of stimulation

2. Recruitment

185
Q

What is a twitch?

A

A brief contraction - 1 single action potential

Caused by the pulse of Ca2+ released into the cytoplasm.

186
Q

What is tetanus?

A

A sustained period of contraction - many action potentials.

Caused by the sustained release of Ca2+ from the SR into the cytoplasm.

187
Q

What is recruitment?

A

The number of neurons active at 1 time regulates the number of fibres activated.
> Lower number of neurons active = lower contraction force.
> More neurons active = more force.

188
Q

What factors affect the amount of force produced?

A

> Amount of force produced by each fibre.
Number of fibres activated.
Number of cross-bridges formed.

189
Q

What does the function of muscles depend on?

A
  1. Length of the muscle fibres - shorten u to 50%.
  2. Number of muscle fibres (CSA) - directionally proportional to tension/force.
  3. Arrangement of muscle fibres - pennate & parallel arrangements.
190
Q

Concentric action

A

Shortening of the muscle.

191
Q

Eccentric action

A

Lengthening of the muscle.

192
Q

Isometric action

193
Q

Define agonist

A

acts concentrically (shortens)

194
Q

Define antagonist

A

acts eccentrically (lengthens)

195
Q

Define stabiliser

A

holds joint still

196
Q

Define neutraliser

A

eliminated unwanted movement

197
Q

Muscles associated with the shoulder joint

A

> Deltoid - Ant, Lat, Post - Fex, abd, Ex
Biceps brachii - Ant - Flex
Triceps brachii - Post - Ex

198
Q

Muscles associated with the elbow joint

A

> Biceps brachii - Ant - Flex

> Triceps brachii - Post - Ex

199
Q

Muscles associated with the hip joint

A

> Iliopsoas - Ant - Flex
Gluteus Maximus - Post - Ex
Rectus femoris - Ant - Flex
Hamstrings - Post - Ex

200
Q

Muscles associated with the knee joint

A

> Quadriceps femoris - Ant - Ex
Hamstrings - Post - Flex
Gastronemius - Ant - Ex

201
Q

Muscles associated with the ankle joint

A

> Tibialis anterior - Ant - dorsiflex

> Triceps surae - Post - Plantarflex

202
Q

Where does LOG fall in relation to the hip?

203
Q

Where does LOG fall in relation to the knee?

204
Q

Where does LOG fall in relation to the ankle?

205
Q

Early stance: hip

A

Moving from flexion to extension
Concentric: GM & H
Eccentric: I

206
Q

Early stance: knee

A

Extension (locked for stability)

Isometric: QF, H & G

207
Q

Early stance: ankle

A

Moving from dorsiflexion to plantarflexion
Concentric: TS
Eccentric: TA

208
Q

Mid stance: hip

A

Moving into extension
Concentric: GM & H
Eccentric: I

209
Q

Mid stance: knee

A

Moving from extension to slight flexion

Concentric: H & G

210
Q

Mid stance: ankle

A

Moving into plantarflexion

Concentric: TS

211
Q

Late stance: hip

A

Extension
Concentric: GM & H
Eccentric: I

212
Q

Late stance: knee

A

Extension

Concentric: H & G

213
Q

Late stance: ankle

A

Full plantar flexion

Concentric: TS

214
Q

Early Swing: hip

A

Moving from flexion to extension
Eccentric: GM & H
Concentric: I

215
Q

Early Swing: knee

A

Flexion

Concentric: H & G

216
Q

Early Swing: ankle

A

In dorsiflexion

Concentric: TA

217
Q

Mid swing: hip

A

Flexion
Eccentric: GM & H
Concentric: I

218
Q

Mid swing: knee

A

Flexion

Concentric: H & G

219
Q

Mid swing: ankle

A

In dorsiflexion

Concentric: TA

220
Q

Late swing: hip

A

Flexion
Eccentric: GM & H
Concentric: I

221
Q

Late swing: knee

A

Moving from flexion to extension

Concentric: QF

222
Q

Late swing: ankle

A

In dorsiflexion
Concentric: TA
Isometric: TS

HUBS 191 (5 decks)

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