Bond Basics Flashcards

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1
Q

The bondholder of a municipal bond issue is the:

A. borrower of the bond proceeds
B. lender of the bond proceeds
C. guarantor of the payment of debt service on the bond issue
D. fiduciary acting for the benefit of the bondholders

A

The best answer is B.

The “bondholder” of a bond issue is the party that is owed the debt service on the bonds. This is the “legal” name for the lender or creditor.

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2
Q

A percentage of par quote is also known as a:

A. firm quote
B. yield quote
C. dollar quote
D. basis quote

A

The best answer is C.

Dollar Bonds - most corporate, government, and any municipal issues which are term bonds - are quoted on a percentage of par basis. Anytime a bond is quoted as a percentage of par, it is quoted on a dollar basis. In contrast, municipal serial issues are quoted on a yield basis.

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3
Q

A bond issue where the bonds have the same maturity but different dates of issuance is a:

A. term bond offering
B. series bond offering
C. serial bond offering
D. combined serial and term bond offering

A

The best answer is B.

A bond issue where the bonds have the same maturity but different dates of issuance is a series bond issue. These are rarely issued and are used to finance long-term construction projects where all of the money is not needed at once.

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4
Q

Zero coupon bonds:

A. do not pay interest
B. pay interest semi-annually
C. pay interest annually
D. pay interest at maturity

A

The best answer is D.

Zero coupon bonds do not make semi-annual interest payments. The bonds are bought at a deep discount and mature at par. The difference is the interest earned, so all of the interest is paid at maturity.

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5
Q

What is the benefit of a zero coupon bond?

A. Dividend income
B. Semi-annual payments
C. Amortization
D. Capital appreciation

A

The best answer is D.

Zero coupon bonds do not make period payments. The bond is purchased at a deep discount price and builds internally until maturity, at which point the bond is redeemed at par. They are often called capital appreciation bonds because of this and they are used to accumulate capital that will be used at maturity. For example, parents of young children might buy zero coupon bonds at a deep discount and use them at maturity to pay for the kid’s college expenses.

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6
Q

Zero coupon bonds:

A. pay interest semi-annually
B. pay interest annually
C. are bought at a discount and mature at par
D. are bought at a par and mature at a premium

A

The best answer is C.

Zero-coupon bonds are often called “capital appreciation bonds” since the bondholder does not receive annual interest payments from the issuer. Instead, the bonds are bought at a discount from par, and are redeemed at par at maturity (similar to savings bonds). The discount is earned over the life of the bond and is the “income” from this type of investment.

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7
Q

The amount by which the par value of a municipal bond exceeds the purchase price of the bond is termed the:

A. spread
B. discount
C. premium
D. takedown

A

The best answer is B.

If par value is higher than the purchase price, then the bond is selling for less than par. This is the bond’s discount.

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8
Q

An investor buys a bond at a premium. Later in the year, the bond is trading at a discount. This is termed:

A. Amortization
B. Depreciation
C. Accretion
D. Devaluation

A

The best answer is B.

When an asset decreases in value, this is termed depreciation.

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9
Q

How are corporate bonds quoted?

A. Coupon
B. Yield to Maturity
C. Whole and Fractional
D. Decimal

A

The best answer is C.

Corporate bonds are quoted as a percentage of par value, with each “whole” point movement representing 1% of $1,000 par or $10.

The minimum price increment is 1/8th of 1%, so it is a fraction of par. Thus, corporate bonds are quoted in whole and fractional points.

For example, a corporate bond quoted at 100 1/8 is priced at 100.125% of $1,000 par = $1,001.25.

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10
Q

Which of the following would be a quote for a railroad bond?

A. 101.25
B. 101-8
C. 101 1/4
D. 101 4/16

A

The best answer is C.

A railroad bond is a corporate bond. Corporate bonds are quoted on a percentage of par basis in 1/8ths. 101 1/4 = 101.25% of $1,000 par = $1,012.50 per bond.

Choice B is a U.S. Government bond quote in 32nds. 101-8 = 101 8/32nds = 101.25% of $1,000 par = $1,012.50 per bond.

Note that corporate, municipal and government bonds are not quoted in penny movements, as is the case with equities.

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11
Q

Which of the following would be a quote for an airline bond?

A. 105.625
B. 105-20
C. 105 5/8
D. 105 10/16

A

The best answer is C.

An airline bond is a corporate bond. Corporate bonds are quoted on a percentage of par basis in 1/8ths. 105 5/8 = 105.625% of $1,000 par = $1,056.25 per bond.

Choice B is a U.S. Government bond quote in 32nds. 105-20 = 105 20/32nds = 105.625% of $1,000 par = $1,056.25 per bond.

Note that corporate, municipal and government bonds are not quoted in penny movements, as is the case with equities.

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12
Q

How are Treasury Notes quoted?

A. Coupon
B. Yield to Maturity
C. Whole and Fractional
D. Decimal

A

The best answer is C.

Treasury Notes and Bonds are quoted as a percentage of par value, with each “whole” point movement representing 1% of $1,000 par or $10. The minimum price increment is 1/32nd of 1%, so it is a fraction of par. Thus, Treasury Notes and Bonds are quoted in whole and fractional points.

For example, a Treasury Note quoted at 100-8 is priced at 100 and 8/32nds % of $1,000 par = 100.25% = $1,002.50.

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13
Q

10 basis points equals:

A. .01%
B. .1%
C. 1%
D. 10%

A

The best answer is B.

One basis point equals .01% movement in interest rates, so 10 basis points equals a .1% movement in interest rates.

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14
Q

The nominal yield on a bond is:

A. stated interest rate / bond par value
B. stated interest rate / bond market value
C. market interest rate / bond par value
D. market interest rate / bond market value

A

The best answer is A.

The nominal yield is the stated rate of interest on the bond, based on par value.

Annual Interest
———————– = Nominal Yield
Par

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15
Q

In 2019, a customer buys 5 GE 10% debentures, M ‘29, at 85. The interest payment dates are Feb 1st and Aug 1st. The bonds are callable as of 2024 at 103. The nominal yield on the bonds is:

A. 10.00%
B. 10.81%
C. 11.76%
D. 12.43%

A

The best answer is A.

The nominal yield is the stated rate of interest on the bond, based on par value.

Annual Interest
———————– = Nominal Yield
Par

$100
———- = 10%
$1,000

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16
Q

A corporation has issued 10% AA rated sinking fund debentures at par. Three years later, similar issues are being offered in the primary market at 12%. Which statement is TRUE about the outstanding 10% issue?

A. The bond will trade at a discount and the current yield will be lower than the nominal yield
B. The bond will trade at a discount and the current yield will be higher than the nominal yield
C. The bond will trade at a premium and the current yield will be lower than the nominal yield
D. The bond will trade at a premium and the current yield will be higher than the nominal yield

A

The best answer is B.

The bond was issued with a coupon of 10%. Currently, yield for a similar issue is 12%. Therefore, interest rates have risen subsequent to the issuance of the bond or the credit quality of the bond has deteriorated. When interest rates rise, yields on bonds already trading must also rise. What causes this is a drop in the dollar price of the issue - the bond now trades at a discount.

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17
Q

An increasing market rate of interest would lead to:

A. higher bond prices and higher bond yields
B. higher bond prices and lower bond yields
C. lower bond prices and lower bond yields
D. lower bond prices and higher bond yields

A

The best answer is D.

A rising market rate of interest means that interest rates are increasing. If interest rates rise, then bond prices will drop, and yields on those bonds will rise.

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18
Q

If market rates of interest increase, bonds issued at par would trade at (a):

A. discount
B. premium
C. par
D. parity

A

The best answer is A.

A rising market rate of interest means that interest rates are rising. If market interest rates rise, then bond prices will decline to a discount below par, and the yields on those bonds will rise.

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19
Q

Which statements are TRUE regarding market risk for bondholders?

A. As interest rates rise, the price of long term bonds falls faster than that of short term bonds
B. As interest rates rise, the price of short term bonds falls faster than that of long term bonds
C. To avoid market risk, a customer would invest in bonds with long term maturities
D. To avoid market risk, a customer would invest in bonds with short term maturities

A

The best answer is B.

Market risk for a bondholder is the risk of rising interest rates forcing the price of a bond to drop. As interest rates rise, the price of a long term bond falls faster than that of a short term bond. To avoid market risk, a bondholder would want to invest in the shortest maturity possible.

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20
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding bond price volatility?

A. High coupon, long maturity bonds have the lowest price volatility
B. High coupon, short maturity bonds have the lowest price volatility
C. Low coupon, long maturity bonds have the lowest price volatility
D. Low coupon, short maturity bonds have the lowest price volatility

A

The best answer is B.

The shorter the maturity, the lower the bond’s price volatility in response to interest rate movements. The longer the maturity, the greater the bond’s price volatility in response to interest rate movements. Bonds with low coupon rates exhibit greater price volatility than ones with high coupon rates.

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21
Q

If interest rates are rising, which statement about discount and premium bonds is TRUE?

A. Discount bonds will depreciate faster than premium bonds
B. Premium bonds will depreciate faster than discount bonds
C. Both bonds will depreciate equally
D. The rate of depreciation depends on the credit rating of the issuer

A

The best answer is A.

As a general rule, the longer the maturity on a debt issue, the greater the issue’s price volatility in response to interest rate movements.

Another general rule is that the lower the price of the issue (which would result from having a lower coupon), the greater the issue’s price volatility in response to interest rate movements.

As interest rates rise, bonds that are selling at a discount will fall proportionately more than bonds trading at an equivalent premium. This is true since the change in price as a percentage of the bond’s cost is greater for a discount bond than for a premium bond.

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22
Q

Which bond will exhibit the greatest price volatility?

A. 2% coupon bond with a 2 year maturity
B. 0% coupon bond with a 1 year maturity
C. 6% coupon bond with a 10 year maturity
D. 0% coupon bond with a 9 year maturity

A

The best answer is D.

The longer the expiration, the more volatile a bond’s price movements, which narrows the Choices to either C or D. The lower the coupon, the more volatile the bond’s price movements, with the lowest coupon being “0.” A 9-year zero coupon bond will actually be more volatile in price movements than a slightly longer maturity bond (10 years) with a fairly high coupon (6% in this case). The higher coupon means that more of the bond’s value is represented by the interest stream than comes in early and this stabilizes the bond’s price as market interest rates move.

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23
Q

In 2019, a customer buys 5 GE 10% debentures, M ‘39. The interest payment dates are Feb 1st and Aug 1st. The current yield on the bonds is 11.76%. The bonds are callable as of 2029 at 103. The bond is trading:

A. at a premium
B. at a discount
C. at par
D. in the money

A

The best answer is B.

If the bond’s current yield (11.76%) is higher than the coupon yield (10%), the bond is trading at a discount. In order for the yield to rise above the stated fixed coupon rate, the price of the bond must drop in the market.

24
Q

A corporation has issued 8% AA rated sinking fund debentures at par. Three years later, similar issues are being offered in the primary market at 7%. Which statement is TRUE about the outstanding 8% issue?

A. The dollar price of the bond will be at a discount to par and the current yield will be higher than the nominal yield
B. The dollar price of the bond will be at a discount to par and the current yield will be lower than the nominal yield
C. The dollar price of the bond will be at a premium to par and the current yield will be lower than the nominal yield
D. The dollar price of the bond will be at a premium to par and the current yield will be higher than the nominal yield

A

The best answer is C.

The bond was issued with a coupon of 8%. Currently, yield for a similar issue is 7%. Therefore, interest rates have fallen subsequent to the issuance of the bond; or the credit quality of the bond has improved.

When interest rates fall, yields on bonds already trading must also fall. What causes this is a rise in the dollar price of the issue - the bond now trades at a premium.

25
Q

The current yield of a bond:

A. increases as bond market prices decline
B. increases as bond market prices increase
C. is unaffected by changes in market interest rates
D. will vary with the earnings of the issuer

A

The best answer is A.

The current yield is the stated rate of interest as a percentage of market value. It will change as bond prices move - if bond prices rise, the current yield falls; if bond prices fall; the current yield rises.

26
Q

In 2019, a customer buys 5 GE 10% debentures, M ‘39 at 150. The interest payment dates are Feb 1st and Aug 1st. The bonds are callable as of 2029 at 103. The current yield on the bonds is:

A. 6.7%
B. 8.7%
C. 10%
D. 11.4%

A

The best answer is A.

The formula for current yield is:

Annual Income
———————- = Current Yield
Market Price

$1,500 = 6.7%

27
Q

The yield to maturity of a bond:

A. increases as bond market prices decline
B. increases as bond market prices increase
C. is unaffected by changes in market interest rates
D. will vary with the earnings of the issuer

A

The best answer is A.

Ann Inst + Ann Cap Gain
——————————————– = Yield to Maturity for a
(Bond Cost + Redemp Price)/2 Dis Bond

Since both the Annual Interest and Annual Capital Gain are fixed, as the cost of the bond falls, the Yield to Maturity must rise.

Ann Inst - Ann Cap Loss
———————————- = Yield to Maturity for a
(Bond Cost + Redemp Price)/2 Premium Bond

Since both the Annual Interest and Annual Capital Gain are fixed, as the cost of the bond rises, the Yield to Maturity must fall.

28
Q

When a bond trades at a premium, which bond yield will be the lowest?

A. Nominal
B. Stated
C. Current
D. Basis

A

The best answer is D.

When bonds are trading at a premium, the stated yield or nominal yield will be the highest, since it is the annual income divided by par value.

Current yield is lower because it is annual income divided by the current market price (which is at a premium to par).

Basis (or yield to maturity) is even lower because it not only considers that the current market price is at a premium to par; it also pro-rates the loss of the premium over the life of the bond, reducing the annual yield below the current yield.

29
Q

When a bond trades at a premium, which bond yield will be the highest?

A. Nominal
B. Yield to maturity
C. Current
D. Basis

A

The best answer is A.

When bonds are trading at a premium, the stated yield or nominal yield will be the highest, since it is the annual income divided by par value.

Current yield is lower because it is annual income divided by the current market price (which is at a premium to par).

Basis (or yield to maturity) is even lower because it not only considers that the current market price is at a premium to par; it also pro-rates the loss of the premium over the life of the bond, reducing the annual yield below the current yield.

30
Q

A “call premium” on a bond is the:

A. amount by which the purchase price of the bond exceeds par
B. amount by which the redemption price prior to maturity exceeds par
C. amount which the redemption price at maturity exceeds par
D. maximum premium at which the bond can trade over its life

A

The best answer is B.

A call premium is the excess over par value that the issuer will pay the bondholder to call in the bonds prior to maturity.

31
Q

An outstanding bond issue which is currently trading at 103 1/4 is callable starting next year at 102 1/2. The call premium on the bond issue is:

A. 3/4 points
B. 1 3/4 points
C. 2 1/2 points
D. 3 1/4 points

A

The best answer is C.

A bond “call premium” is simply the price above par at which the issuer has the right to call in the bonds from the bondholders. These bonds are callable at 102 1/2, hence the call premium is 2 1/2 points.

32
Q

A 20-year bond is issued in 2019 with the following call schedule:

Redemption Date	Redemption Price
         2034	                    104
         2035	                    103
         2036	                    102
         2037	                    101
         2038	                    100
       and after

This issue has how many years of “call protection”?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

The best answer is C.

To make callable issues marketable to the public, investors are protected from calls for a stated period after the bonds’ issuance. In this example, the bonds issued in 2019 are first callable in 2034 so the investor has 15 years of “call protection” with this issue.

33
Q

Bonds with a call feature benefit the:

A. bondholder
B. issuer
C. trustee
D. transfer agent

A

The best answer is B.

A call feature allows the issuer to call in the bonds if market interest rates fall. Then the issuer can refund those bonds at lower current market rates. This is a benefit to the issuer and is disadvantageous to the bondholder. The bondholder who had the bond called away gets the principal back (and maybe a call premium), but then is put in the situation where he or she must now reinvest those funds – and rates are lower.

34
Q

When the price of a bond increases, which of the following statements regarding yields are TRUE?

A. Yield to maturity increases and yield to call increases
B. Yield to maturity increases and yield to call decreases
C. Yield to maturity decreases and yield to call increases
D. Yield to maturity decreases and yield to call decreases

A

The best answer is D.

When the price of a bond increases, yield to maturity drops. Similarly, because the bond is more expensive, yield to call will also fall.

35
Q

For bonds trading at a discount, rank the yield measures from lowest to highest?

A. Nominal; Current; Yield to Maturity; Yield to Call
B. Yield to Call; Yield to Maturity; Current; Nominal
C. Yield to Maturity; Nominal; Yield to Call; Current
D. Current; Nominal; Yield to Call; Yield to Maturity

A

The best answer is A.

When bonds are trading at a discount, the stated (nominal) yield will be lowest.

The current yield will be higher, since it is based on the discounted market price - not par value.

The yield to maturity will be the next highest, since it includes the portion of the discount earned annually as part of the annual return in addition to the interest received.

Finally, yield to call will be highest, since the discount would be earned over a shorter period of time, increasing the annual yield on the security.

36
Q

Regarding bonds with put options, which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Exercise of the put is at the option of the bondholder
B. Exercise of the put guarantees the investor gets back his purchase price.
C. Yields on bonds with put options are higher than similar bonds without this feature
D. Put features are most likely to be used when rates fall.

A

The best answer is A.

Put options are exercisable at the option of the bondholder (not the issuer). Because the put option removes some of the market risk from the bond if interest rates rise. This feature is valued by bondholders, who will accept lower yields on bonds having this option. Put features pay the agreed to put price, not the investor’s purchase price.

37
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the effect of market interest rate movements on callable and puttable bond prices?

A. When interest rates fall, the call price tends to set a ceiling on the market price of the bond and when interest rates rise, the put price tends to set a ceiling on the market price of the bond
B. When interest rates fall, the call price tends to set a floor on the market price of the bond and when interest rates rise, the put price tends to set a floor on the market price of the bond
C. When interest rates rise, the put price tends to set a ceiling on the market price of the bond and when interest rates fall, the call price tends to set a ceiling on the market price of the bond
D. When interest rates rise, the put price tends to set a floor on the market price of the bond and when interest rates fall, the call price tends to set a floor on the market price of the bond

A

The best answer is B.

If interest rates drop, it is more likely that an issuer will call its bonds. As interest rates drop, bond prices in the market will rise. The price will not rise by as much for a callable issue as that for a non-callable issue. The reason: why would someone pay a premium for an issue that is likely to be called off the market?

The price for a puttable bond sets a floor under the market price of the bond during periods of rising interest rates. The price will never drop much below par once the option is exercisable, because if it did, customers would buy as many of the bonds as possible and “put” them to the issuer at par for a capital gain.

38
Q

Two 20-year corporate bonds are issued at par, with stated interest rates of 10%. One issue is puttable at par in 5 years, while the other is puttable at par in 10 years. If interest rates rise by 200 basis points shortly after issuance, which statement is TRUE?

A. The bond puttable in 5 years will depreciate more than the bond puttable in 10 years
B. The bond puttable in 10 years will depreciate more than the bond puttable in 5 years
C. Both bonds will depreciate by equal amounts
D. The rate of depreciation depends on the credit rating of the bonds

A

The best answer is B.

If a bond is puttable at par in the near future, any price decline due to rising interest rates will be suppressed since the holder is able to put the bond back to the issuer sooner. Thus, the bond puttable in 10 years will depreciate more than the bond that is puttable in 5 years if interest rates rise.

39
Q

Which of the ratings agencies listed below would most likely rate a municipal revenue anticipation note for credit risk?

A. Moody’s
B. Morningstar
C. Fitch’s
D. Best’s

A

The best answer is A.

Moody’s and Standard and Poor’s are, by far, the largest of the ratings firms. Both rate municipal revenue bonds. Standard and Poor’s rates issues if the issuer pays; Moody’s rates issues whether the issuer pays or not - their stance is that they are Moody’s Investors Services, and their ratings are a service to the investor (though paid for by the issuer). Fitch’s is a much smaller ratings agency and concerns itself mainly with rating corporate issues. Morningstar rates mutual funds, not municipal bonds. Best’s rates insurance companies, not securities.

40
Q

Which rating applies to short term municipal issues?

A. MIG 1
B. P2
C. P1
D. NP

A

The best answer is A.

MIG ratings stand for “Moody’s Investment Grade,” with MIG 1 being highest and SG (“Speculative Grade”) being the lowest ratings. These are the ratings used for short term municipal notes. The “P” (Prime) ratings are used to grade corporate commercial paper.

41
Q

A bond is rated Aaa by Moody’s. The bond is:

A. Highest Quality Investment Grade
B. High Quality Investment Grade
C. Low Quality Investment Grade
D. Highest Level Speculative Grade

A

The best answer is A.

“Aaa” is highest quality investment grade rating given by Moody’s.

42
Q

At which Standard and Poor’s rating is a bond considered to be speculative (“junk bond”)?

A. AA
B. BBB
C. BB
D. C

A

The best answer is C.

The top 4 ratings are “investment grade” - AAA, AA, A, and BBB. Bonds below these ratings are speculative. The best speculative rating is, therefore, BB.

43
Q

A 65-year old customer wishes to invest part of his retirement funds with the dual objectives of enhanced income and safety of principal. The customer notices that “C” rated corporate bonds yield significantly more than equivalent maturity Treasury issues and asks you, the registered representative, whether these would be an appropriate investment. The best response is to tell the customer that this is a:

A. good idea since corporate bonds are extremely safe investments since they are guaranteed by the issuing corporation
B. good idea because the yield spread between corporates and Treasuries guarantees a superior return
C. bad idea because “C” rated corporate bonds have a much higher risk of default than Treasury issues
D. bad idea because “C” rated corporate bonds are not permitted investment vehicles for retirement fund proceeds

A

The best answer is C.

“C” rated bonds are true “junk” with a high risk of default. This is a totally inappropriate investment for a retiree who needs income.

44
Q

During a period when the yield curve has a normal ascending shape, which statement is TRUE?

A. Short term bond prices are more volatile than long term bond prices
B. Long term bond prices are more volatile than short term bond prices
C. Both short term and long term prices are equally volatile
D. No relationship exists between long term and short term bond price movements

A

The best answer is B.

Long term bond prices are more volatile than short term bond prices as interest rates move. Thus, short term bond prices are more stable (move more slowly) as interest rates change compared to long maturities.

45
Q

An investor expects that interest rates will decline over the next 5 years. Which of the following are appropriate investments?

A. Non-callable 10 year bonds
B. 10 year bonds puttable at par in 5 years
C. 10 year bonds callable at par in 5 years
D. Adjustable rate (reset) bonds, with an annual reset period

A

The best answer is A.

If interest rates decline, it is likely that issuers will call in outstanding bonds and refund the issues at the lower current interest rates. An investor who expects interest rates to drop should avoid callable issues (Choice III) or issues with adjustable interest rates (since each year as interest rates drop, the rate on the bond is dropped). Non callable bonds are fine, as are bonds with put options. The put option will only be used if interest rates rise, decreasing the value of the bond. Then, the bondholder would exercise the option and “put” the bonds to the issuer at par.

46
Q

A declining rate of inflation would lead to:

A. higher bond prices and higher bond yields
B. higher bond prices and lower bond yields
C. lower bond prices and lower bond yields
D. lower bond prices and higher bond yields

A

The best answer is B.

A declining rate of inflation will lead to lower interest rates. If interest rates drop, then bond prices will rise.

47
Q

Purchasing power risk is the risk that:

A. the issuer will default
B. the security will be difficult to sell
C. the security will be called prior to maturity
D. inflation will reduce the value of future interest payments

A

The best answer is D.

“Purchasing power” risk is the risk that inflation reduces the value of future interest payments and the principal repayment yet to be received in the future.

48
Q

What will not affect the marketability of a corporate bond?

A. Bond rating
B. Maturity
C. Bond denominations
D. Block size

A

The best answer is C.

The higher rated a bond, the more marketable it is. The shorter the maturity, the more marketable it is. For corporate bonds, the most marketable blocks are 5 bonds up to 100 bonds. Under 5 is an odd lot; over 100 is a large block which is more difficult to trade. The bond denominations have no effect on marketability.

49
Q

A customer wishes to maximize liquidity and minimize interest rate risk. The best recommendation is (are):

A. short term maturities
B. long term maturities
C. callable bonds
D. non callable bonds

A

The best answer is A.

Short term bonds do not fluctuate much in value as interest rates move since they will be redeemed shortly at par. (The longer the maturity, the greater the price movement in response to market interest rate changes). Short term maturities are also the most liquid.

50
Q

Which security is MOST subject to reinvestment risk?

A. Zero coupon bonds
B. Low coupon bonds
C. Medium coupon bonds
D. High coupon bonds

A

The best answer is D.

Reinvestment risk for bondholders is the risk that interest rates drop after issuance of the bonds; and that as interest payments are received over the life of the issue, they cannot be reinvested at the same rate. This risk is the greatest for high coupon bonds; and the lowest for low or zero coupon bonds.

51
Q

Exchange rate risk exists when making an investment in a:

A. foreign security when the U.S. dollar strengthens
B. foreign security when the U.S. dollar weakens
C. U.S. security when the U.S. dollar strengthens
D. U.S. security when the U.S. dollar weakens

A

The best answer is A.

When an investment is made outside the U.S. that is denominated in a foreign currency, the investor assumes exchange rate risk. This is the risk that the foreign currency weakens against the U.S. dollar (which is the same as the U.S. dollar strengthening).

For example, assume that an investment is made in $100,000 of bonds denominated in Japanese Yen when the Yen is trading at 100 to the U.S. dollar. Thus, $100,000 x 100 Yen per U.S. dollar = 1,000,000 Yen being spent. Also assume that each bond costs 10,000 Yen, so 100 bonds are purchased at $100 each. Now assume that the bonds do not move in price, but the Yen weakens to 200 Yen to the U.S. dollar (each U.S. dollar now “buys” 200 Yen instead of 100 Yen). This means that 100 bonds are still priced at 10,000 Yen each in Japan. However, because each U.S. dollar is worth 200 Yen, the bonds are now worth 10,000 Yen / 200 Yen per U.S. dollar = $50 each.

Thus, the bonds are now worth 1/2 of what was paid for them, solely due to the movement in currency exchange rates.

52
Q

Political risk is generally associated with:

A. Corporate bond investments
B. International bond investments
C. Municipal bond investments
D. Treasury bond investments

A

The best answer is B.

Political risk is the risk of investing internationally in countries that have weak political systems. Thus, the bondholder has very little in the way of legal protection. Political risk is an issue for consideration when making investments in 3rd World countries.

53
Q

Which risk is unique to investing internationally in less-developed countries?

A. Political risk
B. Market risk
C. Marketability risk
D. Default risk

A

The best answer is A.

Political risk is the risk of investing internationally in countries that have weak political systems. Thus, the bondholder has very little in the way of legal protection. Political risk is an issue for consideration when making investments in 3rd World countries. Any investment in a fixed rate bond has market risk. Marketability risk depends on how deep and liquid the market is for the bonds purchased. And all bonds have some potential level of default risk.

54
Q

A customer is 100% invested in an S&P 500 Index Fund. This portfolio has:

A. no risk
B. systematic risk
C. nonsystematic risk
D. credit risk

A

The best answer is B.

The basic idea of diversification of a portfolio is that it reduces risk. If a portfolio consists of only a few positions, an adverse event affecting one of the positions can result in a big loss. If the portfolio consists of a broad range of positions, an adverse event affecting only a single position will not have as big a negative impact.

A portfolio that is fully diversified still has risk. It is said to only have “systematic” risk, which is the same as market risk. If the overall market drops, the portfolio will likely drop by a similar percentage.

A portfolio that is not fully diversified is said to have both “systematic” and “nonsystematic” risk. As more and more positions are added to the portfolio, the “nonsystematic risk” is diversified away, leaving the portfolio only with “systematic” risk.

55
Q

A customer has the following portfolio:

20% DEFF Common Stock
30% XYZZ Preferred Stock
30% Safety Money Market Fund
20% S&P 500 Index Fund

This portfolio has:

A. no risk
B. systematic risk
C. nonsystematic risk
D. credit risk

A

The best answer is C.

The basic idea of diversification of a portfolio is that it reduces risk. If a portfolio consists of only a few positions, an adverse event affecting one of the positions can result in a big loss. If the portfolio consists of a broad range of positions, an adverse event affecting only a single position will not have as big a negative impact.

A portfolio that is fully diversified still has risk. It is said to only have “systematic” risk, which is the same as market risk. If the overall market drops, the portfolio will likely drop by a similar percentage.

A portfolio that is not fully diversified is said to have both “systematic” and “nonsystematic” risk. As more and more positions are added to the portfolio, the “nonsystematic risk” is diversified away, leaving the portfolio only with “systematic” risk. This portfolio only consists of 4 positions, and, even though 30% is invested in a very safe money fund and 20% is invested in a broad-based, ETF, the other 50% is concentrated in 2 stock holdings, so it is not fully diversified.