Body Fluids & Membrane Transport Flashcards

1
Q

Baroreceptors in carotid area send impulses along which nerve?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

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2
Q

What type of receptors are at the effector cell following a parasympathetic nerve?

A

mAChR

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3
Q

What type of receptors are at the effector cell following a sympathetic nerve?

A

adrenergic

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4
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue?

A

epithelial, connective, muscle, neural

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5
Q

What are CAMs?

A

cell adhesion molecules

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6
Q

Describe tight junctions

A

Lipid portions of plasma membrane held together by proteins at the adhesion belt

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7
Q

Describe gap junctions

A

Transmembrane proteins called connexons form a channel between cells to allow small molecules to pass. Found in cilia and cardiac muscle

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8
Q

Describe desmosomes

A

CAMs and proteoglycans link the plasma membranes. They are very strong as they connect to the cytoskeleton

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9
Q

What type of epithelium is found in blood vessels, kidney nephrons, cornea, alveoli?

A

Simple squamous

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10
Q

What type of epithelium is found in skin, mouth, throat, oesophagus, rectum, anus and vagina?

A

stratified squamous

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11
Q

Stratified transitional can be found..?

A

bladder

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12
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the pharynx, epiglottis, anus and urethra?

A

Stratified columnar

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13
Q

What type of cell is always present in connective tissue

A

fibroblast

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14
Q

What types of cells are found in connective tissue

A

fibroblast, fibrocyte, adipocytes, macrophages, mast cell, lymphocytes

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15
Q

which cells are granulated containing histamine and heparin

A

mast cells

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16
Q

______ may develop into plasma cells which produce antibodies

A

lymphocytes

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17
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue fibres?

A

collagen, reticular and elastic

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18
Q

describe collagen fibres

A

long, straight, unbranched

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19
Q

describe reticular fibres

A

same protein subunits as collagen, but arranged diff. branching, flexible, interwoven in stroma

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20
Q

describe elastic fibres

A

contain elastin protein, branched, wavy. Rare e.g. connecting vertebrae

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21
Q

Describe loose aereolar tissue

A

shock absorber, few fibres

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22
Q

describe dense regular tissue

A

found in tendons and ligaments, v strong

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23
Q

describe dense irregular tissue

A

strengthen areas subject to stress e.g. around organs

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24
Q

_______ muscle is not striated

A

smooth

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25
is skeletal muscle nucleated?
yes, multinucleated
26
What diameter are elastic arteries?
up to 2.5 cm
27
what diameter are muscular arteries?
0.5 - 40 mm
28
what diameter are arterioles?
less than 30 micro m
29
What is the function of muscular arteries?
distribute blood to muscles and organs
30
muscular arteries have a thick tunica ______
externa
31
arterioles have a poorly defined tunica ______
externa
32
What are the three types of capillaries
continuous, fenestrated, sinusoidal
33
where are continuous capillaries found
everywhere except epithelia and cartilage
34
where are fenestrated capillaries found
hypothalamus, pituitary gland, choroid plexus (brain)
35
where are sinusoidal capillaries found
liver, marrow, spleen
36
Veins have a predominant tunica _____
externa
37
the ductus venosus does what?
connect the umbilical vein to inferior vena cava
38
the foramen ovale connects what?
the right and left atria
39
the ductus arteriosus connects what?
pulmonary trunk to arch of aorta
40
what does the ductus venosus become
ligamentum venosum
41
what does the foramen ovale become
fossa ovalis
42
ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosum
43
What is required for erythropoiesis?
erythropoietin, iron, vitamin B12 and B9, intrinsic factor, amino acids
44
What happens to RBCs when they're damaged?
engulfed by macrophage, Hb is broken down. Globin is converted into amino acids, haeme is converted into bilirubin and iron. some iron is used for erythropoiesis.
45
What causes iron deficiency anaemia
pregnancy, malnutrition, malabsorption, bleeding from GI tract, menorrhagia
46
what are the two types of megaloblastic anaemia?
vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency
47
What is Thalassaemias?
a type of anaemia
48
Which WBC is most common?
neutrophil
49
How long do neutrophils circulate for?
10 hours
50
how many lobes does the neutrophil nucleus have
2-5
51
are neutrophils granular?
yes
52
how many lobes to eosinophils have?
2
53
what do eosinophils do?
release toxic compounds to combat parasitic and bacterial infections
54
are basophils granulated?
yes, contain histamine and heparin
55
which WBC is involved in the inflammatory response?
basophil
56
Haemolytic disease of the newborn happens when...
Rh - mother and Rh + baby
57
what happens at platelet adhesion and aggregation?
release of granule contents, platelet membrane changes, temporary platelet plug
58
what factor stabilises fibrin?
Factor XIII
59
vascular and platelet phase begins....
within a few seconds of injury
60
coagulation phase begins...
30 secs or more after vessel damage
61
Describe the extrinsic pathway
Release of Factor III (tissue factor) by damaged endothelial cells. The greater the damage the more TF is released. TF combines with calcium ion and Factor CII to form enzyme complex capable of activating Factor X.
62
Describe the intrinsic pathway
Activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen fibres at injury site. Pathway proceeds with assistance of Platelet Factor 3, released by aggregating platelets. Activated Factors VIII and IX combine to form an enzyme complex capable of activating Factor X.
63
Which pathway is quicker?
extrinsic
64
Describe the common pathway
enzymes activate factor X, forming prothrombinase. Prothrombinase converts prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin.
65
What will a disorder that decreases calcium ion conc likely result in?
clotting problems
66
which enzyme is key in fibrinolysis
plasmin
67
which is involved in control of clotting
antithrombin, heparin
68
What is Darcy's Law
flow = pressure/resistance
69
what does the poiseuille-hagen equation tell us
rate of flow is proportional to the fourth power of vessel radius
70
Mean arterial pressure = ?
diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
71
What does the P wave show
atrial depolarisation and contraction
72
What does the QRS complex show
ventricle depolarisation and contraction (atrial repolarisation is hidden)
73
What does the T wave show
Ventricle repolarisation and relaxation
74
Cardiac output =
heart rate x stroke volume
75
define cardiac output
volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per minute
76
define stroke volume
volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per beat
77
Stroke volume =
end diastolic volume - end systolic volume
78
systemic BP =
CO x total peripheral resistance (TPR = diff in arteriolar radius)
79
Where does the trachea extend to/from
larynx to the carina
80
What cells line the trachea?
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and goblet cells
81
What are the 3 lung surfaces?
diaphragmatic, costal, medistinal
82
How many lobes does the right lung have
3; superior, middle, inferior
83
how many fissures does the right lung have
2; oblique and horizontal
84
how many lobes does the left lung have
2; superior, inferior
85
how many fissures does the left lung have
1; oblique
86
which surface is the Hilum of the lung located on
mediastinal
87
what are the 3 parts of the sternum
manubrium, body, xiphisternum
88
what is the diaphragm attached to
xiphisternum, costal margin, 11th and 12th ribs, lumbar vertebrae
89
what does Boyle's law state
the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume
90
What is the hering-breuer reflex
prevents over inflation of the lungs
91
vital capacity =
tidal volume + IR + expiratory reserve volume
92
Inspiratory capacity =
TV + IRV
93
Functional Residual Capacity =
RV + ERV
94
Total Lung Capacity =
TV + IRV + ERV + RV
95
Pulmonary Ventilation Rate =
tidal volume x breathing frequency
96
alveolar ventilation rate =
resp rate x (TV-anatomical dead space)
97
what is laplace's law
at equilibrium, the tendency of increased pressure to expand the alveolus valances the tendency of surface tension to collapse it
98
what does decreased pH and increased CO2 do to dissociation curve
shifts to right; Bohr shift
99
what buffer is used in red blood cells
imidazole groups of histidine residues in Hb