Body Fluids & Membrane Transport Flashcards
Baroreceptors in carotid area send impulses along which nerve?
Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
What type of receptors are at the effector cell following a parasympathetic nerve?
mAChR
What type of receptors are at the effector cell following a sympathetic nerve?
adrenergic
What are the 4 types of tissue?
epithelial, connective, muscle, neural
What are CAMs?
cell adhesion molecules
Describe tight junctions
Lipid portions of plasma membrane held together by proteins at the adhesion belt
Describe gap junctions
Transmembrane proteins called connexons form a channel between cells to allow small molecules to pass. Found in cilia and cardiac muscle
Describe desmosomes
CAMs and proteoglycans link the plasma membranes. They are very strong as they connect to the cytoskeleton
What type of epithelium is found in blood vessels, kidney nephrons, cornea, alveoli?
Simple squamous
What type of epithelium is found in skin, mouth, throat, oesophagus, rectum, anus and vagina?
stratified squamous
Stratified transitional can be found..?
bladder
What type of epithelium is found in the pharynx, epiglottis, anus and urethra?
Stratified columnar
What type of cell is always present in connective tissue
fibroblast
What types of cells are found in connective tissue
fibroblast, fibrocyte, adipocytes, macrophages, mast cell, lymphocytes
which cells are granulated containing histamine and heparin
mast cells
______ may develop into plasma cells which produce antibodies
lymphocytes
What are the three types of connective tissue fibres?
collagen, reticular and elastic
describe collagen fibres
long, straight, unbranched
describe reticular fibres
same protein subunits as collagen, but arranged diff. branching, flexible, interwoven in stroma
describe elastic fibres
contain elastin protein, branched, wavy. Rare e.g. connecting vertebrae
Describe loose aereolar tissue
shock absorber, few fibres
describe dense regular tissue
found in tendons and ligaments, v strong
describe dense irregular tissue
strengthen areas subject to stress e.g. around organs
_______ muscle is not striated
smooth
is skeletal muscle nucleated?
yes, multinucleated
What diameter are elastic arteries?
up to 2.5 cm
what diameter are muscular arteries?
0.5 - 40 mm
what diameter are arterioles?
less than 30 micro m
What is the function of muscular arteries?
distribute blood to muscles and organs
muscular arteries have a thick tunica ______
externa
arterioles have a poorly defined tunica ______
externa
What are the three types of capillaries
continuous, fenestrated, sinusoidal
where are continuous capillaries found
everywhere except epithelia and cartilage
where are fenestrated capillaries found
hypothalamus, pituitary gland, choroid plexus (brain)
where are sinusoidal capillaries found
liver, marrow, spleen
Veins have a predominant tunica _____
externa
the ductus venosus does what?
connect the umbilical vein to inferior vena cava
the foramen ovale connects what?
the right and left atria
the ductus arteriosus connects what?
pulmonary trunk to arch of aorta
what does the ductus venosus become
ligamentum venosum
what does the foramen ovale become
fossa ovalis
ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosum
What is required for erythropoiesis?
erythropoietin, iron, vitamin B12 and B9, intrinsic factor, amino acids
What happens to RBCs when they’re damaged?
engulfed by macrophage, Hb is broken down. Globin is converted into amino acids, haeme is converted into bilirubin and iron. some iron is used for erythropoiesis.
What causes iron deficiency anaemia
pregnancy, malnutrition, malabsorption, bleeding from GI tract, menorrhagia
what are the two types of megaloblastic anaemia?
vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency
What is Thalassaemias?
a type of anaemia
Which WBC is most common?
neutrophil
How long do neutrophils circulate for?
10 hours
how many lobes does the neutrophil nucleus have
2-5
are neutrophils granular?
yes
how many lobes to eosinophils have?
2
what do eosinophils do?
release toxic compounds to combat parasitic and bacterial infections
are basophils granulated?
yes, contain histamine and heparin
which WBC is involved in the inflammatory response?
basophil
Haemolytic disease of the newborn happens when…
Rh - mother and Rh + baby
what happens at platelet adhesion and aggregation?
release of granule contents, platelet membrane changes, temporary platelet plug
what factor stabilises fibrin?
Factor XIII
vascular and platelet phase begins….
within a few seconds of injury
coagulation phase begins…
30 secs or more after vessel damage
Describe the extrinsic pathway
Release of Factor III (tissue factor) by damaged endothelial cells. The greater the damage the more TF is released. TF combines with calcium ion and Factor CII to form enzyme complex capable of activating Factor X.
Describe the intrinsic pathway
Activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen fibres at injury site. Pathway proceeds with assistance of Platelet Factor 3, released by aggregating platelets. Activated Factors VIII and IX combine to form an enzyme complex capable of activating Factor X.
Which pathway is quicker?
extrinsic
Describe the common pathway
enzymes activate factor X, forming prothrombinase. Prothrombinase converts prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin.
What will a disorder that decreases calcium ion conc likely result in?
clotting problems
which enzyme is key in fibrinolysis
plasmin
which is involved in control of clotting
antithrombin, heparin
What is Darcy’s Law
flow = pressure/resistance
what does the poiseuille-hagen equation tell us
rate of flow is proportional to the fourth power of vessel radius
Mean arterial pressure = ?
diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
What does the P wave show
atrial depolarisation and contraction
What does the QRS complex show
ventricle depolarisation and contraction (atrial repolarisation is hidden)
What does the T wave show
Ventricle repolarisation and relaxation
Cardiac output =
heart rate x stroke volume
define cardiac output
volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per minute
define stroke volume
volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per beat
Stroke volume =
end diastolic volume - end systolic volume
systemic BP =
CO x total peripheral resistance (TPR = diff in arteriolar radius)
Where does the trachea extend to/from
larynx to the carina
What cells line the trachea?
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and goblet cells
What are the 3 lung surfaces?
diaphragmatic, costal, medistinal
How many lobes does the right lung have
3; superior, middle, inferior
how many fissures does the right lung have
2; oblique and horizontal
how many lobes does the left lung have
2; superior, inferior
how many fissures does the left lung have
1; oblique
which surface is the Hilum of the lung located on
mediastinal
what are the 3 parts of the sternum
manubrium, body, xiphisternum
what is the diaphragm attached to
xiphisternum, costal margin, 11th and 12th ribs, lumbar vertebrae
what does Boyle’s law state
the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume
What is the hering-breuer reflex
prevents over inflation of the lungs
vital capacity =
tidal volume + IR + expiratory reserve volume
Inspiratory capacity =
TV + IRV
Functional Residual Capacity =
RV + ERV
Total Lung Capacity =
TV + IRV + ERV + RV
Pulmonary Ventilation Rate =
tidal volume x breathing frequency
alveolar ventilation rate =
resp rate x (TV-anatomical dead space)
what is laplace’s law
at equilibrium, the tendency of increased pressure to expand the alveolus valances the tendency of surface tension to collapse it
what does decreased pH and increased CO2 do to dissociation curve
shifts to right; Bohr shift
what buffer is used in red blood cells
imidazole groups of histidine residues in Hb
