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OTHER BODY FLUIDS > Body Fluids > Flashcards

Body Fluids Flashcards

1
Q

Normal amniotic fluid volume

A

800-1200ml

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2
Q

Major contributor to the AF volume after 1st trimester of pregnancy

A

Fetal urine

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3
Q

Neural tube effects (spina bifida) causes which: polyhydramnios (>1200ml) or oligyhydramnios (<800ml)

A

Poly

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4
Q

Membrane leakage and urinary tract deformities causes which: oly or poly

A

Oligohydramnios

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5
Q

Collection of amniotic flud

A

Amniocentesis

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6
Q

Up to how many ml is collected during amniocentesis

A

30 ml

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7
Q

Genetic defects such as trisonomy 21/down syndrome test on amniotic fluid is collected during which trimester

A

2nd

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8
Q

Fetal lung maturity and fetal hemolytic disease test on amniotic fluid is collected when

A

3rd trimester

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9
Q

HcG and Inhibin A is ______ on down syndrome

A

Increased

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10
Q

Specimen handling of amniotic fluid:

Test for fetal lung maturity: placed on ______ during deliver, ______ during storage, to prevent loss phospholipids

A

Ice, refrigerated or frozen

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11
Q

Specimen handling of amniotic fluid for cytogenetic studies

A

Kept at room tempt or 37 C

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12
Q

Specimen handling of amniotic fluid for HDN test

A

Protected from light

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13
Q

Maternal urine:

Urea
Creatinine

A

> 300 mg/dl

>10 mg/dl

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14
Q

Amniotic fluid vs maternal urine:
Protein
Glucose

A

+ -

+ -

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15
Q

Normal color of amniotic fluid

A

Colorless

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16
Q

Yellow amniotic fluid

A

HDN/bilirubin

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17
Q

Dark green amniotic fluid

A

Meconium

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18
Q

1st fetal bowel movement

A

Meconium

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19
Q

Dark red brown amniotic fluid

A

Fetal death

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20
Q

Most frequent complication of early delivery

A

RDS

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21
Q

7th most common cause of morbidity and mortality in the premature infant

A

RSD

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22
Q

RSD is caused by insufficiency of ________ production

A

Phospholipids

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23
Q

Reference test for fetal lung maturity

A

L/S ratio

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24
Q

Tested for alveolar stabilty

A

Lecithin

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25
Q

Serves as control (due to constant production)

A

Sphingomyelin

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26
Q

L/S ratio is measured using ________

A

TLC

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27
Q

Ratio of L/S indicating mature lungs

A

> 2.0

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28
Q

Blood or meconium causes false ______ on L/S test

A

Increase

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29
Q

Immunologic test for phosphatidyl glycerol

A

Amniostat-flm

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30
Q

RSD test not affected by blood or meconium

A

Amniostat-FLM

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31
Q

Reagent used in foam stability (foam/shake test)

A

95% ethanol

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32
Q

Steps in foam stability test

Amniotic + 95% ethanol —–> shake for ____ —–> stand for ______

A 
Shake = 15 mins
Stand = 15 mins
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33
Q

Indication of mature fetal lungs (+) in foam stability test

A

Foam/bubbles

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34
Q

Is the friction experienced by a single particle undergoing diffusion because of its interaction with its environment at micrometer length scale

A

Microviscosity

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35
Q

Microviscosity is measured through _____

A

Fluorescence polarization

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36
Q

Storage form alveolar surfactants/phospholipids

A

Lamellar body

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37
Q

Site of lamellar body production

A

Type 2 pneumocytes

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38
Q

Pneumocytes is similar in shape to what cell

A

Platelets

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39
Q

Lamellar body count meaning adequate FLM

A

> 32,000/uL

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40
Q

O. D. _____ nm for lamellar bodies

A

650

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41
Q

O. D in LBC. of ______ equivalent to: L/S ratio of >2.0

A

> 0.150

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42
Q

Amniotic fluid crea prior to 36 weeks’ gestation

A

1.5 to 2.0

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43
Q

Amniotic fluid creatinine in 36 weeks (9months)

A

> 2.0

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44
Q

OD for bilirubin or HDN

A

OD 450

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45
Q

Od 450 is plotted on _______

A

LILEY GRAPH

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46
Q

Nonaffected/mildly affected on liley graph

A

Zone 1

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47
Q

Moderately affected fetus (requires close monitoring)

A

Zone 2

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48
Q

Severely affected fetus (requires intervetion)

A

Zone 3

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49
Q

Hemoglobin peaks at what OD in liley graph

A

410 nm

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50
Q

A birth defect where there is incomplete closing of the back bone membranes around the spinal cord

A

Spina bifida

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51
Q

Is the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp that occurs during embryonic

A

Anecephaly

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52
Q

Screening test for NTD

A

AFP

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53
Q

Confirmatory test for NTD

A

ACHE

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54
Q

Where is hcG produced

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

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55
Q

When the hCG peeks

A

1st trimester

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56
Q

HcG sub unit specific for HcG

A

Beta

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57
Q

HCG subunit for identical subunits such as LH TSH, FSH

A

Alpha

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58
Q

Principle of home based hcg pre test

A

Enzyme immunoassay

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59
Q

Specimen for homebased preg test

A

First morning urine

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60
Q

Cuttof point of home based preg test

A

25 mIU/mL

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61
Q

Anti-hcg source in preg test kit

A

Rabbit

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62
Q

HCG bioassay that uses female frog

A

Hogben

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63
Q

Hcg bioassay that uses male toad

A

Galli-mainini

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64
Q

Positive result in hogben

A

Oogenesis

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65
Q

Positive result in galli-mainini

A

Spermatogenesis

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66
Q

What causes fern like crystal formation in fern test

A

Protein, sodium chloride

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67
Q

The oldest test of amniotic fluid is for what

A

Evaluate HDN severity

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68
Q

Atleast what should be the specific gravity of urine for pregnancy testing

A

1.015

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69
Q

As early as how many days after conception can ELISA give positive reaction

A

15 days

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70
Q

Mixture of plasma, electrolytes, mucin and water

A

Tracheobronchial secretions

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71
Q

Requirement for acceptable sputum specimen

A

<10 SEC/LPF

> 25 WBC/LPF

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72
Q

Prefered sample for routine test of sputum

A

First morning

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73
Q

Specimen for sputum volume measurement

A

24 hr

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74
Q

Sputum specimen collect for pediatric patients

A

Throat swab

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75
Q

Specimen collect of sputum for non cooperative patients

A

Sputum induction

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76
Q

Specimen collection of sputum for delibitated/unconscious patients

A

Tracheal aspiration

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77
Q

Methods of sputum preservation

A

Refrigeration

10% formalin

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78
Q

Red or bright red colored sputum

A

Fresh blood, hemorrhage, TB or bronchiectasis

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79
Q

Anchovy sauce or rusty brown colored sputum

A

Old blood, pneumonia, gangrene

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80
Q

Olive green or grass green sputum

A

Cancer

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81
Q

Black colored sputum

A

Dust or dirt, carbon, charcoal, anthracosis, smoking

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82
Q

Rusty (WITH PUS)

A

Lobar pneumonia

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83
Q

Rusty WITHOUT PUS

A

Congestive heart failure

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84
Q

Currant, jelly-like sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

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85
Q

Yellow or gray material, size of a pinhead, produces foul odor when crushed

A

Dittrich’s plug

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86
Q

Hard concretion in a bronchus

A

Bronchiliths

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87
Q

Most common cause of broncholiths or lungs tones

A

Histoplasmosis

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88
Q

Layer formation of sputum
Top
Middle
Bottom

A

Frothy mucus

Opaque, water material

Pus, bacteria, tissues

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89
Q

Colorless, hexagonal, double pyramid, often needlelike and arises from disentegration of eosinophils

A

Charcot-leyden crystals

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90
Q

Microscopic structure: Coiled mucus strands in a sputum

A

Curshmann’s spiral

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91
Q

Mistaken as blastomyces in a sputum

A

Myelin globules

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92
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophage found on sputum in a CHF

A

Heart failure cells

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93
Q

Angular black granules in a sputum found on smokers

A

Carbon-laden cells

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94
Q

Clusters of columnar epithelial cells found on sputum

A

Creola bodies

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95
Q

Elements found on sputum on bronchial asthma

A

Creola bodies
Curshmann’s spiral
Charcot-leyden crystala
Dittrich’s plug

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96
Q

Bronchoalveolar lavage is important for the diagnosis of _______ in immunocompromised patients

A

Pneumocystis carinnin. (P. jiroveci)

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97
Q

Most predominant cells seen in BAL

A

Alveolar macrophage

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98
Q

Most important single component of sputum viscosity

A

Sialic acid

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99
Q

Stain that best delineates the cysts of P. jiroveci

A

Grocott’s methenamine silver stain

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100
Q

Sweat is used to diagnose what disease

A

Cystic fibrosis (mucovosidosis)

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101
Q

Specific test for CF

A

Gibson and cooke pilocarpine iontophoresis

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102
Q

What induces sweat in gibson and cooke

A

Pilocarpine + mild current

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103
Q

Sweat Na ans Cl values diagnostic of CF

A

> 70 mEq/L

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104
Q

Na and Cl values for borderline CF

A

40 mEq/L

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105
Q

3rd major body fluid

A

CSF

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106
Q

Outer layer of the meninges

A

DAP

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107
Q

Portion of the brain and spinal cord where the csf flows

A

Subarachnoid space

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108
Q

Produces CSF by selective filtration

A

Choroid plexus

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109
Q

Rate of Choroid plexus production of csf

A

20 ml/hr

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110
Q

Reabsorbs csf

A

Arachnoid villi/granulations

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111
Q

Up to how many ml of CSF can be collected

A

20 ml

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112
Q

Method of csf collection

A

Lumbar puncture

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113
Q

Where is lumbar puncture done

A

Between 3rd, 4th or, 5th lumar vertebrae

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114
Q

CSF tube number, test, and storage

A 
1 = chem/sero = freezer
2 = microbio = room tempt
3 = hematology = refrigerator
4 = micro or sero (dependes on test)
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115
Q

True or false

Excess csf fluid should be discarded

A

False (should be frozen until no further use)

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116
Q

Arrangement of testing if only one tube of csf is collected

A

Micro - - - - > hema - - - - - > Chem/sero

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117
Q

Csf total volume for adults

A

90-150

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118
Q

Total csf for neonates

A

10-60 ml

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119
Q

Normal csf appearance

A

Crystal clear

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120
Q

Erythropages is present which (traumatic tap or intracranial hemorrhage

A

Intracranial

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121
Q

D-dimer is positive where (traumatic trap or intracranial hemorrhage)

A

IH

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122
Q

Pellicle formation in csf is associated with what

A

Tubercular meningitis

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123
Q

CSF dilution:

  1. Clear
  2. Sl. Hazy
  3. Hazy
  4. Sl. Cloudy
  5. Cloudy
  6. Bloody/turbid
A

Clear

1: 10
1: 20
1: 100
1: 200
1: 10,000

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124
Q

Rbc count correction for every _____ wbc seen

A

-1 rbc for every 700

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125
Q

Method of csf consentration

A

cytocentrifugation

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126
Q

How big is the diameter of the monolayer of cells in cytocentrifugation of csf

A

6mm

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127
Q

_____ is added in cytocentrifugation to increase yield

A

30% albumin

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128
Q

Predominant cells CSF

A

Lymph and mono

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129
Q

Adult ratio of Lympho to mono in csf

A

70:30

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130
Q

What is predominant cell in csf of neonates

A

Monocytes

80%

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131
Q

Normal CSF protein in adults

A

15-45mg/dl

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132
Q

Major csf protein

A

Albumin

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133
Q

Prefered method in turbidimetric protein determination of csf

A

Trichloroactetic acid

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134
Q

Precipitates both globulins and albumin in protein determination of CSF

A

Trichloroactetic acid

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135
Q

Precipitates albumin only

A

SSA

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136
Q

Normal value of CSF/Serum albumin ratio

A

<9

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137
Q

CSF/Serum albumin ratio of complete damage to BBB

A

> 100

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138
Q

Normal value of csf IgG index

A

<0.77

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139
Q

Presence of what protein in csf indicates myelin sheath destruction

A

MBP

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140
Q

Specimen for blood glucose should be drawn ______ hours prior to spinal tap

A

2 hours

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141
Q

Normal value csf glucose

A

60-70% of blood glucose

142
Q

Normal value of csf lactate

A

10-22 mg/dl

143
Q

Indirect test for the presence of ammonia in csf

A

Glutamate

144
Q

Normal value of glutamate CSF

A

8-18mg/dl

145
Q

Csf glutamate is increased or decreased in Reyes’s syndrome

A

Increased

146
Q

Recommended test by CDC for detection of neurosyphilis

A

VDRL

147
Q

Detects gram negative endotoxin in body fluid

A

Limulus lysate test

148
Q

Reagent in limulus lysate test

A

Horseshoe crab blood

149
Q

Positive reaction in limulus lysate test

A

Clump/clot

150
Q

It takes an average of how many days to form mature sperm

A

74 days

151
Q

First part of ejaculate missing causes what in sperm

A

Low sperm count, high pH, NO liquification

152
Q

Normal semen pH

A

7.2-8.0

153
Q

Normal value for sperm con

A

> 20million/ml

154
Q

Counting method in sperm with undiluted specimen

A

Makler counting chamber

155
Q

Makler counting chamber uses ______ to immobilise sperm

A

Heat

156
Q

Sperm motility is read in how many hpfs

A

20

157
Q

Provides objective determination of both sperm velocity and trajectory

A

CASA

158
Q

Sperm morphology normal value: routine

A

> 30% normal forms

159
Q

Sperm morphology normal value: kruger’s strict criteria

A

> 14% normal forms

160
Q

Stains for sperm morphology

A

Papanicolaus
Wright
Giemsa

161
Q

Length and width of sperm head

A

5um and 3um

162
Q

Acrosomal cap length

A

1/2 of head

2/3 of nucleus

163
Q

Length of sperm neck

A

7um

164
Q

Length of sperm tail

A

45 um

165
Q

Sperm viability test

A

Modified bloom’s test

166
Q

Regeant used in bloom’s test

A

Eosin and negrosin

167
Q

Result in modified bloom’s test

A

Dead sperm: red

168
Q

Seminal fluid fructose test

A

Resorcinol

169
Q

Positive result in resorcinol

A

Orange-red

170
Q

Antisperm antibody test that detects igG, IgM, IgA and location

A

Immunobead test

171
Q

Antisperm antibody that detects IgG only

A

Mixed agglutination reaction

172
Q

Normal value of round cells in semen

Wbc or spermatid

A

<1M/ml

173
Q

Reagents of florence test

A

Potassium iodide + iodine crystal

174
Q

Positive result in florence test

A

Dark brown rhombic crystals

175
Q

Which is more specific, florence or barbiero

A

Barbiero

176
Q

Reagent of barbiero test

A

Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid

177
Q

Positive result in barbiero

A

Yellow leaf like crystal

178
Q

When is sperm count done after vasectomy

A

After 2 months until 2 consective monthly specimen without sperm

179
Q

No ejaculate

A

Aspermia

180
Q

Absence of sperm cell

A

Azoospermia

181
Q

Which eggs are used for sperm cell penetration

A

Hamster egg

182
Q

Cells that secret testosterone

A

Leydig cells

183
Q

Secrets inhibin

A

Sertoli

184
Q

For how long should semen be settled on slides before evaluation of motility

A

1 minute

185
Q

Angle when preparing smear for morphology

A

45 degrees

186
Q

Motile sperm can be detected for up to _____ hours and immotile for _______

A

24 hrs

3 days

187
Q

Head of dead sperm cell can remain for how many days after intercouse

A

7

188
Q

Synovial is latin word for

A

Egg

189
Q

Viscosity of synovial fluid is due to the presence of

A

Hyaluronic acid

190
Q

What produces hyaluronic acid

A

Synoviocytes

191
Q

Method of collection of synovial fluid

A

Arthrocentesis

192
Q

Normal value of synovial fluid

A

<3.5ml

193
Q

Volume of synovial fluid during inflammation

A

> 25ml

194
Q

Normal color of synovial fluid

A

Colorless to pale yellow

195
Q

Cause of milky synovial fluid

A

Crystals

196
Q

Normal Length of string formed in synovial fluid

A

4-6cm long

197
Q

Reagent used in ropes or mucin clot test

A

2-5% acetic acid

198
Q

Major wbc in synovial fluid

A

Monocytes and macrophage

199
Q

Diluting fluids for synovial fluid

A

Nss with methyline blue
Hypotonic saline
Saline with saponin

200
Q

Reagent added for a very viscous synovial fluid

A

0.05% hyaluronidase

201
Q

Neutrophil containing ingested body

A

LE cell

202
Q

Vacuolated macrophage with ingested neutrophil

A

Reiter

203
Q

Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes

A

RA cell (Rhagocyte)

204
Q

Macroscopically resemble polished rice

A

Rice bodies

205
Q

Ground pepper appearance

A

Ochronotic shard

206
Q

MSU crystals run ______ to long axis or crystals

A

Parallel

207
Q

Result of negative birefringes

A

Yellow color

208
Q

Positive color of birefringes

A

Blue

209
Q

Who has positive birefringes ccpd or msu

A

Ccpd

210
Q

Molecules of cppd run _____ to the axis of crystals

A

Perpendicular

211
Q

Normal glucose value of synovial fluid

A

Blood glucose - SF glucose = <10mg/dl

212
Q

Most common organism that infect SF

A

S. aures

213
Q

Type 1 join disorder

A

Non-inflammatory

214
Q

Type 2A joint disorder

A

Inflammatory (immunologic)

215
Q

Type 2B joint disorder

A

Inflammatory(crystal induced)

216
Q

Type 3 joint disorder

A

Septic

217
Q

Type 4 joint disorder

A

Hemorrhagic

218
Q

Type of joint disorder with good viscosity

A

Type 1 - non inflammatory

219
Q

Type of joint disorder with milky fluid

A

Type 2 B (inflammatory crystal induced)

220
Q

Type of joint disorder with positive auto antibody

A

Type 2 A (inflammatory - immunologic)

221
Q

Type of joint disorder with positive crystals

A

Type 2 B (inflammatory - crystal induced)

222
Q

Neutrophils value in type 3(septic) joint disorder

A

> 75%

223
Q

Fluid:serum protein ratio of trans and exudate

A

<0.5

> 0.5

224
Q

Fluid:serum LD ratio of trans and exudate

A

<0.6

> 0.6

225
Q

Protein of trans vs exudate

A

<3.0

> 3.0

226
Q

Serum ascite albumin gradient trans vs exudate

A

> 1.0

<1.1

227
Q

Recommended test to detect transudates of hepatic origin

A

Serum ascite albumin gradient

228
Q

Lipid present in chylous effusion

A

Trigly

229
Q

Which has increased lymphocytes. Chylous or pseudo

A

Chylous

230
Q

Cause of chylous effusion

A

Thoracic duct leakage

231
Q

Positive in sudan staining. Chylous or pseudo

A

Chylous

232
Q

Positive with cholesterol crystals. Pseudo or chylous

A

Pseudo

233
Q

Pleural cells that are decreased in TB

A

Mesothelial cell

234
Q

Pleural fluid hct is greater than 1/2 of whole blood hct

A

Hemothorax

235
Q

Pleural fluid hct is less than 1/2 of whole blood hct

A

Hemorrhagic effusion

236
Q

CFYRA 21-1 is tumor marker for what

A

Lung cancer

237
Q

Esophageal rupture: increase or decrease pH

A

Decrease

238
Q

Normal wbc count of peritoneal fluid

A

<500 cells/uL

239
Q

How many rbc can in peritoneal lavage can indicate blunt trauma injury

A

> 100,000 rbc/ul

240
Q

Contain concentric striations of collagen material seen in benign conditions associated with ovarian and thyroid carcinoma

A

Psammoma bodies

241
Q

Non beta islet cell adenoma of the pancreas

A

Zollinger ellison

242
Q

Production site of pesinogen

A

Chief cells

243
Q

Presence of anti-parietal cell Ab and anti IF ab

A

Pernicious anemia

244
Q

Needed for vitamin b12 absorption

A

Intrinsic factor

245
Q

Mucus producing cells that cover the inside of the stomach

A

Foveolar cells

246
Q

Gastric tube the passes through the nose

A

Levin

247
Q

Total gastric secretion during unstimulated fasting state

A

Basal acid output

248
Q

Total gastric secretion after gastric stimulation

A

Maximum acid output

249
Q

Test meal: bread, weak tea or water

A

Ewald

250
Q

Test meal: oats and water

A

Boa

251
Q

Tets meal: beef steak, mashed potato

A

Riegel’s

252
Q

Most preferred chemical stimulant for gastric test

A

Pentagastrin

253
Q

Chemical stimulant to assess vagotomy procedure

A

Insulin

254
Q

Normal bao/mao ratio

A

10%

255
Q

Bao/mao ratio formula

A

Bao/mao x 100

256
Q

Normal color of gastric fluid

A

Pale gray w/ mucus

257
Q

Normal gastric fluid volume (fasting)

A

20-50ml

258
Q

Failure to produce a pH <6.0 following gastric stimulation

A

Anacidity

259
Q

Normal free HCL

A

Euchlorhydria

260
Q

Gastric fluid pH >3.5 but falls after gastric stimulation

A

Hypochlorhydria

261
Q

Significance of hypochlorhydria

A

Carcinoma of the stomach

262
Q

Decrease free HCL

A

Hypochlorhydria

263
Q

Absence of free HCL

A

Achlorhydria

264
Q

Gastric fluid >3.5 and does not fall after gastric stimulation

A

Achlorhydria

265
Q

Failure to produce <6.0 pH following after gastric stimulation

A

Anacidity

266
Q

Achlorhydria and anacidity signifies what

A

Pernicious anemia

267
Q

Tubeless gastric test

A

Diagnex

268
Q

Specimen for diagnex

A

Urine

269
Q

Result of diagnex

A

Blue = acidity

270
Q

Indicative of advance gastric cancer/gastric stagnation

A

Lactic acid

271
Q

End point color for tests on lactic acid

A

Yellow

272
Q

Normal amount of stool per day

A

100-200g

273
Q

Melena

A

Black stool

274
Q

Hematochezia

A

Red stool

275
Q

Pale yellow, gray, white stool

A

Bile duct obstruction, barium sulfate

276
Q

Frothy stool

A

Pancreatic disorder

277
Q

Frothy stool

A

Pancreatic disorder

278
Q

Rice water stool

A

Cholera

279
Q

Pea-soup stool

A

Typhoid

280
Q

Scabylous/goat dropping stool

A

Constipation

281
Q

Best type of stool

A

Type 4 then 3

282
Q

Water, no solid pieces, entirely liquid stool

A

Type 7

283
Q

Like sausage or snake, smooth, and soft stool

A

Type 4

284
Q

Like a sausage with cracks stool

A

Type 3

285
Q

Value of fats in stool

A

> 6g/day

286
Q

Screening test for steatorrhea

A

Microscop examination of feces for fat globules

287
Q

Quantitative fecal fast test

A

Van de kamer titration

288
Q

Sample for van de kamer test

A

3 day stool

289
Q

Neutral fat stain

A

Triglycerides

290
Q

Split fat stain

A

Fatty acids

291
Q

Neutral fat stain reagents

A

95% ethanol + sudan III

292
Q

Split fat stain reagent

A

36% acetic acid plus sudan III

293
Q

Number of orange droplets in neutral stain indicating steatorrhea

A

Atleast 60 drops/hpf

294
Q

Value of muscle fibers in abnormal excretion

A

> 10 undigested

295
Q

Reagent in muscle fiber determination

A

10% eosin

296
Q

Objective in muscle fiber determination

A

Hpf

297
Q

Indication of abnormal muscle fiber in stool (>10)

A

Biliary obstruction

Cystic fibrosis

298
Q

Number of neutrophil in stool indicating invasive condition

A

> 3/hpf

299
Q

Bacteria causing diarrhea without wbc

A

Toxin producing (S. Aureus, cholera) , virus, parasite

300
Q

Screening test for colorectal cancer

A

Occult blood (gum guiac)

301
Q

Positive color for gum guiac

A

Blue

302
Q

Aspirin should be avoided for how many days prior to FOBT to prevent false positive

A

7 days

303
Q

Principle of FOBT

A

Pseudo peroxidase

304
Q

Principle of FOBT

A

Pseudo peroxidase

305
Q

Differentiates maternal from baby stool

A

Apt test

306
Q

Specimen for apt-downy test

A

Infant stool or vomit

307
Q

Reagent for Apt test

A

1% NaOH

308
Q

Positive result for fetal blood in apt test

A

Pink solution

309
Q

Detects trypsin enzyme

A

X-ray film test (gelatin test)

310
Q

(-) trypsin is seen in what condition

A

Cystic fibrosis

311
Q

Most valuable in assessing case of infant diarrhea

A

Fecal carbohydrates

312
Q

Normal stool pH

A

7.0-8.0

313
Q

Stool pH in carbohydrate disorder

A

<5.5

314
Q

Stool weight in diarrhea

A

> 200g/day (excretion of >3x a day)

315
Q

Diarrhea with increased secretion of water and electrolytes

A

Secretory

316
Q

Diarrhea with increased retention of water and electrolytes

A

Osmotic diarrhea

317
Q

The cause of odor in the feces

A

Indole and skatole

318
Q

Test that can distinguish malabsorption and maldigestion

A

D-xylose test

319
Q

Low urine d-xylose means = malabsorption or maldigestion

A

Malabsorption (d-xylose does not need to be digested)

320
Q

Rapid test to estimate the amount of fat excretion

A

Acid steatocrit

321
Q

Lenses which form primary (initial) image of specimen

A

Objectives

322
Q

Colour of leukocytes in sternheimer-malbin

A

Pale pink with purple leukocytes

323
Q

Appearance of glitter cells in steirnheimer malbin stain

A

Pale blue

324
Q

Appearance of hyaline/waxy casts

A

Pale pink/ or may not stain at all

325
Q

Sedi-stain and KOVA stain are brands of what stain

A

Steirnheimer-malbin

326
Q

Reagents of biuret test

A

10% NaOH/ KOH

327
Q

Exton’s reagent is a reagent in what test

A

Sulfosalicylic acid

328
Q

Kingsbury-clark is test for what analyte

A

Quantitative Protein

329
Q

Rothera’s is test for what analyte

A

Ketone

330
Q

Gerhardt’s test is for what analyte

A

Ketone

331
Q

Reagent of gerhardt’s test

A

FeCl3

332
Q

Rubner’s is tets for what analyte

A

Sugar

333
Q

Bial orcinel and tauber’s tests what

A

Pentoses

334
Q

Gmelin tests what analyte

A

Bile pigments

335
Q

Schlesinger tests what analyte

A

Bile pigments

336
Q

Sulkowitch is test for what analyte

A

Calcium

337
Q

Meaning of PDSA

A

Plan do study act

338
Q

Meaning of PDMAI

A

Pland design measure assess improve

339
Q

Turnaround time is in what part of quality assurance

A

Post analytical

340
Q

Disinfection of centrifuge is done how often

A

Weekly

341
Q

Checking pH and purity meter resistance and deionized water for reagent preparation is done how often

A

Weekly

342
Q

How often should the speed of centrifuges be checked

A

Monthly

343
Q

Used to correct centrifuge speed

A

Tachometer (strobelight) and stop watch

344
Q

How often should the speed of centrifuges be checked

A

Monthly

345
Q

Calibration of centrifuges (centrifugal force) should be checked when

A

Every three months (quarterly)

346
Q

Professional cleaning of microscopes should be done how often

A

Annually

347
Q

Sensitivity of chem strip in bilirubin

A

0.4-0.8 mg/dl

348
Q

Sensitivity of multistix to glucose

A

75-125 mg/dl

349
Q

Multistix sensitivity to urine protein

A

15-30 mg/dl

350
Q

Sensitive of ph in multistix

A

5.0 - 8.5

OTHER BODY FLUIDS (1 decks)

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