Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ascp > boc ascp > Flashcards

boc ascp Flashcards

1
Q

when using an automated cell counter, what occurs in the case of a cold agglutination?

A

increased MCV (and MCHC) and rbc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CSF specimen for glucose assay should be

A

analyzed immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a major crossmatch will detect

A

recipients antibodies directly against donors red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for

A

sodium, potassium, chloride and total C02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

common cause of respiratory alkalosis is

A

hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When staining acid-fast bacilli with Truant auramine-rhodamine stain, potassium permanganate is used as a

A

quenching agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A first morning sputum is received for culture of acid-fast bacilli. It is digested and concentrated by the
N-acetyl-L-cysteine alkali method. Two Sabouraud dextrose slants are incubated in the dark at 35ºC with
5%-10% CO2. The smear reveal acid-fast bacilli, but the slants show no growth after 8 weeks. The
explanation is:

A

incorrect media was used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

maconkey media screening for suspected cases of E.coli 0517:H7 must contain

A

sorbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit

A

bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of

A

their 5 antigen-binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant numbers of stool cultures
because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in the county. A media that
should be incorporated in the plating protocol is:

A

thisulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An electrode has a silver/silver chloride anode and a platinum wire cathode. It is suspended in KCl
solution and separated fro the blood to be analyzed by a selectively permeable membrane. Such an
electrode is used to measure which of the following?

A

pco2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent meningitis is

A

group b strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 300mL. This condition would
be termed

A

oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amniotic fluid is tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test determines

A

fetal lung maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the purpose of testing with Anti-A-B is

A

to detect subgroups of A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The most important buffer pair in plasma is the

A

bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Evidence of active red cell regeneration may be indicated on a blood smear by

A

basophilic stippling, nucleated rbcs, and polychromasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Philideplphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All stages of neutrophils can be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with

A

chronic granulocytic leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

to be analyzed by gas liquid chromatography a compound must

A

volatile or must be made volatile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the

A

Fc fragment of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Substances that are ANTIGENIC ONLY when coupled to a protein carrier

A

haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Use of “standard” (universal) precautions minimizes exposure to

A

blood-borne pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrodes for electrolytes

A

whole blood specimens are acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Leukocyte reduced red blood cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate . Which
way is the best way to prepare this product

A

Transfuse through a log3 leukocyte removing filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the steam autoclave method of sterilization

A

15 lb of pressure for 15 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the

A

diffusion characteristics of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant
platelets is

A

May-Hegglin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the follwing factors would make an organism appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion sustibility test?

A

too many organisms on the disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In spectrophotometry, the device that allows for a narrow band of wavelengths is the

A

monochromator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Leukocyte-poor red blood cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of

A

febrile transfusion reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In synovial fluid, the most characteristic microscopic finding in pseudogout is

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

an index of precision is statistically known as

A

coefficient of variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

AHG coombs control cells are coated with

A

IgG antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which laboratory technique is most frequently used to diagnose and follow the course of therapy of a
patient with secondary syphilis?

A

flocculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The disease most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4 and 5 on
electrophoresis is

A

liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin F is:

A

Kleihauer-Betke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An enzyme deficiency associated with a moderate to severe hemolytic anemia after the patient is
exposed to certain drugs and that is characterized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured
hemoglobin is

A

G6PD-defieciency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which one of the following gram-negative bacilli ferments glucose

A

Y. enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tumor markers are useful in tracking

A

the efficiency of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria
meningitis?

A

lactose degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following may be used a a positive quality control organism for the bile esculin test

A

enterococcus faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The major features by which molds are routinely identified are

A

Macroscopic characteristics and
microscopic morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is a result of

A

abnormal platelet function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vibrio parahemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on

A

TCBS agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin

A

are able to cross the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the

A

regions of light and heavy chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

lithium therapy is widely used to treat

A

bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

After receiving appropriate training, the first step in using a fire extinguisher is to

A

pull the pin

52
Q

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by

A

immunoassays

53
Q

Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Kell

54
Q

A Patient with a coagulopathy was transfused with FP24 (plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection)
After infusion of 15mL, the patient experienced hypotension, shock, chest pain and difficulty in
breathing. The most likely cause of the reaction is

A

Anti-IgA

55
Q

False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of

A

horse-radish

56
Q

A consistently and repeatedly negative IFA-ANA is

A

strong evidence against untreated SLE

57
Q

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to homologous
antibody?

A

precipitation

58
Q

the Philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between the

A

long arm of chromosome 22 and long arm of chromosome 9

59
Q

Ten units of group A platelets were transfused to a group AB patient. The pretransfusion platelet count
was 12x10^3/uL and the posttransfusion count was 18x10^3/uL. From this information, the technologist
would most likely conclude that the patient

A

has developed antibodies against the transfused platelets

60
Q

A solution contains 20 g of solute dissolved in 0.5 L of water. What is the percentage of this solution?

A

4%

61
Q

A technician is asked to clean out the chemical reagent storeroom and discard any reagents not used in
the past 5 years. How should the technician proceed?

A

follow MSDS protocal

62
Q

in a the clauss fibrinogen method, the time to clot formation in plasma is measured after the addition
of

A

thrombin

63
Q

a centrifuge head has a diameter of 60 cm and spins at 3,000 RPM. What is the maximum achievable G
force?

A

2,700 G

64
Q

A technologist spilled 10 gallons of formaldehyde on the floor. After determining the chemical poses a
significant health hazard, the first action step would be to

A

evacuate the area

65
Q

A first morning sputum is received for culture of mycobacteria. It is digested and concentrated by the Nacetyl-L-cysteine alkali method. Two Lowenstein-Jensen slants are incubated in the dark at 35C with 5-
10% CO2. The smears revealed acid-fast bacilli, and after 7 days no growth appears on the slants. The
best explanation is

A

not enough time for growth (mycobacterium can take up to 12 weeks to grow)

66
Q

In the assay of lactate dehydrogenase, which of the following products is actually measured?

A

NADH

67
Q

A sputum specimen from a patient with a known Klebsiella pneumonia infection is received in the lab for fungus culture. The proper procedure for handling this specimen is to

A

include media that have cycloheximide and chloramphenicol to inhibit bacteria and saprophytic fungi

68
Q

Humoral antibodies are produced by

A

B lymphs

69
Q

What battery of tests is most useful in evaluating an anion gap of 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L)?

A

BUN,creatinine, salicylate and methanol

70
Q

Which of the following factors is used only in the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

A

VII

71
Q

In flow cytometric analysis, low angle or forward scatter of a laser light beam provides information that pertain to a cell’s

A

volume

72
Q

For safe operation of a centrifuge

A

ensure proper balance is maintained

73
Q

Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?

A

opsonization

74
Q

Which of the following specimen requests is acceptable

A

urine for acid-fast bacilli culture

75
Q

In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is

A

increased/elevated

76
Q

A mass spectrometer detects which property of ionized molecules

A

mass to charge ration

77
Q

Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?

A

ABO

78
Q

urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of the kidney to

A

concentrate the urine

79
Q

When using the turbidity (solubility) method for detecting the presence of hemoglobin S, an incorrect
interpretation may be made when there is a(n)

A

increase in total serum protein

80
Q

When cleaning up a small (5 mL) blood spill on the counter-top, the first step after donning appropriate
personal protective equipment is to:

A

absorb the spill with disposable absorbent material

81
Q

A serum sample was assayed for bilirubin at 10 AM, and the result was 12 mg/dL (205.6 µmol/L). The
same sample was retested at 3 PM. The result now is 8 mg/dL (136.0 µmol/L). The most likely
explanation for this discrepancy is

A

the sample was exposed to light

82
Q

After receiving a 24-hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technician must first

A

measure the total volume

83
Q

which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells

A

are agglutinated by most anti-sera

84
Q

The purpose of a low-dose irradiation of blood components is to

A

prevent GVHD

85
Q

the genus of virus associated with anogenital wart, cervical dysplasia and neoplasia is

A

papillomavirus

86
Q

An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic state?

A

respiratory acidosis

87
Q

An automated CK assay gives a reading that is above the limits of linearity. A dilution of the serum
sample is made by adding 1 mL of serum to 9 mL of water. The instrument now reads 350 U/L. the
correct report on the undiluted serum should be

A

3500 u/L

88
Q

Precautions for health care workers dealing with patients or patient specimens include

A

prompt cleaning of blood spills with a disinfectant solution such as sodium hypochlorite

89
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause
of tetany?

A

magnesium

90
Q

Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the

A

AST

91
Q

The appearance of normal CSF is

A

clear and colorless

92
Q

A blood gas sample was sent to the lab on ice, and a bubble was present in the syringe. The blood has
been exposed to room air for at least 30 minutes. The following change in blood gases will occur

A

PO2 increased/HCO3 decreased

93
Q

A technologist spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid on his/her clothing and skin, affecting a large
portion of the body. After removing involved clothing, the next first aid treatment step would be to

A

use emergency body shower and flush with water

94
Q

If present, a characteristic that is helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of
Pseudomonas family is

A

growth at 42 degrees

95
Q

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will most likely have

A

high SG with pale colored urine

96
Q

a blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?

A

O

97
Q

Darkfield microscopy is can be used to visualize?

A

T. pallidum

98
Q

an organism from a peritoneal abscess is isolated on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar and grows
black colonies on BBE agar. It is nonpigmented, catalase positive and indole negative. The genus of this organism is

A

Bacteroides

99
Q

A 25 year old woman is seen by a physician because of Raynaud’s phenomenon, myalgias, arthralgias,
and difficulty in swallowing. There is no evidence of renal disease. An ANA titer is 1:5120 with a speckled
pattern with mitotic. Which of the following is also likely to be found in this patient?

A

high level RNP (ribonucleoprotein) antibody

100
Q

The direction in which albumin migrates (ie. toward anode or cathode) during electrophoretic
separation os serum proteins, at pH 8.6, is determined by

A

the ionization of the acrboxyl groups, yielding a net negative charge

101
Q

A urine culture had the following culture results:
-sheep blood: swarming
-CNA: no growth
-Mac: 1. >100,000 CFU/mL NLF
2. >100,000 CFU/mL NLF with red pigment
The isolates from Mac had the following biochemical reactions:
TEST ISO 1 ISO2
TSI alk/acid alk/acid
urea pos neg
TDA pos neg
H2S pos neg

A

P. mirabilis and S. marcescens

102
Q

The tau isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate deficient protein found only in

A

CSF

103
Q

Flocculation tests for syphilis use antigen composed of

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

104
Q

The Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn is based on the
amniotic fluid

A

change in optical density measured at 450 nm

105
Q

A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in

A

patients who are receiving carbohydrate hyperalimentation

106
Q

In a relationship testing case, the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be
demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this known as?

A

direct

107
Q

Routine screening of urine samples for glycosuria is performed primarily to detect

A

glucose

108
Q

DNA-based testing for the presence of MRSA uses PCR with primers specific for which gene?

A

mec-A

109
Q

The following data were calculated on a series of 30 determinations of serum uric acid control:
mean=5.8 mg/dL, 1 standard deviation=0.15 mg/dL. If the confidence limits are set at +or-2 SD, which of
the following represents the allowable limits for the control?

A

5.50-6.10 mg/dL

110
Q

A fluid sample waas collected by throcentesis. A serum sample was collected immediately afterward.
The LD fluid to serum ratio was 0.9. there were 5,000 WBC/uL, with 75% PMNs Which of the following
describes this fluid.

A

Plural effusion exudate

111
Q

What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/uL and the hemoglobin is 5 g/dL?

A

83

112
Q

which of the following mediators are released during t-cell activation

A

cytokines

113
Q

CSF for glucose assay should be analyzed

A

analyzed

114
Q

The automated platelet count on an EDTA specimen is 58 x 103/pL. The platelet estimate on the blood
smear appears normal, but it was noted that the platelets were surrounding the neutrophils. The next
step should be to

A

recollect specimen using different anticoagulant

115
Q

The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of

A

peptide bonds

116
Q

which of the following genera include anaerobic gram-negative non-sporulating bacilli?

A

Bacteroides

117
Q

An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is:

A

cycloheximide

118
Q

Higher levels of employees motivation occur when the supervisor

A

collaborates to set goals to be accomplished

119
Q

Which stain is used to used to measure sperm viability?

A

eosin nigrosin

120
Q

The most important use of a nontreponemal antibody (NTA) test alone is in

A

evaluation of the success of therapy

121
Q

A nonchromogen that grows best at 42 degree C and is highly resistant to antibiotics is

A

Mycobacterium xenopi

122
Q

Microscope analysis of a urine specimen yields a moderate amount of red blood cells in spite of a
negative result for occult blood using a reagent strip. The technologist should determine if this patient
has taken

A

vitamin c

123
Q

Nephelometers measure light

A

at a scattered right angle to the light path

124
Q

A first morning sputum is received for acid-fast culture. The specimen is centrifuged and the sediment is inoculated on Two Lowenstein-Jensen slants, which are incubated at 35C with 5-10% CO2. After 1 week, the slants show abundant growth over the entire surface. Strains reveal gram-negative bacilli. To avoid this problem..

A

decontaminate the specimen with sodium hydroxide

125
Q

Polarized light can often be used to differentiate between

A

fibers and mucous clumps

126
Q

Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate
dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1?

A

pernicious anemia

ascp (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions