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Boards Part III > BoardVitals III > Flashcards

BoardVitals III Flashcards

1
Q

hemolytic anemia
x linked
african or mediterranean descent

A

G6PD deficiency

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2
Q

Shoe anatomy: Which aspect is the anterior portion of the upper that covers the toes & forefoot?

A

Vamp

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3
Q

Shoe anatomy: posterior aspect of the upper

A

quarter

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4
Q

Shoe anatomy: posterior heel cover

A

counter

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5
Q

Shoe anatomy: part of the outsole that gives height

A

heel

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6
Q

Shoe anatomy: rim where foot inserts

A

collar

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7
Q

Shoe anatomy: inside bottom lining

A

insole

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8
Q

Shoe anatomy: outside bottom lining

A

outsole

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9
Q

Shoe anatomy: front upper; covers toes only

A

toebox

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10
Q

Shoe anatomy: what covers the top of the foot

A

upper

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11
Q

Shoe anatomy: for shoelaces

A

eyelet

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12
Q

Shoe anatomy: protects top of foot from laces

A

tongue

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13
Q

Shoe anatomy: inside of upper

A

lining

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14
Q

Shoe anatomy: component of outersole; starts anterior to heel and ends at ball of shoe

A

shank

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15
Q

When is pre op EKG necessary?

A

For intermediate and above risk procedures (low risk are considered ambulatory or superficial procedures) and patient has at least one risk factor:
1. stroke
2. CHF
3. insulin dependent diabetes
4. heart disease
5. kidney disease

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16
Q

What is true IM angle?

A

true IM angle = IMA + MAA - 15

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17
Q

Lepird is an osseous procedure to treat?

A

metadductus

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18
Q

Proximal procedure to treat bunions. Lateral closing base wedge. Long osseous cut placement allows for easy/better transverse screw fixation.

A

Juvara

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19
Q

most common periodic paralysis type
clinical symptoms from mild to crazy
triggered by anything
strictly muscle dysfunction

A

hypokalemic periodic paralysis

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20
Q

Muscarinic antagonist of bronchoconstriction. Can be used for asthma or COPD

A

ipratropium

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21
Q

beta-agonist that decreases smooth muscle tone. Good for acute asthma attacks

A

albuterol

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22
Q

ivory phalanx associated with

A

psoriatic arthritis

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23
Q

Name some oral MRSAs

A

clindamycin
bactrim
tetracyclines

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24
Q

parasitic infection
warm tropics
self limiting but use topical thiabenzole

A

cutaneous larva migrans

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25
Q

Headaches, blurry vision, pruritus. Increased red blood cell mass = increased plasma volume. Increased hemoglobin. Decreased EPO. Normal O2.

A

polycythemia vera, a form of chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm

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26
Q

Gout medicine: when to give allopurinol vs probenecid?

A

Over achieving, under paid.
Over producers give allopurinol. Under excretors give probenecid.

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27
Q

Medicines that lower urate by increasing renal excretion

A

probenecid or pegloticase

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28
Q

Medicines that lower urate by decreasing urate synthesis (AKA?)

A

Allopurinol or Febuxostat. Xanthine oxidase inhibitors.

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29
Q

Deep posterior calf compartment muscles from superficial to deep:

A

FHL>FDL>popliteus> tib post

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30
Q

Dietary supplements that affect coagulation and so should be stopped 1 week pre op

A

ginseng
ginkgo biloba
ginger
Vitamin E
garlic & fish oil

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31
Q

Gauntlet AFO does what?

A

locks up motion in the ankle, subtalar, and midtarsal joints

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32
Q

Autosomal recessive. Deafness, syncope, or sudden cardiac arrest. Torsades de pointes on EKG.

A

Jervell and Lange Nielsen syndrome

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33
Q

Autosomal recessive. Deafness, syncope, or sudden cardiac arrest. Torsades de pointes on EKG.

A

Jervell and Lange Nielsen syndrome

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34
Q

IV anesthetic that is good to use in emergencies bc it’s generally safe cardiovascularly. It uniquely decreases intracranial pressure. Different structurally. Inhibits enzymes in cortisol and aldosterone synthesis so long term use = adrenal suppression.

A

Etomidate

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35
Q

Most cardio protective of all inhaled anesthetics?

A

isoflurane

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36
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy. Proximal skeletal muscle weakness with skin manifestations. Facial erythema (eyelids). Gottron’s papules/sign. ESR normal.

A

Dermatomyositis

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37
Q

Gottron’s papules/sign

A

rash on extensor skin such as knees

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38
Q

Herald patch associated with which condition?

A

pityriasis rosea

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39
Q

Treponema pallidum associated with which infection?

A

syphilis

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40
Q

Inverse Square Law

A

refers to distance being inversely proportional to density. The larger the distance, the less photons will hit the film, the less dense.

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41
Q

KVP 15% Rule

A

Peak Kilovoltage controls the quality of the x-ray beam.

Decrease KVP by 15% = density/2

Increase KVP by 15% = density x 2

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42
Q

Law of Reciprocity

A

Exposure time and mA.

Directly proportional.

Increase time increases chance of photons hitting films increases density.

mA is the quantity of photons. Increase quantity of photons, increases it hitting film, increases density.

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43
Q

IV anesthetic. Thiopental or methohexital are examples. Despresses reticular activating system (CNS). Highly lipid soluble so eliminates via redistribution.

A

barbiturates

44
Q

Wait at least ___ after stroke to have surgery

A

6 months

45
Q

VTE or PE within the past ___, avoid surgery

A

1 month

46
Q

Crutches instructions

A

Elbows flexed 20-30 degrees.
Distance between crutch to armpit and crutch to foot = 6 inches. Hand grip should be at ulnar styloid process or greater trochanter.

47
Q

Longitudinal axis of foot

A

Minimum 4-6 degrees of motion in gait needed.

Pronated in contact.

Supinated in midstance and propulsion.

48
Q

Horizontal ridges or dents in fingernails implying nutritional deficiency

A

beau’s lines

49
Q

negative birefringent crystals

A

gout

50
Q

positive birefringent rhomboid crystals

A

pseudo gout aka CPPD (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition)

51
Q

osborne J waves aka camel humps associated with

A

hypothermia

52
Q

proportion of people who have the disease

A

prevalence

53
Q

Procedure to fix underlapping 5th toe.

A

Thompson. Z incision, remove proximal phalanx, reef capsule to fill space, and close.

54
Q

Procedure to fix cocked up 5th toe.

A

Ruiz-More. Elliptical incision, resect proximal phalanx, suture to plantarflex toe.

55
Q

Neurological disease that causes peripheral neuropathy due to cyst formation in spinal cord

A

syringomyelia

56
Q

During disasters, providers can share info as necessary and without consent for what purpose and to who?

A

Can share info necessary without consent to locate family. Can share with American red cross, press, etc. Can seek payment too.

57
Q

Samilson osteotomy

A

Joint sparing calc osteotomy. Lateral incision. Through & through cut, moving posterior piece dorsally. This will decrease arch and calc inclination angle.

58
Q

Dwyer calc osteotomy

A

Lateral calc osteotomy with medial hinge intact. Fixes rigid calc varus, determined by Coleman block test.

59
Q

Exposure

A

Anything that can affect outcome.

60
Q

Four stages of wound healing in order

A
  1. hemostasis (platelets)
  2. inflammation (blood)
  3. proliferative (collagen)
  4. maturation/remodeling (new collagen replacing old collagen)
61
Q

Medication for Reiter’s syndrome

A

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine if they have HIV too

62
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth drop foot, best tendon to transfer is

A

tibialis posterior

63
Q

acute inflammatory neuropathy, consider this treatment

A

IV immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis

64
Q

most common adverse events associated with IV Vitamin K

A

dyspnea and chest tightness

65
Q

Prevalence

A

proportion of people who have the disease

66
Q

Distraction histogenesis 4 stages

A
  1. initiation- osteotomy and place ex-fix
  2. latency. wait 5-7 days
  3. distraction
  4. consolidation
67
Q

prolongation of QT interval, T wave is not affected

A

hypocalcemia

68
Q

What plays a role in restricting dorsiflexion of the ankle

A

-posterior talofibular ligament
-posterior component of deltoid ligament
-tricep surae muscle group

69
Q

multiple hereditary osteochodromatosis

A

Multiple benign tumors covered by cartilage; osteochondromas. Usually at growing end of metaphysis and stops growing with closure of the epiphyseal plates.

70
Q

Ollier’s disease

A

Benign growths of cartilages ( enchondromas), usually in hands and feet.

71
Q

Metachondromatosis

A

Both enchondromas and osteochondromas.

72
Q

Trevor disease

A

Asymmetric overgrowth of cartilage in epiphyses.

73
Q

acroosteolysis

A

bone resorption of distal phalanges

74
Q

Describe the 3 causes of hammertoes

A

Flexor stabilization: pronated foot. Weak tip post. Adductovarus.
Flexor substitution: supinated foot. Weak triceps-surae.
Flexors > interossei. Happens in late stance.

Extensor substitution: cavus foot. EDL > lumbricals. Swing phase.

75
Q

Complete decongestive physiotherapy is contraindicated in

A

CHF
DVT
infection

Relative contraindicated for diabetes and cancer

76
Q

Recommendations for VTE prophylaxis when neuraxial anesthesia is in play?

A

Wait 10-12 hours after LMWH before inserting.
Wait 10-12 hours after LMWH before removing.
Wait 2 hours after removing to restart LMWH.

77
Q

fragment set outer diameters

A

Mini: 1.5, 2.0, 2.7 mm
Small: 3.5 and 4.0 mm
Large: 4.5 and 6.5 mm

78
Q

Complete occlusion of coronary artery by thrombus will look like what on EKG?

A

ST segment elevation

79
Q

Minimum pressure for compressive garments?

A

40 mmHG

80
Q

Dactylitis associated with which arthritis?

A

psoriatic

81
Q

order of effect using local anesthetic/ what sensation is lost first?

A

pain > temperature > touch > proprioception > muscle tone

82
Q

Acute stasis dermatitis

A

Common type of eczema

83
Q

MAC 1.8
sweet smell (good for asthma)
expensive

A

sevoflurane

84
Q

MAC 0.75
bad for heart and liver

A

halothane

85
Q

MAC 1.7
can cause seizures and toxic to kidney

A

Enflurane

86
Q

MAC 1.2
pungent but most cardioprotective

A

isoflurane

87
Q

MAC 6.0
pungent and causes airway irritation
special vape needed, liquid at room temp
lowest liver metabolism

A

desflurane

88
Q

Allergies are ig what mediated?

A

igE

89
Q

Most common deformity in cerebral palsy.
Second?

A

equinus
Calc

90
Q

Murphy procedure

A

treats spastic equinus in CP. Transfers Achilles to dorsum of calc.

91
Q

At what age do these coalitions ossify?
talonavicular
calcaneonavicular
talocalcaneal

A

TN 3-5
CN 8-12
TC 12-16

92
Q

subcutaneous nodules seen in this arthritis

A

rheumatoid

93
Q

psoriatic arthritis has nail ___

A

pitting

94
Q

___ of subtalar joint & ___ rotation of femur UNLOCKS knee

A

pronation
lateral

95
Q

capsulorrhaphy means…
opposite is…

A

to tighten capsule
capsulectomy

96
Q

Jones fracture is at the ____ junction and is stewart type ___

A

metaphyseal diaphyseal
1

97
Q

dissociative anesthetic
causes amnesia
commonly used for kids

A

ketamine

98
Q

increase mAs by what for
dry plaster
wet plaster
dry fiberglass
wet fiberglass

A

dry plaster 2
wet plaster 3
dry fiberglass 40%
wet fiberglass 60%

99
Q

slow progressing muscle dystrophy that presents in boys who complain of cramping after physical activity

A

becker muscular dystrophy

100
Q

Becker and Duchenne are both x linked pseudohypertrophy of calves, but what are differences?

A

Becker is slow, duchenne is fast (diagnose before 10 yo). Becker has cramping complaints.

101
Q

ABCDE subungual melanoma

A

age 50-70
black brown > 3 mm
change in nail
digit thumb/hallux
extend to proximal nail fold

102
Q

which is more superficial and what is clinical difference? erysipelas vs cellulitis

A

erysipelas is more superficial
cellulitis is erythema AND edema, with larger borders

103
Q

During contact phase, what is the position & motion of the oblique midtarsal joint axis? And the longitudinal?

A

Oblique is pronated and pronation
Longitudinal is supinated and supination

104
Q

Pretibial muscles during contact do what

A
  1. provide unstable midtarsal joint
  2. shock absorption
  3. decelerate pronation
  4. decelerate plantarflexion
105
Q

nonunion types
avascular and hypertrophic

A

avascular (intermediate fragment)
1. torsion - stuck to one side
2. comminuted - completely necrotic
3. defect - completely gone
4. atrophic - gone and has scar tissue now

hypertrophic
1. elephant foot - lots of callus
2. horse hoof - some callus
3. oligotrophic - like atrophic (twisted) but is vascular

106
Q

patch
plaque
papule
macule

A

Patch > 1 cm flat
Plaque > 1 cm elevated
Papule < 1 cm elevated
Macule < 1 am flat

Boards Part III (2 decks)

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