BoardVitals Flashcards

1
Q

breast cancer screening mammograms are associated with a ____% risk of “call back” (i.e., need for further evaluation)

A

10%

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2
Q

how do you screen for diabetes at the 6 week postpartum visit for patient with GDM A2?

A

75-g 2-hr OGTT

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3
Q

average lifetime risk of breast cancer in the US

A

12%

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4
Q

% of ectopic pregnancies located in the fallopian tube

A

97%

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5
Q

pt who has IUD in place gets positive pregnancy test. what is the % risk that this pregnancy is ectopic?

A

50%

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6
Q

which contraceptive methods can be used in a pt with h/o ovarian cancer

A

all of them! even estrogen-containing methods are category 1 (no restriction) in folks with a h/o ovarian cancer. avoid estrogen-containing contraceptives only for folks in active treatment or with active disease given baseline increased risk for thrombosis

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7
Q

how long does it take for vasectomy to become effective as birth control

A

3 months

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8
Q

% of pregnancies in the US that are unplannde

A

50%

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9
Q

Most common complication associated with uterine artery embolization procedure for treatment of uterine fibroids

A

post-embolization syndrome, which includes fever, nausea/vomiting, and pain occurring in the first 72 hours post-surgery and then begins to subside. most common after large fibroid treatment.

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10
Q

first line treatment for listeria during pregnancy

A

ampicillin

if allergic to penicillins, can consider vancomycin

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11
Q

Counseling points on gadolinium contrast dye used for MRIs in pregnancy or breastfeeding

A

pregnancy – theoretical concerns of fetal damage, should only be used when clinical benefit is strongly anticipated to outweigh any risks

breastfeeding - only crosses into breast milk in small amounts, it is not necessary to interrupt breastfeeding.

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12
Q

What type of medication is absolutely contraindicated for induction or augmentation of labor in a patient with prior cesarean delivery?

A

prostaglandins, including misoprostol

this is due to the increased risk of uterine rupture in folks with a uterine scar

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13
Q

At a beta HCG level of _______, a pelvic ultrasound should be able to diagnose an intrauterine pregnancy

A

1,500 - 2,000

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14
Q

What should always be obtained before beginning methotrexate therapy for medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

US and hematocrit levels, to rule out any bleeding in the peritoneum

CMP to evaluate liver and kidney function

Beta HCG

Give rhogam if Rh -

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15
Q

Methotrexate is no longer a good option for management of ectopic pregnancy once the beta HCG is above _______, adnexal mass is larger than ______, and has this characteristic _________

A

beta HCG >5,000
mass >3.5cm
embryonic cardiac motion

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16
Q

Patients with ______ gonorrhea should return for test of cure with either culture or NAAT

A

pharyngeal gonorrhea

otherwise, uncomplicated gonorrhea (even in pregnancy) does not require test of cure and most patients who test positive after treatment have been re-infected, not inadequately cured

17
Q

Most common cause of low milk supply in folks attempting to breastfeed

A

inadequate breast stimulation

18
Q

Approximately 40% of young adults with PKU will develop this comorbidity

A

osteopenia

19
Q

Minimum definition of tachysytole

A

5 uterine contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes with or without decelerations

20
Q

What lab value can be used to distinguish new primary vs. chronic infection with CMV when the diagnosis is unclear?

A

IgG avidity

  • low IgG avidity means immature antibodies and newer infection (past 2-4 months)
  • high IgG avidity means mature antibodies and an older infection

IgM is produced quickly after a new CMV infection but is unreliable for diagnosis

21
Q

During which trimester(s) can pregnant patients get the IM flu vaccine?

22
Q

Which pregnant patients should receive prophylactic antiviral therapy for known influenza exposure? And what would be used?

A

All! regardless of vaccination status or symptoms, begin oseltamivir asap

23
Q

a CHADS2 score is used to predict the risk of _______ in patients with ________

A

risk of stroke

in patients with atrial fibrillation

24
Q

Most common genetic risk factor for blood clot/DVT/VTE

A

Factor V Leiden

25
Treatment of choice for varicella pneumonia during pregnancy
IV acyclovir
26
Treatment of choice for chicken pox /varicella rash during pregnancy
oral acyclovir
27
Treatment of choice for pregnant patient with known exposure to chickenpox during pregnancy but no symptoms
varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
28
Treatment of choice for pregnant patients with toxoplasmosis
spiramycin