BoardVitals Flashcards

1
Q

breast cancer screening mammograms are associated with a ____% risk of “call back” (i.e., need for further evaluation)

A

10%

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2
Q

how do you screen for diabetes at the 6 week postpartum visit for patient with GDM A2?

A

75-g 2-hr OGTT

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3
Q

average lifetime risk of breast cancer in the US

A

12%

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4
Q

% of ectopic pregnancies located in the fallopian tube

A

97%

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5
Q

pt who has IUD in place gets positive pregnancy test. what is the % risk that this pregnancy is ectopic?

A

50%

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6
Q

which contraceptive methods can be used in a pt with h/o ovarian cancer

A

all of them! even estrogen-containing methods are category 1 (no restriction) in folks with a h/o ovarian cancer. avoid estrogen-containing contraceptives only for folks in active treatment or with active disease given baseline increased risk for thrombosis

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7
Q

how long does it take for vasectomy to become effective as birth control

A

3 months

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8
Q

% of pregnancies in the US that are unplannde

A

50%

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9
Q

Most common complication associated with uterine artery embolization procedure for treatment of uterine fibroids

A

post-embolization syndrome, which includes fever, nausea/vomiting, and pain occurring in the first 72 hours post-surgery and then begins to subside. most common after large fibroid treatment.

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10
Q

first line treatment for listeria during pregnancy

A

ampicillin

if allergic to penicillins, can consider vancomycin

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11
Q

Counseling points on gadolinium contrast dye used for MRIs in pregnancy or breastfeeding

A

pregnancy – theoretical concerns of fetal damage, should only be used when clinical benefit is strongly anticipated to outweigh any risks

breastfeeding - only crosses into breast milk in small amounts, it is not necessary to interrupt breastfeeding.

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12
Q

What type of medication is absolutely contraindicated for induction or augmentation of labor in a patient with prior cesarean delivery?

A

prostaglandins, including misoprostol

this is due to the increased risk of uterine rupture in folks with a uterine scar

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13
Q

At a beta HCG level of _______, a pelvic ultrasound should be able to diagnose an intrauterine pregnancy

A

1,500 - 2,000

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14
Q

What should always be obtained before beginning methotrexate therapy for medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

US and hematocrit levels, to rule out any bleeding in the peritoneum

CMP to evaluate liver and kidney function

Beta HCG

Give rhogam if Rh -

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15
Q

Methotrexate is no longer a good option for management of ectopic pregnancy once the beta HCG is above _______, adnexal mass is larger than ______, and has this characteristic _________

A

beta HCG >5,000
mass >3.5cm
embryonic cardiac motion

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16
Q

Patients with ______ gonorrhea should return for test of cure with either culture or NAAT

A

pharyngeal gonorrhea

otherwise, uncomplicated gonorrhea (even in pregnancy) does not require test of cure and most patients who test positive after treatment have been re-infected, not inadequately cured

17
Q

Most common cause of low milk supply in folks attempting to breastfeed

A

inadequate breast stimulation

18
Q

Approximately 40% of young adults with PKU will develop this comorbidity

A

osteopenia

19
Q

Minimum definition of tachysytole

A

5 uterine contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes with or without decelerations

20
Q

What lab value can be used to distinguish new primary vs. chronic infection with CMV when the diagnosis is unclear?

A

IgG avidity

  • low IgG avidity means immature antibodies and newer infection (past 2-4 months)
  • high IgG avidity means mature antibodies and an older infection

IgM is produced quickly after a new CMV infection but is unreliable for diagnosis

21
Q

During which trimester(s) can pregnant patients get the IM flu vaccine?

A

Any!

22
Q

Which pregnant patients should receive prophylactic antiviral therapy for known influenza exposure? And what would be used?

A

All! regardless of vaccination status or symptoms, begin oseltamivir asap

23
Q

a CHADS2 score is used to predict the risk of _______ in patients with ________

A

risk of stroke

in patients with atrial fibrillation

24
Q

Most common genetic risk factor for blood clot/DVT/VTE

A

Factor V Leiden

25
Q

Treatment of choice for varicella pneumonia during pregnancy

A

IV acyclovir

26
Q

Treatment of choice for chicken pox /varicella rash during pregnancy

A

oral acyclovir

27
Q

Treatment of choice for pregnant patient with known exposure to chickenpox during pregnancy but no symptoms

A

varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)

28
Q

Treatment of choice for pregnant patients with toxoplasmosis

A

spiramycin