Boards Flashcards

1
Q

DDP-4
- examples
- Side effects

A

DDP-4 Inhibitors: Saxagliptin, sitagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin cause headache URI, elevated liver enzymes

pancreatitis
angioedema?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

canagliflozin

A

SGLT-2

UTI
Candiasis
Ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Thiazolidinediones: Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, weight gain, salt retention, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amantadine use

A

Amantadine can be used for patients under 65 years of age who are only experiencing tremors. Parkinson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sitagliptin

A

DDP

DDP-4 Inhibitors: Saxagliptin, sitagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin cause headache URI, elevated liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pioglitazone

A

Thiazolidinediones: Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, weight gain, salt retention, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for

A

such as rasagiline and non-ergot dopamine agonists such as ropinirole are not as effective as carbidopa/levodopa for motor symptoms, but they do not cause the dyskinesias and motor fluctuations seen with levodopa. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are considered first-line therapy for patients under age 65 with mild motor symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

First line treatment of acute mountain sickness

A

dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tx hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sulfonylureas

A

Glipizide, Glimepride, glyburide

Weight Gain
Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Initial tx sarcoidosis

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Liraglutide

A

GLP-4

N/V Diarrhea
Risk pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ciprofloxacin coverage

A

Gram negative Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Immune deficiency that can present later in life

A

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVD)

Recurrent sinusitis and pneumonia

No response to vaccine = IgG deficiency
Recurrent infections = IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

COPD FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7 start with what medication

A

LABA (salmeterol) or LAMA (tiotropium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Yersinia type of bacteria

A

Gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Listeria type of bacteria

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ecoli type of bacteria

A

Gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Check aldosteronine/renin in

A

Primary hyperALDOSTERONISM

hypokalemia
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Blood thinner for malignancy

A

Enoxaparin (LMWH) Lovenox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood thinner for PE in pregnancy

A

Xarelto (rivaroxaban)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

V1-V4 Stemi

A

Anterior
LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medication to add to statin if not tolerated

A

Ezetimibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Elective stent placement how long on antiplatelet (2)

A

Bare metal: 1 month

Drug eluting: 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

V5-V6 Stemi

A

Lateral
Circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Myalgia difference between muscle aches, myositis and rhabdo

A

Muscle aches no change in labs

Myositis elevated CK

Rhabo elevated CK and Elevated creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When do you need high intensity statin (3)

A
  1. Individual with ASCVD (atherosclotic dis) <= 75
  2. LDL >= 190
  3. 40-75 DM w/ ASCVD risk >= 7.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HR w/ reduced EF
- percentage
- what changes

A

<40%
Ventricular stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Preserved EF level
- Type
- Function changes (2)
- Due to

A

> = 50%

Diastolic HF
Ventricles dont stretch
Thicker & more non-compliant
Hypertensive LV hypetrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lead II, III, aVF stemi

A

Inferior infarct
RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BNP secreted when

A

From ventricles due to volume expansion & pressure overload
- decrease creatinine clearance
- increase BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When to implant defibrillator

A

EF <= 35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hib vaccination restriction

A

No further catch up dose if dose administered at age 15 months or older

4th dose total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DTAP restrictions

A

Dose 5 not necessary if dose 4 given at 4 years or older

35
Q

Lateral stemi what leads

A

V5-V6

36
Q

Cardiovert vs defibrillate

A

Cardiovert: pulse but unstable

Defib: no pulse

37
Q

Group A strep criteria

A

Temp > 100.4
No cough
Swollen tender cervical lymph nodes
Tonsillar swelling/ exudates
Age 3-14

(Minus 1 if > 45)

0-1 no testing
2-3 test
4-5 treat

37
Q

Barium swallow is for

A

Dysphagia not GERD

38
Q

Antidepressant in children

A

Fluxetine
Escitalopram

39
Q

Antidepressant in pregnancy (3)

A

Citalopram
Escitalopram
Sertraline

40
Q

Inferior STEMI what leads

A

II, III, aVF

41
Q

What medication can cause hyponatremia

A

SSRI

42
Q

GOLD Assessment

A
43
Q

Schizophreniform

A

Like scizophrenia but less than 6 months (more than 2 months)

44
Q

Delusions/ hallucinations in absence of mood disorder

A

Schizoaffective disorder

45
Q

Anterior Stemi what leads

A

V1-V4

46
Q

Acute stress disorder vs PTSD

A

Acute stress disorder is 3 days to 1 month

PTSD > 1 month

47
Q

Branched septate hyphae

A

Aspergillosis

48
Q

Non septate hyphae wide angle branching

A

Mucor

49
Q

Pseudohyphae and budding yeast

A

Candida

50
Q

Bacterial meningitis

A

Increase pressure
> 1000 WBC
Protein > 200 (normal 15-45)
Low glucose (< 40)

51
Q

Viral meningitis

A

Normal pressure
WBC elevated but < 300
Protein elevated but < 200
NORMAL glucose

52
Q

P value

A

is the probability the null hypothesis is true

53
Q

Nerve for thumb and pointer finger

A

Median nerve

54
Q

What can cause a false negative on a serolgoic test for celiac disease

A

IgA deficiecy

55
Q

Risk of GI bleedign with

A

SSRI

56
Q

tamoxifen increases risk for

A

endometrial cancer

57
Q

Medication for pregnant alcoholic

A

Naltrexone

Dont use acamprosate, disulfiram (increased level of acetaldehyde), lorazepam (alcohol withdrawal), topiramate (can cause cleft lip/palate)

58
Q

UTi in pregnancy tx

A

Nitrofurantoin

Cephalexin?

59
Q

Asymptomatic bacturia tx

A

Cephalexin

60
Q

Tx depression in pregnancy first line

A

Sertraline

61
Q

Potato salad bacteria

A

S. Aureus

62
Q

TTP vs HUS

A

TTP:
FEVER, neurologic signs, thrombocytopenia, anemia, renal dysfunction

HUS:
thrombocytopenia, kidney disease, BLOODY DIARRHEA, increased creatinine (ecoli)

63
Q

Saddle nose, asthma allergies

A

Granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis

64
Q

Muscle weakness in thighs that improved with repeative movements

A

Lambert eaton

65
Q

Tx Von willebrand

A

Desmopressin

66
Q

Angioedema deficiency

A

C1 esterase deficiency

67
Q

Decreased hearing and AKI

A

Alporrts

68
Q

Reduce Tumor lysis syndrome

A

Allopurinol

69
Q

Itching after shower
-disease
- mutation
- tx

A

Polycythema vera
JAK2 mutation

hydroxyurea

70
Q

Bleeding gums and petechiae

A

TTP

71
Q

Tx of sporotrichosis

A

Oral itraconazole

72
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL

73
Q

HIV and CML

A

CD4 < 100

74
Q

Alcoholic refeeding leads to

A

Hypophosphatemia secondary to decreased vitamin D

75
Q

Tx Raynaud

A

CCB

Nifedipine
Amlodipine
Diltiazem

76
Q

Acute pericarditis on EKG

A

Diffuse ST elevations with PR depression

77
Q

Finasteride vs doxazosin

A

Finasteride
- 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
- For prostate problems PSA > 1.5

Doxazosin/ Tamulosoin
- alpha 1 blocker
- for urinary problems

78
Q

Diabetes medication with risk of bladder cancer

A

Pioglitazone

79
Q

Help get a kidney stone out medication

A

Tamsulosin

80
Q

Anal fissue medication

A

Topical nifedipine

81
Q

Thyroid nodule FNA

A

If nodule >= 1 cm

82
Q
A