Board Vitals Flashcards
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the ___ bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal sutre and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal sutre and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least ___cm lateral to the __ suture and __cm posterior to the __ suture.
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal suture and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
___weeks is the optimal time to dermabrade scars
6-8 weeks
there needs to be time for soft tissue to heal and manifest uneveness
The aesthetic and mechanical properties of _ flaps make them useful for reconstruction of small defects in the lower cheek, mid-cheek, and upper lip.
Transposition flaps.
best when standard fusiform closure can’t be done
The _ flap is a full-thickness local flap w/random blood supply, that is an example of a transposition flap.
Rhomboid flap
In cleft lip nasal deformities: the collumella, caudal septum and nasal tip deviate to the___ side.
In cleft lip nasal deformities: the collumella, caudal septum and nasal tip deviate to the non-cleft side.
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the posterior septum deviates to the ___ side.
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the posterior septum deviates to th cleft side
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the alar base is displaced ___
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the alar base is displaced lateral, inferior and posterior
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. ___ medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. ___ lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. ___ dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. ___ displaced alar base
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
Botox acts at what level of the nerve terminal at the neuromuscular junction?
pre-synaptic
For the best cosmetic result w/ear prosthesis, the __ should remain in place if possible.
Tragus
A 60/45/30degree Z-plasty will elongate the original scar by __%, __%, __%, respectively.
75%, 50%, 25%, respectively
A __/__/__degree Z-plasty will elongate the original scar by 75%, 50%, 25%, respectively.
60/45/30 degrees, respectively
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. ___
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. ___
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. ___
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. ___
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. ___
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
6. _____
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
6. BMI >30
Cleft palate patients have an increased risk of what ear disease?
chronic otitis media
A Reverse Townes view is most suitable to assess which location of a mandible fracture?
Condyle
The blood supply to the trapezius is provided by which 3 arterial branches?
- Transverse cervical a.
- Dorsal scapular a.
- Occipital a. (and intercostal perforators)
(Plasmatic) Imbibition is the process of ___ from the underlying recipient bed.
(Plasmatic) Imbibition is the process of deriving nutrients from the underlying recipient bed.
(Plasmatic) Imbibition occurs over the first ___ hours
(Plasmatic) Imbibition occurs over the first 24-48hrs
Inosculation occurs around __hrs.
48hrs
Inosculation is the process of ___.
Inosculation is the process of small vessels in the graft growing to meet small vessels of the recipient site.
Angiogenesis occurs over days ____.
4-7 days post-op
Angiogenesis is the process where ___ are formed from the recipient site to the skin graft.
Angiogenesis is the process where new and permanent blood vessels are formed from the recipient site to the skin graft.
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. ___
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. ___
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. ___
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. ___
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. ___
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. ___
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The physical exam for ptosis and levator function begins with the ___ measurement.
marginal reflex distance (MRD1)
MRD-1 measures the distance from the ___ to the ___, and normally is 4-5 mm.
MRD-1 measures the distance from the upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is 4-5 mm.
MRD-1 measures the distance from the upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is ___mm.
MRD-1 measures the distance from the upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is** 4-5 mm**.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the ___ to the ___, and normally is 5-5.5 mm.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the lower lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is 5-5.5 mm.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the lower lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is ___mm.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the lower lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is 5-5.5 mm.
Inadvertent injury to the ___ during rhytidectomy can present as an aseptic fluid collection in the surgical field, w/a high amylase level.
Inadvertent injury to the parotid gland during rhytidectomy can present as an aseptic fluid collection in the surgical field, w/a high amylase level.
In mechanical creep, there is realignment of __, but no change in microanatomy or SA.
In mechanical creep, there is realignment of collagen fibers
Biological creep is a net increase in __, secondary to permanent changes in the tissue microanatomy an increase in mitotic activity.
occurs w/long-term tissue expander use
Biological creep is a net increase in SA, secondary to permanent changes in the tissue microanatomy and increase in mitotic activity.
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of __%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of __%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of %, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, __%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
The external nasal valve is composed of which 3 structures?
Nasal sill, lower lateral cartilage, and columella
__% of ppl have an incomplete superficial palmar arch and poor communication btwn. the deep and superficial arches, which prevents the safe harvest of the radial artery w/o causing hand ischemia.
12%
Botox is contraindicated in patients w/__allergy or __ allergy
Botox is contraindicated in patients w/albumin allergy or cow’s milk protein allergy.
The major disadvantage to the complete transfixion incision is disruption of the ___ support structure.
The major disadvantage to the complete transfixion incision is disruption of the nasal tip support structure.
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. ___
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. ___
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower-lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. ___
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia (downward displacement of the outer corners of the eye)
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. ___
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ___
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion (eyelid sags/turns outward)
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. ___
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora (excess tears/watery eyes)
What view would one best appreciate the Ogee line?
Three-quarter (3/4) view
Hyperactivity of the depressor septi muscle may cause ___.
Upper lip shortening w/smiling
In the context of repairing an orbital floor fracture, which incision will most likely result in ectropion?
Subciliary incision
The internal nasal valve is composed of which 3 components?
lateral cartilage, nasal septum, and head of inferior turbinate
___ deformity is the underprojection of the nasal tip w/respect to the projection of the dorsum.
Pollybeak deformity
___ deformity occurs following excessive hump removal, resulting in inadequate middle vault support.
Inverted-V-deformity
The ___a. is most at risk for intravascular injection during melolabial fold injection w/fillers
Facial artery
The melolabial fold is the same as the __ fold
nasolabial fold
The ___ artery starts superior to the superiormost aspect of the melolabial (nasolabial) fold, and thus would be unlikely to be injected directly when injecting.
Angular artery
The vascular supply of the bilobed flap is ___.
Subdermal plexus.
random flaps rely on the subdermal plexus for their blood supply
The ___ marks the midline superior margin of the forehead at the hairline.
Trichion
The ___ is the depression at the root of the nose corresponding to the nasofrontal suture.
Nasion.
it is just above the sellion
really the fusion of frontal and nasal bones
The ___ is the root of the nose (soft tissue over nasion) including the nasion and sellion.
Radix
The __ is the deepest point of the nasofrontal angle.
Sellion
The __ is the anterior-most border of the chin.
Pogonion
The ___ is the inferior most border of the chin.
Menton
___ grafts are used to correct alar deformities, such as retraction/notching.
Alar rim grafts.
___ grafts provide structural support to the lateral nasal wall and prevent collapse during inspiration.
Alar batten grafts.
A __ procedure is contraindicated in patients with a cleft palate, because the area can help close the velum.
Adenoidectomy
If vascular embolization is suspected following filler injection to nasolabial fold, daily ___ is recommended.
injection w/LMWH
Vascular compromise following injection of hyaluronic acid or calcium hydroxyl apatite (filler) should be treated by stopping the injection, gentle massages and warm compresses to the area, topical ___, and injection of ___.
Vascular compromise following injection of hyaluronic acid or calcium hydroxyl apatite (filler) should be treated by stopping the injection, gentle massages and warm compresses to the area, topical nitroglycerin and injection of hyaluronidase
Telephone ear deformity occurs due to overcorrection of the _____ 1/3rd of the ear during otoplasty.
Telephone ear deformity occurs due to overcorrection of the middle 1/3rd of the ear during otoplasty.
The distance btwn the midpoints of the pupils should equal the distance from the ___ to the ___.
The distance btwn the midpoints of the pupils should equal the distance from the nasion to the vermillion border of the upper lip.
In class I occlusion, the mesiobuccal cusp of the first maxillary molar sits ___ the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
In class I occlusion, the mesiobuccal cusp of the first maxillary molar sits WITHIN the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
In class II occlusion, the first maxillary molar sits ___ to the the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
In class II occlusion, the first maxillary molar sits anterior to the the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
The cumulative gain across a full expander dome must = ___ + ___
The cumulative gain across a full expander dome must = width across its empty base + width of the defect to be removed
What are the (3) limbs of the nasal “tripod”?
Conjoined medial crura + b/l lateral crura
This patient has what medical condition?
Rhinophyma
(acne rosacea is a precursor)
This patient’s medical condition (image) can be attributed to what pathologic changes?
sebaceous gland hypertrophy and hyperplasia
(Image shows rhinophyma)
The __ graft is associated w/less reabsorption after nasal recon
The split calvarial bone graft (derived from intramembranous ossification, i.e. cranium) will have less absorption than that derived from endochondral ossification
Loss of up to __ of the lower lip may be managed w/primary closure.
Loss of up to 1/3rd (30%) of the lower lip may be managed w/primary closure.
The medial/lateral limbs of the horizontal mattress sutures used in the Mustarde technique should be placed __-__ mm apart from eachother.
14-16 mm apart
In the Mustarde technique, horizontal mattress sutures should be placed __-__ mm apart.
1-2 mm apart
A septal mucosal flap is a type of ___ flap.
Hinge flap
The paramedian forehead flap and melolabial flaps are examples of ___ flaps.
Interpolated flaps (pivotal flaps)
Ptosis, (due to injection of botox w/in 1cm of the supraorbital rim) may be treated with ___ drops.
Ptosis, (due to injection of botox w/in 1cm of the supraorbital rim) may be treated with apraclonididne drops
- alpha2-adrenergic agonist, causes Muller muscles to contract quickly elevating the upper eyelid 1-3 mm
___ are the most effective mgmt for a mature trap door scar.
revision with Z-plasties
Norwood Class I represents an adolescent/juvenille hairline that rests on the ___.
upper brow crease
Norwood Class II adult hairline sits ___ width (__cm) above the upper brow crease, w/some temporal recession.
Norwood Class II adult hairline sits one finger’s width (1.5cm) above the upper brow crease, w/some temporal recession.
Norwood Class III adult hairline is the earliest stage of male hair loss and shows a ___.
Norwood Class III adult hairline sits is the earliest stage of male hair loss and shows a deepening temporal recession.
Norwood Class III Vertex represents early hair loss in the ____ area (vertex balding).
Norwood Class III Vertex represents early hair loss in the crown area (vertex balding).
Norwood Class IV shows enlargement of the vertex balding.
Norwood Class IV shows enlargement of the vertex balding.
Norwood Class V shows the bald areas in the front and crown enlarging, w/the band of hair separating the two areas _____.
Norwood Class V shows the bald areas in the front and crown enlarging, w/the band of hair separating the two areas beginning to break down.
The naso-frontal angle is measured at the (part of the nose)
Nasion
The naso-facial angle is formed by the intersection of two lines:
1. ___
2. ___
- nasion to pronasale
- nasion to pogonion
The CO2 laser is an ablative laser that is highly absorbed, w/a high ___ content w/negligible ___.
The CO2 laser is an ablative laser that is highly absorbed, w/a high water content content w/negligible scatter or reflection.
The lateral crural steal maneuver elongates the ___ at the cost of shortening the ___, leading to tip rotation.
The lateral crural steal maneuver elongates the medial crura at the cost of shortening the lateral crura, leading to tip rotation.
Type __ collagen is formed during the proliferative phase and replaced w/Type __ collagen during the maturation/remodeling phase.
Type III collagen is formed during the proliferative phase and replaced w/Type I collagen during the maturation/remodeling phase.
Type I collagen is:
Bone and skin
(also cornea, wall of blood vessels, fibrocartilage and tendon)
Type II collagen is:
cartilage (car-TWO-lige)
Type III cartilage is:
Connective tissues - most common in muscles(skin, ligaments, blood vessels, internal organs)
Type IV cartilage is:
Basement membrane in various tissues
Type V collagen is:
cornea, placenta, hair
Lesions involving oral commisure can be recon’d with ___ flap.
Estlander flap
Lesions involving 1/4-1/2 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Abbe flap
A defect involving 1/2-1/3 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Karapandzic flap
A defect involving >2/3 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Gillies fan flap, Bernard burrow flap, or Fujimori gate flap
The Millard method of unilateral cleft lip repair is a type of ___ flap.
Rotation-advancement flap
The major nasal tip support structure is the ___.
attachment of the upper lateral cartilages to the lower lateral cartilages (Scroll region)
The Paramedian forehead flap is based off of the ___ artery.
Supratrochlear pedicle
A severe caudal septal deviation is amenable to the ___ septoplasty technique.
Extra-corporeal septoplasty.
(the entire cartilaginous septum is removed and a new L-strut carved from the straight cartilaginous portions of the septum)
The tongue-in-groove technique is useful in repairing ___ septal deviations.
caudal septum sandwitched/sutured to b/l medial crura for strengthening
mild to moderate caudal septal deviations
mutated COL2A1 genes produce ___ syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
mutated COL2A1 genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
mutated COL2A1 genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.
mutated COL2A1 genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
The ideal alar:lobule ratio is 1:1 and measured on a ___ profile view.
The ideal alar:lobule ratio is 1:1 and measured on a Lateral profile view.
The ideal columella:lobule ratio is 2:1 and measured on a ___ profile view.
The ideal columella:lobule ratio is 2:1 and measured on a Base profile view.
The levator palpebrae superioris m. is suspended by which structure?
Whitnall ligament
Muller m. is an involuntary _____ located beneath the levator aponeurosis that receives sympathetic innervation.
Muller m. is an involuntary smooth muscle lid retractor located beneath the levator aponeurosis that receives sympathetic innervation.
A right open-bite deformity w/chin deviation to the left upon mouth opening, is associated with which type of fracture?
A left subcondylar fracture.
(these fractures shorten the vertical height of the ipsilateral mandible. thus, premature contact occurs on the ipsilateral side w/a resultant open-bite deformity on the contralateral side)
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the ___ and deep to the ___ and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to the orbicularis muscle and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the ___ and ___ muscles.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
The coronal forehead lift is preferred for patients with ___ and ___ of the upper face and normal-low hairline.
The coronal forehead lift is preferred for patients with generalized ptosis and rhytids (wrinkles) of upper face and normal-low hairline.
Disadvantages of the coronal forehead lift include:
1. ___ of the frontal hairline
2. decreased ___
Disadvantages of the coronal forehead lift include:
1. elevation of the frontal hairline
2. decreased scalp sensation
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should begin ___ to the brow ridge, at a vertical line passing through ___ to the ___.
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should begin inferior to the brow ridge, at a vertical line passing through medial canthus to the lateral ala.
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should cross the rim at the ___ line and peak above the rim at the level of the ___ or the junction of the middle/lateral 1/3rds of the brow.
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle/lateral 1/3rds of the brow.
Botox injection into the ___ muscle can be used to correct marionette lines.
Botox injection into the Depressor anguli oris muscle can be used to correct marionette lines.
The preseptal transconjunctival approach provides _____ but generally is more _____ compared to the postseptal transconjunctival approach
The preseptal transconjunctival approach provides better visualization but generally is more time intensive compared to the postseptal transconjunctival approach
The transconjunctival preseptal approach involves dissecting inferiorly along the ___ plane between the ___ and ____ muscle.
The transconjunctival preseptal approach involves dissecting inferiorly along the avascular plane between the orbital septum and orbicularis oculi muscle.
The transconjunctival postseptal approach goes direct to the (_____) through the conjunctiva, and lower lid retractors are placed close to the (____).
The transconjunctival postseptal approach goes direct to the orbital fat through the conjunctiva, and lower lid retractors are placed close to the conjunctival fornix.
Placement of a subperiosteal alloplastic chin implant has greater risk of _____ compared to supraperiosteal placement.
Placement of a subperiosteal alloplastic chin implant has greater risk of bone resorption compared to supraperiosteal placement.
A __:__ ratio for a fusiform excision is the optimal balance between scar length and avoiding a standing cone deformity.
3:1
Mobius syndrome prsents with b/l FN paralysis due to ___.
Mobius syndrome prsents with b/l FN paralysis due to incomplete development of CN 6 and 7.
(There is no CN 7 in the IAC, and nerve grafting is not possible due to absence of the FN)
A ___ or ___ procedure will reanimate the mouth, and is best in treatment of facial asymmetry in Mobius syndrome.
A Temporalis muscle sling or Masseter muscle transposition procedure will reanimate the mouth, and are the best treatment options for facial asymmetry in Mobius syndrome.
The complete strip and full transfixion incision/reduction of nasal septum procedures are methods to ___ nasal tip projection.
Decrease
Lateral crural steal, shield grafting, interdomal suture placement, tongue in groove and collumellar strut grafting are methods to _____ nasal tip projection.
Lateral crural steal, shield grafting, interdomal suture placement, tongue in groove and collumellar strut grafting are methods to increase nasal tip projection.
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is __-__mm in women and 6-9mm in men.
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is 8-11mm in women and 6-9mm in men.
What are the stages of hair growth (x4)?
Anagen, Catagen, Telogen and Exogen
90% of scalp hair follicles are in the __ phase of hair growth
Anagen phase
Follicles in the ___ phase of hair growth are dormant for 3-4 months
Telogen phase
Follicles in the Telogen phase of hair growth are dormant for __to__ months
Follicles in the Telogen phase of hair growth are dormant for 3 to 4 months
The Anagen growth phase lasts __ to __ years.
3 to 4 years
A unilatereal cleft lip nasal deformity displays retro-displacement of the lower lateral cartilage to the ___ side.
A unilatereal cleft lip nasal deformity displays retro-displacement of the lower lateral cartilage to the cleft side.
A _____ mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ipsilateral side, creating an open bite on the contralateral side.
A subcondylar mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ipsilateral side, creating an open bite on the contralateral side.
A subcondylar mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ___ side, creating an open bite on the ___ side.
A subcondylar mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ipsilateral side, creating an open bite on the contralateral side.
Androgenetic alopecia is mediated by ___ activity.
Androgenetic alopecia is mediated by5-alpha reductase activity.
5-alpha reductase is responsible for conversion of testosterone into DHT which is directly associated w/androgenetic alopecia)
Both Poly-l-lactic acid (sculptra), and calcium hydroxyapatite filler (radiesse) injections are FDA approved fillers for the Tx of ____ secondary to ___ therapy in ____ patients.
Both Poly-l-lactic acid (sculptra), and calcium hydroxyapatite filler (radiesse) injections are FDA approved fillers for the Tx of lipodystrophy secondary to anti-retroviral therapy in HIV-positive patients.
An atrophic mandible (common in older patients) does not provide enough support to adequately share the load with ___ fixation plates.
An atrophic mandible (common in older patients) does not provide enough support to adequately share the load with small fixation plates.
___ fixation using bicortical screws is indicated for atrophic mandible fractures, comminuted fractures or fractures with missing fragments.
Load bearing fixation (LBF) using bicortical screws is indicated for atrophic mandible fractures, comminuted fractures or fractures with missing fragments.
also needed w/comminuted mandible fractures or w/bone loss
LBF = long, strong fracture plates w/multiple fixation points
Minoxidil increases follicle ___ and ___ of Anagen follicles.
Minoxidil increases follicle size (diameter) and percent (weight) of Anagen follicles.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the ____ in the temporal region superiorly, and platysma inferiorly.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF) in the temporal region superiorly, and platysma inferiorly.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF) in the temporal region superiorly, and _____ inferiorly.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF) in the temporal region superiorly, and platysma inferiorly.
Distance from nasion to subnasale should be ___% of the nasion to menton distance.
43%
Distance from subnasale to menton is ___% of the nasion to menton distance
57%
The bony width of the nose should be __-__% of the alar base width.
75-80%
Normal columellar show is __ to __ mm.
Normal columellar show is 2 to 4 mm.
Ideal range for nasolabial angle is __ to __ degrees.
Ideal range for nasolabial angle is 90 to 115 degrees.
The Retrograde technique (nasal tip surgery) utilizes an ____ incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the lateral crus, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The Retrograde technique (nasal tip surgery) utilizes an intercartilaginous incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the lateral crus, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The Retrograde technique (nasal tip surgery) utilizes an intercartilaginous incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the ____, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The Retrograde technique (nasal tip surgery) utilizes an intercartilaginous incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the lateral crus, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The blood supply to the ear relies on which 3 arteries?
- superficial temporal a.
- posterior auricular a.
- deep auricular a.
A 60, 45, and 30 degree Z-plasty will rotate the scar __, __, and __ degrees.
90, 60, and 45 degrees.
Since scar needs to be rotated 60, the ideal z-plasty would be 45 degree
Lateral antebranchial cutaneous nerve
Can provide intraoral flap sensation
The plane of dissection for a Gillies approach to the zygomatic arch is deep to the _____.
The plane of dissection for a Gillies approach to the zygomatic arch is deep to the deep temporal fascia.
This is an avascular plane deep to distal branches of the FN
A ___ brow lift is a great option for patients w/a high forehead and good hairline, and to address frontal sinus bossing in facial feminization surgery.
pretrichial brow lift
low risk of FN injury
The ___ brow lift incision is placed through lateral incisions in the temporal tuft, and is at risk to the FN as the plan transitions to subperiosteal.
Endoscopic brow lift
Linear transposition flaps have a tendency towards _____ due to underlying scar formation.
Trap-door deformities
An afferent pupillary defect (as can be identified through a swinging flashlight test) is due to an _____.
An afferent pupillary defect (as can be identified through a swinging flashlight test) is due to an ipsilateral optic nerve injury.
The external approach for an open rhinoplasty combines a ___ incision w/a ___ incision.
The external approach for an open rhinoplasty combines a transcollumellar incision w/a marginal incision.
The endonasal approach for an endonasal rhinoplasty combines a ___ incision w/a ___ incision, w/a ___ incision.
The endonasal approach for an endonasal rhinoplasty combines a marginal incision w/a intercartilaginous incision, w/a full transfixion incision.
Both Orbital apex syndrome + Superior orbital fissure syndrome can cause deficits in CN III, IV, VI, and VI, but only _____ will also have an optic nerve deficit.
Both Orbital apex syndrome + Superior orbital fissure syndrome can cause deficits in CN III, IV, VI, and VI, but only Orbital Apex Syndrome will also have an optic nerve deficit.
Injection of the eyebrow depressors muscles (_____) w/botox will result in brow elevation.
Eyebrow depressor muscles:
- corrugator supercilii
- depressor supercilii
- procerus
- orbicularis oculi
(Frontalis injection limits brow elevation that can occur b/c it is the major brow elevator, thusunopposed pull from the other muscles will not be enough to noticeably raise brows)
The frontal branch of the FN is on the ___ of the temporoparietal fascia (TPF).
The frontal branch of the FN is on the under-surface of the TPF.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just ___ to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the ___ and peak above the rim at the level of the ___ or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the ___ of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The midfacial degloving technique involves ___, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l ___, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and ___ incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
The ___ nerve is at greatest risk for injury during a rhytidectomy.
The great auricular nerve is at greatest risk for injury during a rhytidectomy.
What type of flap is depicted?
Transposition flap (rhomboid)
* an adjacent piece of tissue is rotated to fill a defect, leaving a second defect to be closed at the original donor site.
The difference btwn the deep-plane rhytidectomy and the composite rhytidectomy is that the composite rhytidectomy incorporates the ___ muscle.
The difference btwn the deep-plane rhytidectomy and the composite rhytidectomy is that the composite rhytidectomy incorporates the orbicularis oculi muscle.
the deep-plane was designed to reposition the malar fat pad to address the mid-face and nasolabial bolds
If the surgeon desires to perform an auto-spreader graft technique to increase patency of the internal nasal valve during septorhinoplasty, which cartilage is utilized?
Upper lateral cartilage (ULC)
the graft separates the ULC from the septum, infolding the ULC medially, and suturing the ULC to the septum
The most commonly injured nerve during facelift is the ___ nerve.
Great auricular nerve
Anterior table frontal sinus fractures can cause ___ if the nasofrontal recess is obstructed.
mucoceles
The incision for submental liposuction should be __ than the largest cannula to avoid friction burn injury to the skin.
The incision for submental liposuction should be larger than the largest cannula to avoid friction burn injury to the skin.
_____ is associated w/an abnormally distal insertion of the anti-tragus muscle that extends along the anterior surface of the ear from the antitragus to the antihelix, pulling the helix laterally during development.
Prominauris
To increase flap rotation, the ___ incision is carried more inferiorly in order to lower and rotate the pivot point.
To increase flap rotation, the medial incision is carried more inferiorly in order to lower and rotate the pivot point.
A _____ is a condition where the orbital rim falls posterior to the anterior convexity of the cornea.
A negative vector is a condition where the orbital rim falls posterior to the anterior convexity of the cornea.
___, non-tender small white pearls superficially under the skin, are normal following skin resurfacing procedures.
Milia
Crumley’s method, Goode’s method, the Frankfort horizontal plane, and nasofacial angle are all helpful methods to determine _____.
Crumley’s method, Goode’s method, the Frankfort horizontal plane, and nasofacial angle are all helpful methods to determine** nasal projection**.
The ___ subtype is most agressive of basal cell carcinoma.
Sclerosing (morpheaform) variant
