Board Review Flashcards

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1
Q

uncuffed/cuffed pediatric ett size

A

age/4+4

age/4+3.5

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2
Q

foreign body aspiration in <1 year old tx

A

back blows and chest thrusts

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3
Q

premature infants ett size

A

2.5-3.0 mm

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4
Q

newborns ett size

A

3-3.5 mm

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5
Q

needle cricothyrotomy time till crash

A

30-45 minutes

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6
Q

age when you can do surgical cric

A

greater than 8

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7
Q

medication associated with pill esophagitis

A

doxycyline

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8
Q

neonate hr

A

100-160

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9
Q

1-12 month hr

A

100-180

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10
Q

1-2 yo hr

A

90-150

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11
Q

2-4 year old hr

A

75-130

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12
Q

4-8 yo hr

A

60-120

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13
Q

> 8 year old hr

A

60-100

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14
Q

normal sbp >1 yo

A

70+2*age

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15
Q

1 month to 1 yo BP min normal

A

70

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16
Q

<1 month old bp min normal

A

60

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17
Q

what children get compressions

A

hr <60 and signs of poor perfusipn despite 100% O2

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18
Q

what neonates get compressions

A

hr <100 despite 100% o2 for 30 secs

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19
Q

pediatric compression depth

A

1/3 chest depth

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20
Q

newborns rate of compressiond and breaths

A

90 compressions, 30 breaths per minute

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21
Q

compression ventation ratio for 2 person cpr for children beyond newborns through 8

A

15:2, 100 per minute

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22
Q

ratio for compressions to breaths for one person cpr

A

30:2

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23
Q

defibrillation in peds for arrest dose

A

initial 2-4 joules/kg, then 4 joules/kg, then increase up to 10 joules/kg

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24
Q

first thing if unrepsonsive with shockable rhythm

A

initiate cpr, then shock, resume cpr immediately 2 minutes before checking pulse. administer epinephrine before subsequent attempts

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25
Q

cardioversion dose in peds

A

0.5-1 joule/kg, can go up to 24 joules/kg

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26
Q

medications that can be given intratracheally

A

LEAN

lidocaine, epinephrine, atropine, naloxone

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27
Q

intratracheal epinephrine dose

A

0.1 mg/kg (10x normal dose)

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28
Q

dose for non epi intratracheal meds

A

2-3x IV dose

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29
Q

how to give meds intratracheally

A

folled by 5 cc saline and several positive pressure ventilations

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30
Q

window for access to umbilical vein

A

up to 7 days post delivery

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31
Q

severe acidosis treatment in peds arrest

A

sodium bicarb 1 meq/kg (use 1 meq/ml 8.4 percent in kids, dilute to half in neonates) only after epi nt effective and good oxygenation and ventilation

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32
Q

peds calcium chloride dose in severe hyperkalemia arrest

A

calciun chloride 20 mg/kg ideally through central line or IO

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33
Q

hypoglycemia arrest treatment peds

A

1 g/kg of glucose
>2 year old 1-2 ml/kg d50
2 months to 2 yo 2-4 ml/kg of d25
<2 months 5-10 ml/kg of d10

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34
Q

naloxone arrest peds dose

A

0.1 mg/kg IV, up to 2 mg, use with caution since can cause life threatening withdrawal

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35
Q

arrest epinephrine peds dosing

A

0.01 mg/kg 1:10,000 IV, max 1 mg
0.1 mg/kg 1:1,000 via ET, max 2.5 mg
repeat every 3-5 minutes

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36
Q

epinephrine drip peds dosing, arrest, persisent bradycardia

A

0.1-1 mcg/kg/min IV

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37
Q

first line vs second line in peds brady arrythmias

A

epinepnrine first line

atropine if increased vagal tone or primary AV block suspected

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38
Q

atropine peds dose

A

0.02 mg/kg IV, max of 0.5 mg in childen, 1 mg in adolescents. may repeat once. can be given every 20-30 minutes in anticholinergic toxidrome

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39
Q

adenosine pediatric dose

A

0.1 mg/kg, max 6 mg, if fail 0.2 mg/kg max 12

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40
Q

vtach unstable treatment with pulse

A

synchronized cardioversion 0.5-1 joules/kg, if unsuccessful 2 joules/kg
amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV over 20-60 minutes or procainamide 15 mg/kg IV over 30-60 minutes

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41
Q

vtach/vfib treatment without pulses

A

defibrillatation 2-4 joules/kg, if fails 4 j/kg up to 10 j/kg up to max adult dose
epinephrine
consider amiodarone 5 mg/kg iv, lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV

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42
Q

how to use apgar

A

assign at 1 and 5 minutes, if 5 minute less then 7, attain additional scores

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43
Q

apgar categorie scoring

A

0, 1, 2
activity - limp, decreased flexion, good flexion
pulse - absent, <100, >100
grimace - none, some motion, cry
appearance - blue/pale, body pink/ext blue, pink
respirations - absent, slow/irregular, good/crying

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44
Q

initial antiepileptic treatment order in neonates

A

phenobarbital 15-20 mg/kg iv over 10 minutes, addtional 5 mg/kg every 5 min up to max 40 mg/kg
then phenytoin 20 mg/kg iv
then benzos
give pyridoxine if refractory

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45
Q

congential diaphragmatic hernia treatment

A

immediate intubation, place og tube, ivf, surgery

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46
Q

tracheoesophageal fistula treatmenr

A

reverse trendelenberg, place suction catheter in edophageal pouch, surgery

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47
Q

omphalmocele and gastroschisis treatment

A

keep child warm, place og tube, cover intestines with sterule saline soaked gauze and place in plastic bag, IVF, antibiotics, surgery

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48
Q

onset of NEC usually in

A

first 2 weeks of life

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49
Q

NEC risk factors

A

hypertonic feeding solutions, pda, apneia, infection, exchange transfusions

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50
Q

NEC on radiograohy

A

pneumatosid intestinalis, separation of bowel loops, air fluid levels, portal vein gas, pneumoperitoneum, fixed dilated loop that doesnt move on serial radiograohs

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51
Q

cyanosis in newborn patholigic if persists beyond how long

A

20 minutes

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52
Q

cyanosis in newborn test

A

if 100 percent oxygen fails to bring pa02 over 100, then methemoglobinemia or cyanotic heart condition. otherwise sepsis, cns, lung problem if it does bring it up.

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53
Q

o2 sat in newborns if only extremities blue

A

> 94%

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54
Q

how long for physiologic jaundoce to resolve

A

1-2 weeks

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55
Q

treatment for Tet slell from tetrology of Fallot

A

place child in prone knee to chest, give o2, morphine. if fails consider propanolol, pheylephrine and peds consult

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56
Q

inspiratory stridor in peds means

A

obstruction at or above larynx

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57
Q

biphasic stridor in peds means

A

obstructuon below larynx

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58
Q

expiratory stridor means

A

bronchial or lowert tracheal obstruction

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59
Q

lung appearance with inhaled foreign body

A

hyperinflated on side with shift away from side with foreign body

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60
Q

croup usually caused by

A

parainfluenza

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61
Q

treatment for croup

A

racemic epi if resting stridor or resp distress
steroids
heliox of racemic epi fails

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62
Q

how does tracheitis present in peds

A

several days of coup symptoms then more ill, fevers, toxic

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63
Q

tracheitis tx

A

ent consult for visualization, antibiotics

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64
Q

rpa age of typical onset

A

6 months to 6 years, peak 3-5

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65
Q

bronchiolitis usually caused by

A

rsv

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66
Q

<4 week old pneumonia treatment

A

ampicillin and gentamicin or ampicillin and cefotaxime

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67
Q

infants 1-3 month pneumonia treatment

A

ampicillin and third gen cephalosporin, add a macrolide if chlamydia trachomatis or bordetella pertussis is suspected

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68
Q

pneumonia treatment 3 months to 5 years

A

second or third gen cephlosporin, add macrolide if chlamdyia or mycoplasma suspected

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69
Q

At what age can you consider outpatient pneumonia treatment

A

older than 3 months

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70
Q

CXR and lab values consistent with pertsusis

A

WBC 20,000-50,000 and CXR with peribronchial thickening or a “shaggy” heart border

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71
Q

Who should be hospitalized for pertussis?

A

children <6 months, children with hypoxia, cyanosis during coughing spells or apnea

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72
Q

prophylaxis for whooping cougn

A

erythromycin 10-14 days

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73
Q

what pediatrix population should get US for UTI

A

all males, females under 5 years, all recurrent

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74
Q

kawasaki treatment

A

IV immunoglobulin

oral aspirim

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75
Q

febrile seizure age group

A

6 months to 5 years

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76
Q

ativan dose for pedatric seizure

A

lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV

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77
Q

midgut volvulus demo

A

usually under 1 year, most common in 1st month

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78
Q

midgut volvulus on xray

A

small bowel overlying liver, gaseous distention, air fluid levels

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79
Q

intussception demo

A

males 3 mo to 5 years, most common 6-12 months

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80
Q

intussception on xray

A

abdominal mass or filling defect in RUQ, bowel obstruction, free air

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81
Q

pylotic stenosis demo

A

males, 2-6 weeks old

82
Q

electrolyte findings with pyloric stenosis

A

hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

83
Q

nornal pr interval

A

0.12-0.20 seconds

84
Q

normal qrz

A

0.06-0.1 seconds

85
Q

vfib in hypothermic patient protocol

A

defribillate up to 3 times, if unsuccessful, rewarm to 30 c (86 f) and try again
try magnesium, can spontaneously convert

86
Q

warm and dead temp

A

35 c (95 f)

87
Q

digitalis toxicity cardiologic effects

A

av blocks, bradydysrhytmias

88
Q

treatment of hyperkalrmia with digoxin toxicity

A

FAB, do not give calcium

89
Q

tachydysrhytmia treatment with digoxin toxicity

A

phenytoin and lidocaine are drugs of choice
magnesium useful in suppression
avoid cardioversion except as last resort and use lowest energy level
dont use breytlium, procainamide or isoproterenol

90
Q

treatment of symptomatic bradycardia with digoxin toxicity

A

atropine, then pacing if fails external preferred, while waiting for FAB to work

91
Q

who should get fab with digoxin toxicity

A

vemtricular dysrhythmias, symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine, hyperkalemia, large doses, coingestion of cardiotoxic agents, plants with dysrthymia ingestion

92
Q

Classical presentation of MAT from

A

theophylline toxicitt for COPD

93
Q

type of MI causing bradycardia

A

inferior wall

94
Q

medication treatment for symptomatic bradycardia

A

atropine 0.5 - 1 mg every 5 minutes

95
Q

when should you be cautious with atropine and symptomatic bradycardia

A

acute MI, mobitz II and 3rd degree heart block

96
Q

medication for symptomatic bradycardia if atropine fails and pacing not available

A

dopamine then epineprine

97
Q

treatment for unstable svt

A

cardioversion, start at 50 joules

98
Q

stable vtach treatment

A

procainamide or amiodarone

99
Q

unstable vtach treatment

A

synchronized cardioversion

100
Q

atrial fibrilation shock treatment

A

synchronized cardioversion starting at 120 joules

101
Q

shocking for atrial flutter

A

synchronized cardioversiom starting at 50 joules

102
Q

synptomatic MAT after treating underlying cause fails, then

A

dilt/verapamil

magnesium

103
Q

treatment for jumctional rhythm

A

underlying rhythm, unless precipitating dangerous rhythms then procainamide

104
Q

chemical conversion for afib meds

A

amiodarone, procainamide, ibutilide, flecainide, propafenone

105
Q

treatment for symptomatic pvcs when treating cause fails

A

lidocaine or procainamide if lidocaine contraindicated, betablockers, mangnesium, dont treat if from ischemia

106
Q

how do you treat symptomatic escape pvs associsted with bradycardia

A

atropine

107
Q

pulseless vtach shock regimen

A

defrillation at 200 joules

108
Q

hemodynamically unstable vtach treatment with pulse

A

synchronized cardioversion at 100 joules

109
Q

monomorphic stable vtach med treatment

A

procainamide, amiodarone, sotalol

110
Q

torsades treatment unstable or sustained

A

direct cardioversion (unsynchronized), starting at 200 joules, then start magnesium

111
Q

stable torsades treatment

A

magnesium, if fails, overdrive pacing

112
Q

vfib shock treatment

A

begin at max joules 360 monophasic defibrilator, 200 for biphasic defibrillator

113
Q

symptomatic mobitz I treatment

A

atropine, if fails then pacing

114
Q

mobitz type II associated with MI of

A

anteroseptal region affecting infranodal conduction system

115
Q

mobitz type II tx

A

pacing (no atropine!)

116
Q

mobitz type I associated with MI of

A

inferior wall

117
Q

third degree heart block associated with MI of

A

anterior wall for wide complex

inferior wall for narrow complex

118
Q

3rd degree heart block tx

A

narrow complex -atropine, if fails pacemaker

wide complex - pacemaker, epi/dopa as bridge

119
Q

wpw treatment

A

narrow complex - same as SVT
wide complex - unstable - cardioversion, stable - procainamide or amiodarone
with afib/flutter - cardioversion if unstable, if stable - procainamide

120
Q

signs of pacemaker failure

A

slowing of rate means battery failure, urgent replacement if 10 percent or more
vtach is runaway pacemaker and can be battery depletion or circuitry malfunction

121
Q

treatment for runaway pacemaker

A

use magnet, if fails and unstable externalize and cut wires

122
Q

when do you get posterior ekg

A

depression in v1, v2, v3

123
Q

when to get right sided ekg

A

elevation in II, III, aVf

isolated st elevation in V1 or V1 and V2

124
Q

non pci hospatal transfer time

A

<120 minutes

125
Q

goal in pci hospital stemi

A

90 minutes field contact to baloon

126
Q

thrombolytics goal if non pci hospital

A

30 minutes

127
Q

years until failure of mechanical versus bioprosthetic valve

A

20 years vs 10 years

128
Q

mycobacterus avium intracellulare presentation

A

AIDS patient with lung disease and pancytopenia

129
Q

mycobacteriun avium intracellulare treatment

A

macrolide plus ethambutol plus rifampin. add aminoglycoside if severe disease, surgery for local nodule

130
Q

skin infection for fish/aquarium handlerd and treatment

A

mycobacterium marinum
clarithromycin plus ethambutol or rifampin
surgery if deep tissue

131
Q

mycobacteria ulcerans tx

A

wide excision of ulcers, treat small lesions with rifampin + clarithromycin + streptomycin infections

132
Q

mycobacteria kansaii tx

A

rifampin + isoniazid + pyodoxine + ethambutol

133
Q

TB infection tx

A

isoniazid + rifampin + pyraxinamide + ethambutol for 9 months

134
Q

isoniazid complications

A

neuropathy, increases lfts

135
Q

rifampin complications

A

fluids orange

136
Q

etgambutol complications

A

optic neuritis, red green failure to differentiate

137
Q

cryptococcus tx

A

fluconaxole oral if mild, otherwise amphotericin b

138
Q

histopladmosis region

A

ohio and mississippi river valleys

139
Q

histoplasmosis tx

A

long term itraconazole, amphotericin b

140
Q

toxoplasmosis tx

A

pyrimethamine

141
Q

vector for malaria

A

fenale anopheles mosquito

142
Q

test needed for malaria

A

thick and thin blood smears for ring forms plis giemsa or wright stain

143
Q

malaria tx

A

chloroquine possibly plus doxycycline

144
Q

hantavirus vector

A

aerodolized rodent excretions

145
Q

pcp tx

A

bactrim
steroids if pao2 < 70 or aa gradient > 35
second line is inhaled pentamidine

146
Q

roseola classic presentation

A

6 mo to 2 years sudden high fever, resolves, then rash on trunk spreads to head neck, not pruritic

147
Q

measles (rubeola) classic presentation

A

cough, coryza, conjunctivits, rash on head spreads downward, turns brown

148
Q

rubella presentation

A

rash on face, spreads to trunk and limbs in viral syndrome

149
Q

blepharitis common cause

A

staph/strep chronic infx

150
Q

blepharitis tx

A

lid scrub with baby shampoo, topical antibiotics

151
Q

blepharitis looks like

A

eyelid swelling with dandruff

152
Q

what is hordeolum

A

acute painful nodule of blocked gland of lid margin

153
Q

usual cause of Hordeolum

A

staph

154
Q

hordeolum tx

A

warm compresses, antibiotic ointment, i&d if refractory

155
Q

what is a chalazion

A

chronic internal granulomatous reaction of meibomian glands

chronic stye thats nontender

156
Q

chalazion tx

A

warm compresses - refer to ophtomology for excision

157
Q

subconjunctival hemorrgae tx

A

cold compress

158
Q

what is dacryocystitis

A

inflammation of tear duct caused by staph

159
Q

dacrocystitis tx

A

warm compresses, oral antibiotics

160
Q

ice rink sign on flourescin indicates

A

eyelid foreign body

161
Q

what is hypopyon

A

inflammatory condition of anteriot chamber causing layering of white blood cells at bottom

162
Q

tx for acute angle glaucoma

A

acetazolamide, beta blocker topical (timolol) pilocarpine,

163
Q

presentation of optic neuritis

A

sudden reduced vision, specifically color vision, pain with eye movement

164
Q

causes of optic neuritis

A

MS, methanol, ethambutol, SLE, syphilis, lyme, herpes, zoster

165
Q

central retinal artery occlusion presentation

A

sudden, painless, unilateral vision loss

166
Q

CRAO exam

A

arteriolar narrowing, cherry red spot

167
Q

central retinal vein occlusion presentation

A

sudden, painless, unilateral vision loss

168
Q

crvo on exam

A

artetiolar narrowing, blood and thunder retina with dilated veins, hemmorages, edema

169
Q

crao tx

A

lowet IOP with acetazolamide, maybr hyperbarics…

170
Q

tx for 8 ball hyphema

A

surgery

171
Q

labyrinthitis presentation

A

severe acute vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus

post viral symdrome or otitis

172
Q

menieres disease presentation

A

progressive hearing loss, tinnitus with vertigo, possibly with recurrent attacks

173
Q

menieres tx

A

diurectics and salt restriction

surgery if severe

174
Q

acoustic neuroma presentation

A

vertigo, hearing loss, ataxia, tinnitus refractory to symptomatic management

175
Q

what is cholesteoma

A

epidermal cyst of middle ear

176
Q

cholesteoma presentation

A

hearing loss, otorrhea, tinnitus, vertigo, facial nerve sx

177
Q

cholesteoma tx

A

surgery referral

178
Q

what is cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

blood clot with usually associated infection of csvernous sinus

179
Q

presentation of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

fever, ill appearing, edema of face/eyelids, proptosis, chemosis, cn palsies

180
Q

location of most nose bleeds

A

anterior - kiesselbachs plexus

181
Q

posterior nose bleed from what source

A

sphenopalatine artery

182
Q

when ct for sinusitus

A

resistanf to tx or immunocompromised

183
Q

apthous ulcer tx

A

topical steroid, mouth rinse, benzocaine gel

184
Q

herpangina caused by

A

coxsackie virus

185
Q

herpangina presentation

A

fever, sore throat with painful ulcers of mouth, sparing buccal mucosa, gingiva and tongue

186
Q

acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis treatment

A

meteonidazole or clindamycin

187
Q

causes of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingavitis

A

phenytoin toxicity, acute leukemia, hiv

188
Q

dry socket tx

A

pain meds, irrigate, pack with gauze, abx

189
Q

tx for mandible dislocation

A

posterior and inferior pressure

190
Q

massive hemoptysis definition

A

600 cc in 24 hours

191
Q

how many cc blood to fill tracheobronchial tree

A

150-300cc

192
Q

massive hemoptysis, which side down

A

bleeding side to avoid spilling over

193
Q

medications that turn you blue

A
silver toxicity (agyri), and amiodarone
dapsone and pyridium from methemoglobonemia
194
Q

role of lateral decubitis cxr in foreign body inhalation

A

dependent lung should look smaller, if same size or larger, suspect obstruction

195
Q

unusual causes of left sided pleural effusion

A

boerhaves syndrome

aortic dissection type B

196
Q

asthma arrest from intubated obstructive shock tx

A

disconnext vent, squeeze chest, bilatersl chest tubes, IV fluids

197
Q

definition of ARDS

A

pulmonary edema without heart failure, pao2 < 60 with fio2>0.5

198
Q

tx of ards

A

permissive hypercapnia, low volumes 4-6 cc/kg

199
Q

bacullis anthracis presentation

A

eschar, possibly gi, possibly pneumonia

200
Q

bacillus anthacis tx

A

pennicilin or doxycycline

201
Q

yersinia pestis presentation

A

bubos then lungs, necrosis of dista extremities