Board Questions Flashcards
What does ASAP stand for?
Army Substance Abuse Program
What is the mission of ASAP?
The ASAP’s mission is to strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total
workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its Soldiers.
What are the objectives of ASAP?
• Increase individual fitness and overall unit readiness.
• Provide services, which are adequate and responsive to the needs of the total workforce and
emphasize alcohol and other drug abuse deterrence, prevention, education, and treatment.
• Implement alcohol and other drug risk reduction and prevention strategies that respond to
potential problems before they jeopardize readiness, productivity, and careers.
• Restore to duty those substance-impaired Soldiers who have the potential for continued military
service.
• Provide effective alcohol and other drug abuse prevention and education at all levels of
command, and encourage commanders to provide alcohol and drug-free leisure activities.
• Ensure all military and civilian personnel assigned to ASAP staff are appropriately trained and
experienced to accomplish their mission.
• Achieve maximum productivity and reduce absenteeism and attrition among DA civilian
employees by reducing the effects of the abuse of alcohol and other drugs.
• Improve readiness by extending services to the total Army.
• Ensure quality customer service.
What is meant by deglamorization of alcohol?
Personnel will not promote any function glamorizing the use of alcohol through drinking contests,
games, initiations, or the awarding of alcoholic beverages as prizes in contests.
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
AR 600-85
Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred. Failure to attend a mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond successfully to
rehabilitation?
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to, rehabilitation will be
processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation
except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with
the unit commander.
What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse problem?
Voluntary (self-identification) • Commander / Supervisor Identification • Biochemical Identification • Medical Identification • Investigation and or Apprehension (AR 600-85 / Mar 2006 3-1 / PDF 24)
What are the objectives of rehabilitation with ASAP?
• Return Soldiers to full duty as soon as possible.
• Identify Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated within the scope of this regulation and to advise their
unit commanders.
• Assist and refer Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated in the ASAP to a treatment facility in the
vicinity where they reside after discharge from the Army.
• Help resolve alcohol and other drug abuse problems in the family, with the ultimate goal of
enabling the Soldier to perform more effectively.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 4-2 / PDF 27)
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
The objectives of Army’s Biochemical Testing Program are to:
• Deter Soldiers, including those members on initial entry on AD after enlistment or appointment,
from abusing drugs (including illegal drugs, other illicit substances, and prescribed medication).
• Facilitate early identification of alcohol and/or other drug abuse.
• Enable commanders to assess the security, military fitness, good order and discipline of their
units, and to use information obtained to take appropriate action (for example, UCMJ,
administrative, or other actions, including referral to the ASAP counseling center for screening,
evaluation, and possible treatment).
• Monitor rehabilitation of those enrolled for alcohol and/or other drug abuse.
• Collect data on the prevalence of alcohol and/or other drug abuse within the Army.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 36)
Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
• Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit) • Search and seizures/probable cause. • Competence for Duty. • Rehabilitation. • Mishap or Safety Inspection. • Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). • New Entrant. • Medical. (AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 8-3 / PDF 37)
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 3-7 / PDF 26
Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
Soldiers currently enrolled in the ASAP rehabilitation program are not allowed to reenlist.
However, Soldiers who need additional service time to complete their enrollment may be
extended for the number of months necessary to permit completion.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 5-6 / PDF 31)
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
Yes, IAW AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Action (flags)).
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 5-7 / PDF 31)
What Does ACS stand for?
Army Community Service
AR 608-1 Dec 2004
What does the ACS symbol represent?
The heart= giving, the cross= help, the gyroscope= stability
AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 3-10 / PDF 16
What is the ACS mission statement?
The mission of the ACS center is to—
• Facilitate commander’s ability to provide comprehensive, coordinated, and responsive services
that support readiness of soldiers, civilian employees and their families.
• Maximize technology and resources, adapt to unique installation requirements, eliminate
duplication in service delivery, and measure service effectiveness.
(AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 1-1 / PDF 9)
What Army regulation covers ACS?
AR 608-1
How is ACS staffed for the most part?
By volunteers
What is the motto of the ACS?
Self-help, service and stability.
AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 3-10 / PDF 16
Who qualifies for ACS?
In the United States, the following personnel are eligible for ACS assistance:
• All active duty and retired military personnel and their family members, if otherwise eligible for
services.
• Members of the Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve when on active duty and their
family members, if otherwise eligible for services.
• Army appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF) employees and their family
members, if otherwise eligible for services.
• Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action, if otherwise eligible for
services.
• Surviving family members of military personnel who died while on active duty, if otherwise eligible
for services.
In overseas commands, the Commander will determine eligibility according to international
treatise and agreements.
(AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 1-7 / PDF 9)
What can you do to help out ACS?
Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and volunteer your time.
What regulation covers the ACES?
AR 621-5
What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
AR 621-6
What are the goals of ACES?
• Develop confident, competent leaders.
• Support the enlistment, retention, and transition of soldiers.
• Provide self-development opportunities for soldiers and adult family members.
• Provide self-development opportunities for DACs.
• Provide self-development opportunities for DAC ACES professional and support staff.
(AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-2 / PDF 12)
What does TABE stand for?
Test of Adult Basic Education
AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 4-2 / PDF 17
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
100%
Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
- Pell Grant
- Perkins Loans
- Guaranteed Student Loans
What are some of the basic services offered by the Army Continuing Education Center?
- Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP)
- Advanced Skills Education Program (ASEP)
- High School Completion Program
- Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges Associates Degree Program (SOCAD)
- Veteran’s Educational Assistance Program (VEAP)/Montgomery G. I. Bill (MGIB)
- Skill Recognition Programs
- Command Language Programs (Head start - Gateway)
- Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES)
- Education Counseling Services
- Learning Resource Centers
What Soldier development programs does ACES provide?
- Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST).
- High School Completion Program.
- English-as-a-Second Language (ESL)
- Mission-related Language (Head start and Gateway).
- Mission-required Language.
- MOS Improvement Training (MOSIT).
(AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 4-1 / PDF 17)
What does DANTES stand for?
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 16
What does DANTES do?
DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family members and
civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken.
Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible. Soldiers with a GT
between 100 and 110 may be command referred.
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for the first 12 months
What does SOC stand for?
Service members Opportunity Colleges
AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 14
What does SOCAD stand for?
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 14
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
American Red Cross
AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 2-13 / PDF 11
What is AER?
AER is a private, nonprofit organization to collect and hold funds to relieve distress of members of
the Army and their dependents. AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active
and retired) and their families in time of distress.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5)
What does AER stand for?
Army Emergency Relief
What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
AR 930-4
Are you required to contribute to AER to receive help?
No
Who does AER help?
• Soldiers on extended active duty and their dependents.
• Members of the Reserve Components of the Army (Army National Guard and U.S. Army
Reserve) on continuous active duty for more than 30 days and their dependents. (This applies to
soldiers on AD for training (ADT) or serving under various sections of title 10, United States
Code).
• Soldiers retired from active duty because of longevity or physical disability, or retired upon
reaching age 60 (Reserve Components) and their dependents.
• Widows (ers) and orphans of soldiers who died while on active duty or after they retired.
(Site: AERHQ.org)
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
Cash, check or allotment
AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 5-6 / PDF 24
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
March 01 through May 15
Site: AERHQ.org
How does AER provide financial assistance?
AER provides financial assistance by either a loan without interest, a grant or a combination of
both
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 /2-4 / PDF 8)
What is the purpose of AER?
AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in
time of distress.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5)
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need.
(Site: AERHQ.org)
Failure to repay an AER loan (unless repayment would cause undo hardship) will cause the
Soldier’s name to be placed on an AER restricted list which is disseminated Army-wide. What
does this mean for the Soldier?
Individuals who appear on this list will not be approved for AER assistance without the specific
prior approval of HQ AER.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 2-8 / PDF 9)
What is the AER Motto?
“Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own”
AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
1 dollar each month for 3 months
How is AER funded?
Through Voluntary Contributions from Soldiers (tax free), through unsolicited contributions,
repayments of loans, and income from investments.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 5-1 / PDF 14)
What is the purpose of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program reinforces the Army’s commitment to
eliminate incidents of sexual assault through a comprehensive policy that centers on awareness
and prevention, training and education, victim advocacy, response, reporting, and accountability.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 72)
The Army’s policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies where
and when?
This policy applies—
• Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
• To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-2 / PDF 72)
What are the goals of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
• Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army
civilians, and family members, and, if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects
are treated according to Army policy.
• Create a climate that encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear.
• Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate Soldiers.
• Ensure sensitive and comprehensive treatment to restore victims’ health and well-being.
• Ensure leaders understand their roles and responsibilities regarding response to sexual assault
victims, thoroughly investigate allegations of sexual assault, and take appropriate administrative
and disciplinary action.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 72)
Define sexual assault.
Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force,
physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Glossary / PDF 125)
Sexual assault includes what acts?
• Rape
• Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex)
• Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling)
• Attempts to commit these acts
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Glossary / PDF 125)
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
Alcohol
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
The Commander’s Responsibility
AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-1 / PDF 69
Define the following terms as they apply to the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response
Program: victim, alleged perpetrator, and perpetrator.
Victim - One who has been sexually assaulted.
Alleged Perpetrator - One who has been accused of committing a crime (subject).
Perpetrator - One who has committed a crime (offender).
What is the Army’s policy on sexual assault?
• Sexual assault is a criminal offense that has no place in the Army. It degrades mission readiness
by devastating the Army’s ability to work effectively as a team. Every Soldier who is aware of a
sexual assault should immediately (within 24 hours) report incidents. Sexual assault is
incompatible with Army values and is punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice
(UCMJ) and other federal and local civilian laws.
• The Army will use training, education, and awareness to minimize sexual assault; to promote the
sensitive handling of victims of sexual assault; to offer victim assistance and counseling; to hold
those who commit sexual assault offenses accountable; to provide confidential avenues for
reporting, and to reinforce a commitment to Army values.
• The Army will treat all victims of sexual assault with dignity, fairness, and respect.
• The Army will treat every reported sexual assault incident seriously by following proper
guidelines. The information and circumstances of the allegations will be disclosed on a need-to-
know basis only.
• This policy applies—
1. Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
2. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post
housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-2 / PDF 72)
If someone has been sexually assaulted, to whom may they report the crime?
- Their chain of command.
- Medical Treatment Facility.
- Military Police/Criminal Investigation Division.
- Chaplains.
- Social Work Services.
- Family Advocacy.
- Legal Services.
Army Regulation 27-10 outlines the rights of crime victims, what are they?
• The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy
• The right to be protected from the accused offender
• The right to be notified of court proceedings
• The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the assault unless the court
determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other
testimony at trial, or for other good cause
• The right to talk to the attorney for the Government in the case
• The right to seek restitution, if appropriate
• The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the
offender from custody.
What must Commanders do to implement and supprt the Army’s Sexual Assault Prevention
and Response Program?
• Ensure that assigned personnel (to include RC personnel under their jurisdiction) are familiar with
the Army policy on sexual harassment.
• Publish and post written command policy statements for the prevention of sexual harassment.
• Continually assess and be aware of the climate of command regarding sexual harassment.
Identify problems or potential problems. Take prompt, decisive action to investigate all complaints
of sexual harassment. Either resolve the problem at the lowest possible level or, if necessary,
take formal disciplinary or administrative action. Do not allow Soldiers to be retaliated against for
filing complaints. Continually monitor the unit and assess sexual harassment prevention policies
and programs at all levels within area of responsibility. Ensure all leaders understand that if they
witness or otherwise know of incidents of sexual harassment, they are obligated to act. If they do
not, they themselves are also engaging in sexual harassment.
• Set the standard
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-2 / PDF 70)
What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some examples?
• Verbal – Examples of verbal sexual harassment may include telling sexual jokes; using sexually
explicit profanity, threats, sexually oriented cadences, or sexual comments.
• Nonverbal – Examples of nonverbal sexual harassment may include staring at someone (that is,
“undressing someone with one’s eyes”), blowing kisses, winking, or licking one’s lips in a
suggestive manner.
• Physical Contact - Examples of physical sexual harassment may include touching, patting,
pinching, bumping, grabbing, cornering, or blocking a passageway; kissing; and providing
unsolicited back or neck rubs.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-5 / PDF 70)
What does EO stand for?
Equal Opportunity
AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-1 / PDF 56
What is an EOR?
Equal Opportunity Representative
AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF – 61
What rank should an EOR normally be?
SGT (P) through 1LT
AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 61
What are some of the special commemorations / ethnic observances listed in AR 600-20?
- January – 3rd Monday – Martin Luther King Jr. Birthday
- February – 1-28/29 - African-American/Black History Month
- March – 1-31 - Women’s History Month
- April/May - Sunday to Sunday for Week Incorporating Yom Hashoah - “Days of Remembrance”
for Victims of the Holocaust - May – 1-31 - Asian Pacific Heritage Month
- August – 26 - Women’s Equality Day
- September/October - 15 Sep.-15 Oct. - Hispanic Heritage Month
- November – 1-30 - National Native American Indian Heritage Month
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 54)
What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
AR 600-20 chapter 6
What are the goals of the EO program?
- Provide EO for military personnel and family members, both on and off post and within the limits
of the laws of localities, states, and host nations. - Create and sustain effective units by eliminating discriminatory behaviors or practices that
undermine teamwork, mutual respect, loyalty, and shared sacrifice of the men and women of
America’s Army.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-1 / PDF 56)
What are the three policies each commander is required to publish and post on equal
opportunity?
• Written command policy statements for EO
• Prevention of Sexual Harassment
• Equal Opportunity Complaint Procedures
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 58)
Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
4 (1 each quarter)
Define the term ethnic group.
A segment of the population that possesses common characteristics and a cultural heritage
based to some degree on: faith or faiths; shared traditions, values or symbols; literature, folklore,
or music; an internal sense of distinctiveness; and/or an external perception of distinctiveness.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 /Terms / PDF 126)
Define the term racism.
Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates a person or group
because of skin color or race.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-2 / PDF 57)
Describe minority group
Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, color, gender, or
national origin.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Terms / PDF 124)
What is sexual harassment?
- Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcomed sexual
advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature
between the same or opposite genders when—
• Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or
condition of a person’s job, pay, career, or
• Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or
employment decisions affecting that person, or
• Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work
performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. - Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones implicit or explicit sexual
behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a Soldier or civilian employee is
engaging in sexual harassment. Similarly, any Soldier or civilian employee who makes deliberate
or repeated unwelcome verbal comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature is
engaging in sexual harassment.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-4 / PDF 70)
What is an Affirmative Actions Plan (AAP)?
A management document that consists of statements of attainable goals and timetables. This
document is required of all Army organizations, commands, agencies, and activities down to
brigade (or equivalent) level. It is designed to achieve EO for all military personnel.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Terms / PDF 119)
What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public
accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their
dependents?
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-8 / PDF 65
Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
Your Unit Chain of Command
AR 600-20 June 2006 / D-1 / PDF 97
What is the Army’s written policy on EO?
The U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members
without regard to race, color, gender, religion, national origin, and provide an environment free of
unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior. This policy—
a. Applies both on and off post, during duty and non-duty hours.
b. Applies to working, living, and recreational environments (including both on and off-post
housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-2 / PDF 56)
What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on
equal opportunity matters?
Chain of Command
AR 600-20 June 2006 / D-1 / PDF 97
Does every unit have an EO representative?
Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 61)
What does AFAP stand for?
Army Family Action Plan
What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
AR 608-47
When was the AFAP program established?
The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army (CSA), 1983
White Paper, “The Army Family.”
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 1-4 / PDF 7)
The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
The Global Army Family and Leadership. The AFAP provides a means for Army constituents to
address and report issues of well-being concern to leadership at regular intervals.
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12)
The AFAP program’s process of improvement begins where?
At the local level, where an annual symposium is held to examine issues of concern that
delegates believe need to be fixed.
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12)
The Army family has been symbolized by the Secretary of the Army as an equilateral triangle.
How is each side of the triangle expressed?
- Base: “Family of Components” (Total Force)
- Second Leg: “Family of Units”
- Third Leg: “Family of People”
The philosophy toward the family, based on the Army Family White Paper, consists of three
critical elements. What are they?
- Partnership
- Wellness
- Sense of community
What are some things that the AFAP does?
- Gives commanders a gauge to validate concerns and measure satisfaction
- Enhances Army’s corporate image
- Helps retain the best and brightest
- Results in legislation, policies, programs and services that strengthen readiness and retention
- Safeguards well-being
What types of programs are focused on in the “Family of Components”?
Programs relating to the Active Army, National Guard, Army Reserve and civilian employees
What type of programs are focused on in the “Family of Units”?
Programs relating to the unique relationship of soldiers to their units and unit ties to other
components of the command, such as squad to its platoon or the platoon to its company (battery)
What is the basis for the Army theme, “ The Army family”?
A joint announcement signed by the Secretary and the Chief of Staff of the Army. This
announcement was based on the C/S white paper 1983
What types of programs are focused on in the Family of People?
Programs relating to all areas of concern to the service members and their families, including the
military and civilian retiree
What are some activities that the American Red Cross offers?
CPR instruction, Blood drives, Swimming lessons, Communication services (by wire), Financial
assistance, Counseling and referral services, Transplantation services, AIDS education, Health
and safety services.
What is the major service that Red Cross offers?
Communication between soldiers and their families for both problem solving and emergency
(especially the notification or “red cross message”)
What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
AR 930-5
What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
AR 601-280
What are some reasons that a soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
If the soldier is barred or flagged and if the soldier is enrolled in ASAP
What is an SRB?
Selective Reenlistment Bonus
What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
Three years
AR 601-280 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 34
Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
No
Describe a Bar to Reenlistment.
Administrative action initiated by the commander to prevent a substandard soldier from reenlisting
or reentering the service
A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
Soldiers SGM and below who have not reenlisted under the indefinite reenlistment program are
required to receive Retention Interviews. When are they done?
- Career Counselor: 30 days from arrival to unit
- Unit Commander 90 days from arrival
- Unit Commander 15-16 months prior to ETS
- Career Counselor 13-14 months prior to ETS
- Career Counselor 4 months prior to ETS
- Reserve Component Career counselor 90-120 days prior to ETS
Who may lift a Bar?
The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written recommendation by the unit
Commander
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
A water fire Extinguisher
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
It is the responsibility of each soldier
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
Risk Management
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
Carelessness
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
AR 385-40
Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
- Lights in stairwells
- Fire lights (emergency lighting)
- Fire extinguisher and alarms
- Arms room safety procedures
- First aid kits
- CQ
- Safety posters
- Handrails
- Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals
What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and
vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.)
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and
how can this be determined?
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit
safety personnel
What AR covers safety?
AR 385-10
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal
have occurred this year?
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
Yes
What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
AR 600-8-8
What is S-Gate?
S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command.
An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes
their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist
and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.
What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The
sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with
the unit or activity and community
What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
- DA Form 5434.
- Welcome letter.
- ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
- Reception.
- Orientation.
- Inprocessing.
The primary goal of the Army’s QOLP is to promote the development of military group
commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what?
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
What are some examples of the QOLP?
- ACS / AER / ARC / EO
- Postal services
- PX / commissary privileges
- AFN radio and television
- MWR, education services
- Community sports programs
- Recreational facilities
- Banking services
- Clubs
- Gyms (physical fitness centers)
What does QOLP stand for?
Quality Of Life Program
The Army’s Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army’s number one
operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource?
The soldier
Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two
general headings. What are they?
- Living conditions
2. Duty environment.
Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to
serve on BOSS committees?
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide?
It provides opportunities for active duty soldiers, with an emphasis on single and unaccompanied
soldiers, to participate in physical, self-development, leisure, and educational related services.
What type of program is BOSS?
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
How many officers are on the BOSS council?
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
The battery/company level
What are the 3 pillars of BOSS?
- Recreation and Leisure: Activities may be planned by the BOSS committee or by the BOSS
committee working in conjunction with other MWR activities. Service members will assume a lead
role in planning BOSS events. Events should be planned that meet the needs and desires of the
single service member. - Community Service: The BOSS committee may elect to participate in community programs or
projects that make a difference in the lives of others, in the community, and ultimately, in
themselves. The service will be voluntary in nature and in accordance with the installation
volunteer program. The program can be implemented in support of existing or established
volunteer programs or programs developed by the BOSS committee. - Well Being: For single service members, Well being includes those things that single service
members can directly or indirectly influence to enhance their morale, living environment, or
personal growth and development. The well being issue identified or raised during the BOSS
meetings will be directed to the appropriated command or staff agency for resolution on the
installation.
What is CHAMPUS/Tricare?
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services. It is a cost-sharing program that
is used to provide in-patient and outpatient care for dependants from civilian sources.
What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS/Tricare?
AR 40-121
Who is Eligible for CHAMPUS/Tricare?
Family members of active duty military personnel, Family members of either deceased or retired
personnel, and retired military personnel and their family members under the age of 65
What Does DEERS stand for?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
What is DEERS used for?
To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
What does NCODP stand for?
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 86
What is the goal of NCODP?
The goal of the NCODP is to increase and sustain NCO combat readiness and compliment the
overarching Army Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development Program.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
The command.
AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 86
NCODP is typically managed by whom?
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87
What are some objectives of NCODP?
• Develop and strengthen the skills, knowledge, and abilities to train, deploy, and lead soldiers in
combat through battle focused training.
• Develop NCOs who are self–aware, adaptive, competent, and confident.
• Realize the full potential of the NCO support channel.
• Foster a unit environment that enhances continued NCO leader development and encourages
self–development as part of a lifelong learning process.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
AR 350-1 Chap 4
What is the purpose of AR 350-1?
This regulation prescribes policies, procedures, and responsibilities for developing, managing,
and conducting Army training and leader development.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 13)
In order to accomplish battle-focused NCO development, commanders and unit NCOs should
follow what procedures?
• Link NCO development to the current skill level and duty assignments
• Establish a viable unit level NCODP using unit METL as the vehicle to incorporate the following
into each NCO’s daily activities.
• Synchronize battle-focused NCODP as a component of operational assignments (experience)
with the other two pillars of leader development (institutional training and self-development)
• Establish a systematic and continuous program
• Integrate the use of leader books (FM 25-l01, app B) to track individual NCO progress
• Emphasize coaching to achieve commitment to excellence in performance
A successful NCODP will result in NCOs who can what?
• Demonstrate the skills of current skill level and duty position per AR 611–21 and DA Pam 600–
25.
• Accept the duties and responsibilities of current rank and duty position per AR 600–20, AR 611–
21, and FM 7–22.7.
• Enhance combat performance for the current and next higher rank and duty position per AR 600–
20 and FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22).
• Enhance combat leadership competencies for the current and next higher rank per FM 22–100
(being revised as FM 6–22).
• Train themselves and subordinates to be proficient in METL tasks and associated critical tasks
per FM 7–0, FM 7–1, and FM 7–22.7.
• Coach subordinates to be totally committed to U.S. Army professional ethics, Warrior Ethos, and
the Soldier’s Creed per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22).
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
What is meant by the term “overweight”?
A soldier is considered overweight when his or her percent body fat exceeds the standard
specified in AR 600-9.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / Glossary / PDF 55)
Who is responsible for meeting the standards prescribed in AR 600-9?
Every Soldier. (Commissioned Officer, Warrant Officer and Enlisted). Self discipline to maintain
proper weight distribution and high standards of appearance are essential to every individual in
the Army.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 7)
What are the primary objectives of the Army Weight Control Program?
Ensure that all personnel:
• Are able to meet the physical demands of their duties under combat conditions
• Present a trim military appearance at all times.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 1-5 / PDF 7)
Name some limitations on personnel that are overweight, including Soldiers who become
pregnant while on the weight control program.
- Are nonpromotable (to the extent such nonpromotion is permitted by law).
- Will not be assigned to command, command sergeant major or first sergeant positions.
- Are not authorized to attend professional military schools.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 11)
Can a Soldier who has been flagged for being overweight or an APFT failure receive an award?
A Soldier that is flagged for being overweight cannot receive an award.
A Soldier that is flagged for APFT failure can receive an award
(AR 600-8-2 Dec 2004 / 1-15 / PDF 10)
When is a determination of percent body fat required to be made on personnel?
• When their body weight exceeds the screening table weight.
• When the unit commander or supervisor determines that the individual’s appearance suggests
that body fat is excessive.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
What are three reasons why the Army is so concerned about excess body fat?
- Connotes a lack of personal discipline.
- Detracts from military appearance.
- May indicate a poor state of health, physical fitness, or stamina.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 1-5 / PDF 7)
When does enrollment in a weight control program begin?
On the day that the soldier is informed by the unit commander that he or she has been entered
into a weight control program.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
Tape measures used for taping should be made of what material?
The tape measure should be made of a nonstretchable material, preferably fiberglass; cloth or
steel tapes are unacceptable.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-1 / PDF 21)
How often should soldiers in the weight control program weight in?
Monthly to measure progress
AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 15
What is the required weight loss goal for Soldiers on the Army Weight Control Program?
The required weight loss goal of 3 to 8 pounds per month is considered a safely attainable goal to
enable soldiers to lose excess body fat and meet the body fat standards
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 15)
What regulation covers the Army Weight Control Program?
AR 600-9
Screening table weights and heights are measured to the nearest what?
1 pound or 1 inch
AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10
What three things must happen when a soldier is determined to be overweight?
- Will be provided exercise guidance, dietary information or weight reduction counseling by health
care personnel, and assistance in behavioral modification, as appropriate, to help them attain the
requirements of the Army. - Entered into weight control program by unit commanders
- Flagged by the Commander under the provisions of AR 600-8-22
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
How often should soldiers be weighed?
A soldier should be weighed when they take the APFT or at least every six months
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 9)
Define Tape Test:
The method of determining the percent of body fat on a soldier.
What circumference sites are used for taping male and female soldiers?
• Male- Abdomen and Neck
• Female- Neck, Waist and Hip (largest portion of the protruding buttock)
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-5 / PDF 45)
How many times is each measurement required to be made?
Three times (Each sequential measurement will be within 1⁄2 inch of the next or previous
measurement.)
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-3 / PDF 21)
How many people should be utilized in the taping of soldiers?
Two, one to place the tape measure and determine the measurements, the other to assure
proper placement and tension of the tape, as well as to record the measurement on the
worksheet
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-1 / PDF 21)
If circumstances prevent the weighing of soldiers immediately following the APFT, when can
they be weighed?
If the circumstances preclude weighing soldiers during the APFT, they should be weighed within
30 days of the APFT.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10)
It is a requirement that all TDY and PCS orders contain what statement in regards to weight
control?
“You are responsible for reporting to your next duty station/school in satisfactory physical
condition, able to pass the Army Physical Fitness Test (APFT) and meet weight standards.”
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 2-14 / PDF 9)
In regards to percent body fat, all personnel are encouraged to achieve the more stringent
Department of Defense-wide goal of what?
• Males - 18%
• Females - 26%
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10)
To assist soldiers in meeting the requirements prescribed in AR 600-9, weight-screening tables
are used. The screening weight is based on what two considerations?
Height and age with separate tables for males and females
AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10
When you take the APFT, what is the minimum number of points you must score in each
event?
60 points (FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 21)
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
FM 21-20
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
- Preparatory
- Conditioning
- Maintenance
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 13)
About how long is the preparatory phase?
2 weeks
FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 14
About how long is the conditioning phase?
The conditioning phase ends when a soldier is physically mission-capable and all personal,
strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 15)
What is a MFT?
Master Fitness Trainer. A Master Fitness Trainer (MFT) is a soldier who has completed either the
four-week active-component, two week reserve-component, or U.S. Military Academy’s MFT
course work. Although called “masters,” MFTs are simply soldiers who know about all aspects of
physical fitness training and how soldiers’ bodies function. Most importantly, since MFTs are
taught to design individual and unit programs, they should be used by commanders as special
staff assistants for this purpose.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 9)
What does FITT stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the key factors in
the training program)
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 10)
What is Da Form 3349?
Physical profile form
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 21)
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
- Warm-up
- Conditioning
- Cool-down
What are the commands to get a unit from a normal line formation into an extended rectangular
formation?
- Extend to the left, march
- Arms downward, move
- Left, Face
- Extend to the left, march
- Arms downward, move
- Right, face
- From front to rear, count off
- Even numbers to the left, uncover
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-24 / PDF 23
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
The alternate APFT. An alternate APFT is defined as push–ups, sit–ups and an alternate aerobic
event (2.5–mile walk, 800–yard swim, or 6.2–mile bicycle ride).
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-24 / PDF 24)
What are the seven basic principles of exercise?
- Regularity
- Progression
- Overload
- Balance
- Specificity
- Variety
- Recovery
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 10)
What are the three phases of fitness conditioning?
- Preparatory
- Conditioning
- Maintenance
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 14)
What are the five components of physical fitness?
- Cardio Respiratory Endurance
- Muscular Strength
- Muscular Endurance
- Flexibility
- Body Composition
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 9)
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
A minimum of 1 per every 15 soldiers
FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 14 / PDF 196
What is the DA form 705?
Physical Readiness Test Scorecard
Fitness tasks provide the framework for accomplishing all training requirements. The essential
elements of fitness tasks can be cataloged into what four groups?
- Collective Tasks
- Individual Tasks
- Leader Tasks
- Resources required for training
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 10 / PDF 168)
Name the two physical fitness formations?
- Extended Rectangular
- Circular
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 7 / PDF 119)
What Army Field Manual covers the M136 AT4?
FM 3-23.25 Chapter 2
What is the M136 AT4?
The M136 AT4 is a 84mm, lightweight, self-contained, antiarmor weapon. It consists of a free-
flight, fin-stabilized, rocket-type cartridge packed in an expendable, one-piece, fiberglass-
wrapped tube. (FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 15)
From which shoulder is the M136 AT4 fired?
Right shoulder only
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 15
What is the approximate length of the M136 AT4 Rocket?
18 inches
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
What is the approximate length of the M136 AT4 Rocket?
18 inches
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
What is the length of the M136 AT4?
40 inches
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 15
What is the maximum range of the M136 AT4?
2100 meters
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
What is the overall weight of the M136 AT4?
14.8 lbs
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
What is the maximum effective range of the M136 AT4?
300 meters
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
What is the minimum target engagement range of the M136 AT4?
Training - 30 meters
Combat – 15 meters
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16)
How many pre-fire checks are there for the M136 AT4 and what are they?
There are 11 pre-fire checks:
1. The rear seal, a brown acrylic plastic plate inside the venturi, is in place and undamaged.
2. The transport safety pin is in place and fully inserted. The lanyard is attached to the transport
safety pin and the launcher. The lanyard should already be wrapped around the launcher
clockwise and the transport safety pin inserted in the retainer hole counterclockwise.
3. The cocking lever is present and in the SAFE (uncocked) position.
4. The plastic fire-through muzzle cover is in place and undamaged. If it is torn or broken, cut it
out and check the launch tube to ensure it is clear of foreign objects. Remove any that you
find by turning the tube muzzle downward and gently shaking the launcher.
5. The launcher has the correct color-coded band.
6. The sights function properly. Open the sight covers to ensure the sights pop up and are
undamaged.
7. The forward safety does not move when you depress it.
8. The red trigger button is not missing.
9. The launcher body has no cracks, dents, or bulges.
10. The carrying sling is not frayed and is attached firmly to the launch tube.
11. The shoulder stop is not broken or damaged, and it unsnaps and folds down.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-11 / PDF 18)
If you have a misfire with the M136 AT4, what should you do?
Combat Environment:
• If the M136 AT4 launcher is armed (cocked), keep it pointed away from personnel and equipment
at all times.
• Release the forward safety.
• Remove your right hand from the firing mechanism and cock the weapon again.
• Try to fire again. If the launcher still does not fire, maintain the same firing position and return the
cocking lever to the SAFE (uncocked) position.
• Move the launcher from your shoulder, keeping the launcher pointed toward the enemy. Reinsert
the transport safety pin.
• Break off the sights to identify the misfired launcher.
• Place the launcher on the ground, pointed toward the enemy, and use another launcher. As soon
as you can, dispose of the misfired launcher IAW unit SOP.
Training Environment:
• If the M136 AT4 launcher is armed (cocked), keep it pointed away from personnel and equipment
at all times.
• Shout “Misfire” as soon as the launcher fails to fire, while maintaining the original sight picture.
• Release the forward safety.
• Recock the launcher. Immediately remove right hand from the firing mechanism and push the
cocking lever forward with the heel of the right hand until the lever locks with a loud clicking noise.
• Press the forward safety all the way down and try to fire again. If the launcher still fails to fire,
shout misfire, release the forward safety, and move the cocking lever to the SAFE (uncocked)
position. Move the launcher from shoulder, keeping the weapon pointed toward the target and
cradle the weapon in the left arm.
• Reinsert the transport safety pin, wait two minutes, then carefully lay the launcher on the ground
with the muzzle toward the target.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-23 / PDF 26)
How large and what does the back-blast area of the M136 AT4 consist of?
The black-blast area is 65 meters in a 90-degree fan behind the weapon. The distances are 5
meters combat and 60 meters training.
What is the FM concerning the M16/A2 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
Make sure you clear it
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship
- Preliminary Rifle Instruction
- Downrange Feedback
- Field Fire
- Advanced Rifle Marksmanship
- Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds.
Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier’s application of the integrated act of
firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 84)
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
- Steady Position
- Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
- Breathing
- Trigger Squeeze
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 76)
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
- Individual Foxhole supported
- Basic Prone unsupported
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-6 / PDF 82)
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
- Sight Alignment
- Placing of the Aiming Point
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 79)
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is remedial action?
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and
to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M16/A2.
- Try to place the weapon on safe
- Remove the magazine
- Lock the bolt to the rear
- Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M16/A2.
- Try to place the weapon on safe
- Remove the magazine
- Lock the bolt to the rear
- Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
Immediate action
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
Once. (If Rifle still fails to fire, apply remedial action)
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is a malfunction?
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine or ammo.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
Name the different categories of malfunctions on the M16/A2.
- Failure to feed, chamber or lock
- Failure to fire cartridge
- Failure to Extract
- Failure to Eject
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
What is stoppage?
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of
operation..
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
How do you clear a stoppage?
Apply immediate or remedial action
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / Glossary / PDF 336)
What does CLP stand for?
- Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
- Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
- Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
What does CLP stand for?
- Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
- Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
- Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M16/A2 Rifle?
- M193 – Ball
- M196 – Trace
- M199 – Dummy
- M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp)
- M855 – Ball (Green Tip)
- M856 – Tracer (Red Tip)
- M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-11 / PDF 52)
What are the four steps required in order to mechanically zero the M16/A2?
- Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2). - Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line on the left side of the carrying handle. - Position the apertures (5) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (6) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 30) - Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2). - Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line on the left side of the carrying handle. - Position the apertures (5) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (6) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 30)
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M16/A2?
- Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line (3) on the left side of the carrying handle. Then adjust the elevation knob one more click
clockwise. - Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 31)
Describe the weights of the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Without Magazine and Sling - 7.78 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 8.48 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 8.79 pounds
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
• Burst - 90 rounds per minute
• Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16/A2 Rifle?
3,100 feet per second
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
Describe the ranges for the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
• Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 550 meters
• Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 800 meters
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M16/A2 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M16/A2 Rifle?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M16A2 Rifle how much?
300 to 800 meters
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 7-31 / PDF 195
What is the overall length of the M16/A2 Rifle?
39.63 inches
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M16/A2 rifle?
- Feeding
- Chambering
- Locking
- Firing
- Unlocking
- Extracting
- Ejecting
- Cocking
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 66)
Describe the procedures for clearing the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE.
• Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down.
• To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to
move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you
have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no
ammo.
• With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper
portion of the bolt catch.
• Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger.
• Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward
position.
• Place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Close the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 66)
How do you perform a functions check on the M16/A2 Rifle?
- Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the
hammer should not fall. - Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall.
While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release
the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. - Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the
trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the
charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear
again. The hammer should fall.
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
Make sure you clear it
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship.
- Preliminary Rifle Instruction
- Downrange Feedback
- Field Fire
- Advanced Rifle Marksmanship
- Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds.
Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier’s application of the integrated act of
firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 84)
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
- Steady Position
- Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
- Breathing
- Trigger Squeeze
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 76)
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
- Individual Foxhole supported
- Basic Prone unsupported
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-6 / PDF 82)
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
- Sight Alignment
- Placing of the Aiming Point
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 79)
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is remedial action?
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and
to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M4.
- Try to place the weapon on safe
- Remove the magazine
- Lock the bolt to the rear
- Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M4.
- Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not
jammed. - Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear.
- Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a
cartridge, perform remedial action.) - Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward).
- Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure.
- Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
What are the steps required in order to mechanically zero the M4?
- Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2). - Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with
the index line (5) on the left side of the carrying handle. - Position the apertures (6) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (7) to align the index mark (8) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 34)
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M4?
- Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with
the index line (3) on the left side of the detachable carrying handle. The elevation knob remains
flush. - Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark (6) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 34)
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
Immediate action
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 PDF 57)
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 PDF 57)
What is a malfunction?
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine or ammo.
(FM 3-22.9 April 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
Name the different categories of malfunctions for the M4 Rifle.
- Failure to feed, chamber or lock
- Failure to fire cartridge
- Failure to Extract
- Failure to Eject
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
What is stoppage?
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of
operation..
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
How do you clear a stoppage?
Apply immediate or remedial action
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / Glossary / PDF 336)
What does CLP stand for?
- Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
- Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
- Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
Describe the M4 Rifle.
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, hand-
held, shoulder-fired weapon.
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M4 Rifle?
- M193 – Ball
- M196 – Trace
- M199 – Dummy
- M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp)
- M855 – Ball (Green Tip)
- M856 – Tracer (Red Tip)
- M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-11 / PDF 52)
Describe the weights of the M4 Rifle without magazine and sling, with sling and loaded 20 round
magazine and with sling and loaded 30 round magazine.
• Without Magazine and Sling - 6.49 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 7.19 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 7.50 pounds
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M4 Rifle.
• Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
• Burst - 90 rounds per minute
• Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
2,970 feet per second
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
Describe the ranges for the M4 Rifle.
• Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
• Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 500 meters
• Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 600 meters
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M4 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
• Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
• Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
- Closed
- 1/2 Open
- 3/4 Open
- Full Open
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 33)
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M4 rifle?
- Feeding
- Chambering
- Locking
- Firing
- Unlocking
- Extracting
- Ejecting
- Cocking
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 66)
What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
Only the Lower Assembly
FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-2 / PDF 35
Describe the procedures for clearing the M4 Rifle.
• Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE.
• Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down.
• To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to
move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you
have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no
ammo.
• With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper
portion of the bolt catch.
• Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger.
• Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward
position.
• Place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Close the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 66)
How do you perform a functions check on the M4 Rifle?
- Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the
hammer should not fall. - Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall.
While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release
the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. - Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the
trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the
charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear
again. The hammer should fall.
Once done installing the M18A1, how far behind the mine should the wire be secured?
1 meter
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
Describe the M18A1
A curved, rectangular-shaped weapon, with an olive drab molded case of fiberglass filled
polystyrene (plastic). In the front portion of the case is a fragmentation face containing steel
spheres embedded in a plastic matrix. The back portion of the case behind the matrix contains a
layer of explosives.
What is the M18A1 primarily used for?
It was designed for use against mass infantry attacks
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 2 / PDF 10
What is the first step in installing the M18A1?
Inspect the components
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
How much does the M18A1 weigh?
3.5 lbs
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 16
What color is a “training” M18A1?
Blue
How long is the wire that the M4 blasting cap is connected to?
100 ft
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 16
Name the components that are in the bandoleer of the M18A1
The M7 bandoleer has two pockets. One pocket contain the mine and the other contains:
• M40 test set • M57 firing device • M4 Electric Blasting cap Assembly • Instructions (FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 17)
Where will you find the instructions for the employment of the M18A1?
Under the flap of the bandoleer
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 17
What color is a “live” M18A1?
Green
What is the effective frontal range of the M18A1?
When detonated, the M18A1 mine will deliver spherical steel fragments over a 60° fan-shaped
pattern that is 2 meters high and 50 meters wide at a range of 50 meters
(FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 2 / PDF 10)
Who keeps the M57 firing device while the M18A1 is being installed?
The individual installing the mine
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 3 / PDF 19
What Field Manual covers the M18A1?
FM 23-23
What are the two sites used on the M18A1 to aim it?
Knife-edge and slit-type peep sights
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
When aiming the M18A1 using the slit-type peepsight, how far above the ground do you aim?
2 and 1/2 meters above the ground
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
When aiming the M18A1 using the knife edge sight, how far above the ground do you aim?
You aim at ground level
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
What type of explosive is used in the M18A1?
1.5 lbs composition C4 (plastic explosive)
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 7 / PDF 16
One M40 test set is included with how may M18A1 claymores?
1 in each case of 6
What is the killing zone of the M18A1?
About 20 to 30 meters
FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 10 / PDF 18
How far is the danger area to the rear of the M18A1?
16 meters (The mine firing position should be in a foxhole or covered position at least 16
meters to the rear or the side of the emplaced mine.)
(FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5, 6)
What is the M2 .50 Cal machine gun used for?
Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft, support the infantryman in both attack and defense,
destroy lightly armored vehicles, provide protection for motor movements, vehicle parks and train
bivouacs, and reconnaissance by fire on suspected enemy positions
What is the weight of the M2 .50 Cal machine gun?
84 lbs
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
Which FM covers the M2 .50 Cal?
FM 3-22.65
What is the importance of correct headspace adjustment on the .50 Cal machine gun?
Incorrect headspace adjustment can cause a malfunction of the gun and lead to sluggish
operation or failure to function freely.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-1 / PDF 61)
What is the length of the barrel of the .50 Cal?
45 inches
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What is the maximum range of the .50 Cal?
6,764 meters
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What is the muzzle velocity of the .50 Cal?
3,050 ft per sec
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What is the description of the .50 Cal, HB, M2 Machine Gun?
The Browning machine gun caliber .50 HB, M2 is a belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crew-
served machine gun. The gun is capable of single shot, as well as automatic fire, and operates on
the short recoil principle.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10)
What is the maximum effective range of the .50 Cal against point and area targets?
• Point targets Single shot- 1,500 meters
• Area shot- 1,830 meters
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
To control the rate of fire on the M2, the gunner may use what methods of fire?
• Single shot • Slow • Rapid • Cyclic (FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
Describe the Single Shot method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Place the gun in the single-shot mode and engage the target with aimed shots. The machine gun
is accurate out to 1,500 meters.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
Describe the Slow method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Slow fire consists of less than 40 rounds per minute, in bursts of five to seven rounds, fired at 10-
to 15-second intervals.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
Describe the Rapid method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Rapid fire consists of more than 40 rounds per minute, fired in bursts of five to seven rounds, at
5- to 10-second intervals.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 86)
Describe the Cyclic method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Cyclic fire is when the weapon fires 450 to 550 rounds per minute.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 86)
What is the length of the .50 Cal, overall?
Approximately 65.13 inches
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What is the cyclic rate of fire of the M2 .50 Cal?
450-550 rounds a minute
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What type of front sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
A semi-fixed blade type with cover
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10
What type of rear sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
A leaf type rear sight graduated in both yards and mils
FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10
What are the common malfunctions of the M2 .50 Cal?
• Failure to function freely
• Uncontrolled automatic fire
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-1 / PDF 61)
What are the common stoppages of the M2 .50 Cal?
• Failure to feed • Chamber • Lock • Fire • Unlock • Extract • Eject • Cock (FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-2 / PDF 61)
What are the ten major components and assemblies of the M2 .50 Cal?
- Barrel Group
- Carrier Assembly
- Back plate Group
- Receiver Group
- Bolt Stud
- Cover Group
- Barrel Buffer Body
- Barrel extension group
- Bolt Group
- Driving Spring Rod Assembly
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-3 / PDF 14)
What are the proper procedures for performing immediate action on the M2 .50 Cal?
If machine gun fails to fire, take the following action:
1. Wait 5 seconds; a hangfire may be causing the misfire. In the next 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the
rear (check for ejection and feeding of belt), release it, re-lay on the target, and attempt to fire. If
the bolt-latch release and trigger are depressed at the same time, the bolt goes forward and the
weapon should fire automatically.
2. If the gun again fails to fire, wait another 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the rear (engage with the bolt
latch if applicable), and return the retracting slide handle to its forward position. Open the cover
and remove the belted ammunition. Inspect the gun to determine the cause of stoppage.
A hangfire or cookoff can cause injury to personnel or damage to the weapon. To avoid these, the
gunner must take the following precautions:
1. Always keep the round locked in the chamber the first 5 seconds after a misfire occurs. This
prevents an explosion outside of the gun in event of a hangfire.
2. If the barrel is hot, the round must be extracted within the next 5 seconds to prevent a cookoff.
When more than 150 rounds have been fired in a 2-minute period, the barrel is hot enough to
produce a cookoff.
3. If the barrel is hot and the round cannot be extracted within the 10 seconds, it must remain locked
in the chamber for at least 5 minutes, to guard against a cookoff.
4. Keep the gun cover closed during the waiting periods.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-3 / PDF 63)
If you turn the M203 windage screw one increment, how far does that move the strike of the
round at 200 meters?
1 and 1/2 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-9 / PDF 62
What is the maximum range of the M203?
About 400 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a fire team sized area target?
350 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a vehicle or weapon point target?
150 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
What is the minimum arming range of the 40 mm round fired from the M203?
14 to 38 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
What is the rate of fire of the M203?
5 to 7 rounds per minute
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
What Field Manual covers the M203?
FM 3-22.31
What is the casualty radius of a M203 40 mm HE round?
5 meters (FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-6 / PDF 59)
What are the 4 fundamentals of M203 marksmanship?
- Steady Position
- Aiming
- Breathing
- Trigger Control
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-1 / PDF 38)
The M203 uses several fixed type, low velocity 40 mm rounds. Name some of the common
types of rounds used.
- M433 – High Explosive Dual Purpose
- M406 – High Explosive
- M83A1 (white), M661 (Green), M662 (Red) – Star Parachute
- M585 – White Star Cluster
- M713 (Red Smoke), M715 (Green Smoke), M716 (Yellow Smoke) – Ground Marker
- M781 – Practice
- M651 – Tactical CS
- Buckshot
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-4 / PDF 22)
What are the two common malfunctions of the M203?
- Failure to cock
- Failure to lock
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 34)
What are the five common stoppages of the M203?
- Failure to fire
- Failure to extract
- Failure to eject
- Failure to chamber
- Safety Fails to stay in position
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 35)
What are the two types of sights on the M203?
- Leaf
- Quadrant
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-3 / PDF 18)
Describe the M203.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding
barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to an M16 rifle series, or the M4 carbine series
with the M203A1, and M4 carbine series with the rail system.
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 15)
At what range do you zero the M203?
200 meters
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-9 / PDF 61
How must you maintain the M203 Grenade Launcher in varying climates?
• Extreme Heat: Lubricate with CLP, grade 2.
• Damp or Salty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently.
• Sandy or Dusty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently. Remove excess CLP
with a rag after each application.
• Temperatures Below Freezing: When the weapon is brought in from a cold area to a warm area,
keep it wrapped in a parka or blanket, and allow it to reach room temperature gradually. If
condensation forms on the weapon, dry and lubricate it at room temperature with CLP, grade 2,
before returning it to cold weather. Otherwise, ice will form inside the mechanism.
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-7 / PDF 29)
How long should you wait before opening the breach to unload the weapon if you happen to
have a misfire with the M203?
30 seconds
FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-3 / PDF 36
What is the weight of the M240B?
Approximately 27.6 pounds
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
What Field Manual covers the M240B?
FM 3-22.68 Chapter 3
Describe the M240B.
The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the
open bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 82)
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M240B?
100 Rounds per minute fired in 6 to 9 round bursts and 4 to 5 seconds between bursts. Barrel
change every 10 minutes.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
What is the rapid rate of fire for the M240B?
200 Rounds per minute fired in 10 to 13 round bursts and 2 to 3 seconds between bursts. Barrel
change every 2 minutes.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240B?
650 to 950 Rounds per minute fired in continuous bursts. Barrel change every minute.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 84)
What is the maximum range of the M240B?
3725 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B with tripod and T&E?
1100 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for an area target?
Tripod – 1,100 meters
Bipod – 800 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target?
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
What is the length of the M240B?
49 inches
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
What is the maximum tracer burnout for the M240B?
900 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
What types of ammunition can be used with M240B?
• M80 – Ball • M61 – Armor Piercing • M62 – Tracer • M63 – Dummy • M82 – Blank (FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-3 / PDF 86)
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M240B?
- Move the safety to the fire “F” position.
- With his right hand, (palm up) pulls the cocking handle to the rear, ensuring the bolt is locked to
the rear (bipod mode). - Return the cocking handle to its forward position.
- Place the safety on safe “S.”
- Raise the cover assembly and conduct the four-point safety check for brass, links, or ammunition.
• Check the feed pawl assembly under the cover.
• Check the feed tray.
• Lift the feed tray and inspects the chamber.
• Check the space between the face of the bolt and chamber to include the space under
the bolt and operating rod assembly. - Close the feed tray and cover assembly and place the safety to the fire “F” position. Pull cocking
handle to the rear, and pull the trigger while manually riding the bolt forward. Close the ejection
port cover.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-6 / PDF 90)
What are the proper procedures for performing a function check on the M240B?
- Places the safety on “F.”
- Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt to the rear of the receiver.
- Returns the cocking handle to the forward position.
- Places the safety on “S,” and closes the cover.
- Pulls the trigger. (Bolt should not go forward).
- Places the safety on “F.”
- Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, pulls the trigger, and rides the bolt forward.
- Closes the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-11 / PDF 108)
What is the maximum range of the M249 (SAW)?
3,600 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 with tripod and T+E?
1,000 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
What is the maximum range of the M249 against an area target for both tripod and bipod?
Tripod – 1,000 meters
Bipod – 800 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
What is the maximum range of the M249 against a point target for both tripod and bipod?
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
What does S.A.W. stand for?
Squad Automatic Weapon
What is the weight of the M249?
16.41 pounds
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M249?
1,000 rounds (in 200 round drums)
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
What is the length of the M249?
40.87 inches
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
Describe the M249.
The M249 machine gun is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic
weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 7)
What FM covers the M249?
FM 3-22.68
What are the rates of fire for the M249?
• Sustained rate is 100 rounds per minute
• Rapid rate is 200 rounds per minute
• Cyclic rate is 650 to 850 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
What are the proper procedures for clearing the M249?
- Moves the safety to the fire “F” position by pushing it to the left until the red ring is visible.
- With his right hand, palm up, pulls the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt in place.
- While holding the resistance on the cocking handle, moves the safety to the SAFE position by
pushing it to the right until the red ring is not visible. (The weapon cannot be placed on safe
unless the bolt is locked to the rear.) - Returns and locks the cocking handle in the forward position.
- Raises the cover and feed mechanism assembly, and conducts the five-point safety check for
brass, links, or ammunition:
(1) Checks the feed pawl assembly under the feed cover.
(2) Checks the feed tray assembly.
(3) Lifts the feed tray assembly and inspects the chamber.
(4) Checks the space between the bolt assembly and the chamber.
(5) Inserts two fingers of his left hand in the magazine well to extract any ammunition or
brass. - Closes the cover and feed mechanism assembly and moves the safety to the “F” position. With
his right hand, palm up, returns the cocking handle to the rear position. Presses the trigger and at
the same time eases the bolt forward
What are the 8 major groups of the M249?
- Operating Rod Group
- Barrel Group
- Handguard Group
- Buttstock and Buffer Assembly Group
- Trigger Mechanism Group
- Gas Cylinder Group
- Bipod Group
- Receiver Group
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-6 / PDF 19)
The M249 is loaded, fired, unloaded and cleared from what bolt position?
The open bolt position
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 33
What are the steps to the cycle of functioning for the M249?
• Feeding • Chambering • Locking • Firing • Unlocking • Extracting • Cocking (FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-16 / PDF 35)
How do you adjust for windage with the M249?
Adjustments for windage are made by traversing the rear sight right and left along the sliding
scale.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-17 / PDF 37)
How do you adjust for elevation with the M249?
Adjustments for elevation (range) require the automatic rifleman to turn the elevation knob
(closest to the buttstock) on the rear sight to the desired range setting.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-17 / PDF 37)
Name 3 assault firing positions used with the M249
- Shoulder
- Hip
- Underarm
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
What are two unique features of the M249?
It has a regulator to change the rate of fire, and it is fed by M16 magazines as well as belt fed
What is the FM that covers the M60?
FM 3-22.68
What is the weight of the M60?
23 Pounds
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
What is the maximum effective range of the M60?
1,100 meters with Tripod and T+E
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
What feature of the M60 allows the user to change the barrels rapidly?
A fixed headspace
What are the sustained, rapid and cyclic rates of fire for the M60?
Sustained – 100
Rapid – 200
Cyclic – 550
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 50)
What is the most effective rate of fire for the M60?
6-9 round bursts with 4-5 seconds between bursts.
What is the tracer burnout range for the M60?
900 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
What is grazing fire?
Horizontal fire in the vicinity of the knee to the waist high area on the enemy
What is the maximum range of grazing fire for the M60 over level or uniformly sloped terrain?
600 meters
FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
What is always the Number 1 target on an M60 range card?
The FPL (Final Protective Line)
What are the 5 types of ammunition used with the M60?
- M80 - Ball
- M62 - Tracer
- M61 - Armor piercing
- M63 - Dummy
- M82 - Blank
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49)
What weapon is scheduled to replace the M60 machine gun?
The M240B
Describe the M60.
The M60 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed, automatic machine gun that fires from
the open-bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 48)
The M60 is fired with the bolt in what position?
The open bolt position
How often should the barrel be changed on the M60?
• Sustained rate of fire- every 10 minutes
• Rapid rate of fire- every 2 minutes
• Cyclic-every minute
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 50)
Name 2 common malfunctions of the M60
- Sluggish operation
2. Runaway gun
What should you do if you have a “runaway gun” with the M60 Machine Gun?
Break the belt
How many barrels are issued with the M60?
2 barrels
What are the proper procedures to clear the M60 Machine Gun?
- Moves the safety lever to the “F” position.
- With his right hand, palm up, pulls the cocking handle in the rear. Moves the safety lever to the
“S” position. Returns and locks the cocking handle in the forward position. - Raises the cover and conducts the four-point safety check for brass, links, or ammunition.
(1) Checks the feed pawl assembly under the cover.
(2) Checks the feed tray.
(3) Lifts the feed tray and hanger assembly and inspects the chamber.
(4) Checks the space between the face of the bolt and the chamber.
- Closes the cover and moves the safety lever to the “F” position. Pulls the cocking handle to the
rear position. Pulls the trigger and at the same time eases the bolt forward by manually riding the
cocking handle forward. - Places the safety lever on “S” and raises the cover. (If not disassembling the gun, keep the cover
down.)
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-5 / PDF 56)
How do you perform a function check on the M60?
- Open the cover and pull the cocking handle to the rear.
- Place the safety on “S” position.
- Return the cocking handle to the forward position.
- Close the feed tray cover.
- Place the safety on “F” position.
- Grasp the cocking handle with the right hand, pull the trigger with the left hand, and ease the bolt
forward.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-10 / PDF 68)
How many spring-loaded fins are attached to the M72A2/A3 LAW?
6
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-4 / PDF 42
What is the muzzle velocity of the M72A2 and M72A3?
475 fps
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
Describe the M72A2/A3 LAW
The M72A2/A3 LAW is a lightweight, self-contained, antiarmor weapon consisting of a rocket
packed in a launcher . It is man-portable, may be fired from either shoulder.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-1 / PDF 41)
What is the length of the Launcher of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
• Closed- 24.8 inches
• Fully extended- 34.67 inches
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
About the Rocket in the M72A2 and the M72A3, how long is it and how much does it weigh?
• Length- 20 inches
• Weight- 2.2 lbs
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
What FM covers the use of the M72 LAW?
FM 3-23.25 Chapter 5
What is the Minimum range of the M72A2 and the M72A3 in a combat environment?
10 meters
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
What is the Maximum Range of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
1000 meters
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
What is the Maximum Effective range of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
• Stationary target- 200 meters
• Moving Target- 165 meters
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
Because the M72-series LAW is issued as a round of ammunition rather than as a weapon,
inspection is limited to a visual examination of the sealed unit. How do you inspect the M72
series LAW?
• Check the body for dents, cracks, or bulges.
• Check the rubber boots covering the trigger bar and barrel detent for
• Ensure the arming handle is present and on SAFE and that the pull
• Check the data plate for the phrase, W/COUPLER.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-16 / PDF 46)
What is the first thing that you should do before engaging a target with the LAW?
Determine its range
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-34 / PDF 56
What kind of projectile is fired form the LAW?
A 66 mm high explosive, antitank (HEAT), percussion ignited, fin-stabilized, fixed munitions
rocket.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-6 / PDF 42)
What is the first step in preparing the LAW for use?
Inspect its overall condition
F FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-25 / PDF 52
What is the weight of a complete M72A2?
5.1 lbs
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
What is the weight of a complete M72A3?
1.5 lbs
FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
If you have a misfire with the M72A2/A3 LAW, what should you do?
Combat Environment:
• Squeeze the trigger again immediately.
• If the launcher still fails to fire, place the trigger arming handle on SAFE.
• Partly collapse the launcher, than extend it to cock it again.
• Place it on your shoulder, check the backblast area again, and then arm, aim, and fire the
launcher.
• If the LAW still fails to fire, squeeze the trigger again and return the trigger arming handle to
• SAFE. Collapse the launcher, set it aside, and try another one. As soon as possible, dispose of
the misfired LAW IAW unit SOP.
Training Environment:
• Squeeze the trigger again.
• If the launcher still fails to fire, keep the launcher on your shoulder, announce “Misfire,” and wait
10 seconds. Place the trigger arming handle on SAFE.
• Move the launcher from your shoulder and wait one minute.
• Extend the launcher to cock it again, check the backblast area, place the launcher back on your
shoulder, pull the arming handle to the ARM position, aim, and squeeze the trigger bar.
• If the launcher again fails to fire, wait 10 seconds before returning the trigger arming handle to the
SAFE position.
• Keep the launcher trained on the target area at least one minute; DO NOT collapse the launcher.
• Move the launcher to a safe area and dispose of it IAW unit SOP.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-28 / PDF 55)
What is the weight of the M9 pistol with an empty magazine?
2.1 Pounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
Describe the M9 pistol.
The M9 pistol is a 9-mm, semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil-operation, double-action weapon
chambered for the 9-mm cartridge.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1 / PDF 9)
Describe the magazine for the M9.
A standard staggered box magazine designed to hold 15 rounds
What is the weight of the M9 pistol with a 15 round magazine?
2.6 pounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M9?
45 Rounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
How many rounds can a magazine designed for the M9 hold?
15 Rounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What are the two types of ammunition used by the M9?
- Cartridge, 9-mm ball, M882 with/without cannelure).
- Cartridge, 9-mm dummy, M917.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-3 / PDF 12)
What Field Manual covers the M9?
FM 3-23.35
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M9?
- Place the decocking/safety lever in the SAFE down position.
- Hold the pistol in the raised pistol position.
- Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine from the pistol.
- Pull the slide to the rear and remove any chambered round.
- Push the slide stop up, locking the slide to the rear.
- Look into the chamber to ensure that it is empty.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-4 / PDF 13)
What are the steps required to perform a function check for the M9?
- Clear the pistol in accordance with the unloading procedures.
- Depress the slide stop, letting the slide go forward.
- Insert an empty magazine into the pistol.
- Retract the slide fully and release it. The slide should lock to the rear.
- Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine.
- Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the SAFE position.
- Depress the slide stop. When the slide goes forward, the hammer should fall to the forward
position. - Squeeze and release the trigger. The firing pin block should move up and down and the hammer
should not move. - Place the decocking/safety lever in the fire POSITION.
- Squeeze the trigger to check double action. The hammer should cock and fall.
- Squeeze the trigger again. Hold it to the rear. Manually retract and release the slide. Release the
trigger. A click should be heard and the hammer should not fall. - Squeeze the trigger to check the single action. The hammer should fall.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-9 / PDF 15)
What are the steps to the cycle of operation of the M9?
- Feeding
- Chambering
- Locking
- Firing
- Unlocking
- Extracting
- Ejecting
- Cocking
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 17)
How do you perform immediate action for the M9?
- Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the FIRE position.
- Squeeze the trigger again.
- If the pistol does not fire, ensure that the magazine is fully seated, retract the slide to the rear,
and release. - Squeeze the trigger.
- If the pistol again does not fire, remove the magazine and retract the slide to eject the chambered
cartridge. Insert a new magazine, retract the slide, and release to chamber another cartridge. - Squeeze the trigger.
- If the pistol still does not fire, perform remedial action.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
How do you perform remedial action for the M9?
- Clear the pistol.
- Inspect the pistol for the cause of the stoppage.
- Correct the cause of the stoppage, load the pistol, and fire.
- If the pistol again fails to fire, disassemble it for closer inspection, cleaning, and lubrication.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
What are the major components of the M9?
• Slide and Barrel assembly • Recoil spring and Recoil Spring guide • Barrel and Locking Block Assembly • Receiver • Magazine (FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 11)
What is the maximum range of the M9?
1800 meters
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What is the maximum effective range of the M9?
50 meters
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What are the three safety features found on the M9?
- Decocking
- Safety Lever
- Firing Pin Block
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10)
What is the weight of the M11 pistol with an empty magazine?
26.1 Ounces
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
Describe the M11 pistol.
The M11 pistol is a 9-mm, semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil-operation, double-action weapon
chambered for the 9-mm cartridge.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1 / PDF 9)
Describe the magazine for the M11.
A standard staggered box magazine designed to hold 13 rounds
What is the weight of the M11 pistol with a 13 round magazine?
29.1 Ounces
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M11?
39 Rounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
How many rounds can a magazine designed for the M11 hold?
13 Rounds
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What are the two types of ammunition used by the M11?
- Cartridge, 9-mm ball, M882 with/without cannelure).
- Cartridge, 9-mm dummy, M917.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-3 / PDF 12)
What Field Manual covers the M11?
FM 3-23.35
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M11?
- Place the decocking/safety lever in the SAFE down position.
- Hold the pistol in the raised pistol position.
- Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine from the pistol.
- Pull the slide to the rear and remove any chambered round.
- Push the slide stop up, locking the slide to the rear.
- Look into the chamber to ensure that it is empty.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-4 / PDF 13)
What are the steps required to perform a function check for the M11?
- Clear the pistol in accordance with the unloading procedures.
- Depress the slide stop, letting the slide go forward.
- Insert an empty magazine into the pistol.
- Retract the slide fully and release it. The slide should lock to the rear.
- Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine.
- Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the SAFE position.
- Depress the slide stop. When the slide goes forward, the hammer should fall to the forward
position. - Squeeze and release the trigger. The firing pin block should move up and down and the hammer
should not move. - Place the decocking/safety lever in the fire POSITION.
- Squeeze the trigger to check double action. The hammer should cock and fall.
- Squeeze the trigger again. Hold it to the rear. Manually retract and release the slide. Release the
trigger. A click should be heard and the hammer should not fall. - Squeeze the trigger to check the single action. The hammer should fall.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-9 / PDF 15)
What are the steps to the cycle of operation of the M11?
- Feeding
- Chambering
- Locking
- Firing
- Unlocking
- Extracting
- Ejecting
- Cocking
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 17)
How do you perform immediate action for the M11?
- Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the FIRE position.
- Squeeze the trigger again.
- If the pistol does not fire, ensure that the magazine is fully seated, retract the slide to the rear,
and release. - Squeeze the trigger.
- If the pistol again does not fire, remove the magazine and retract the slide to eject the chambered
cartridge. Insert a new magazine, retract the slide, and release to chamber another cartridge. - Squeeze the trigger.
- If the pistol still does not fire, perform remedial action.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
How do you perform remedial action for the M11?
- Clear the pistol.
- Inspect the pistol for the cause of the stoppage.
- Correct the cause of the stoppage, load the pistol, and fire.
- If the pistol again fails to fire, disassemble it for closer inspection, cleaning, and lubrication.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
What are the major components of the M11?
• Slide and Barrel assembly • Recoil spring and Recoil Spring guide • Barrel and Locking Block Assembly • Receiver • Magazine (FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 11)
What is the maximum range of the M11?
1800 meters
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What is the maximum effective range of the M11?
50 meters
FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
What are the three safety features found on the M11?
- Decocking
- Safety Lever
- Firing Pin Block
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10)
What size projectile is fired from the MK19?
40 mm
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / PDF 1
What is a special feature of the barrel of the MK19?
It is designed to not overheat even after prolonged firing
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF –8
What is a MK64, MOD7?
The gun cradle for the MK19
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 39
Describe the MK19.
An air-cooled, blowback operated, belt-fed machine gun that is fed by a disintegrating metallic-
link belt and fires 40mm grenade cartridges
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 7)
What is the length of the MK19?
43.1 inches
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12
What is the maximum range of the MK19?
2,212 meters
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
What is the maximum effective range of the MK19?
• Point - 1,500 meters
• Area - 2,212 meters
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13)
What are the rates of fire for the MK19?
• Sustained- 40 rds/min
• Rapid- 60 rds/min
• Cyclic- 325-375 rds/min
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13)
What is the muzzle velocity of the MK19?
798ft per second
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
What are the two most common malfunctions of the MK19?
• Runaway gun
• Sluggish action
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-4 / PDF 142)
When taking immediate action for a “runaway gun” with the MK19, should you ever break the
ammo belt?
No
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-4 / PDF 144
One click in rear site windage equals how many change?
1 mil
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 8
What mounts are available for the MK19?
• M3 Tripod • M4 Pedestal • M66 Ring • HMMWV Weapons Platform • M113 APC Commander's cupola (FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
Describe the sight system for the MK19.
The MK19 has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly and a leaf-type rear
sight (with an adjustable range plate) mounted on a spring dovetail base. The rear sight range
plate is incremented in 100-meter intervals from 300 to 1500 meters. Range changes are made
using either the slide release or the elevation wheel. The rear sight is also adjustable for windage
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 8)
What is the weight of the MK19 weapon system?
• System weight (Gun, Cradle and Tripod with feed throat) = 143 lbs • MK19 with feed throat = 78 lbs • MK64 = 21 lbs • M3 (tripod) = 44 lbs (FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
What are the approved methods of destruction for the MK19?
• Mechanical means • Burning • Gunfire • Demolition • Disposal (FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-9 / PDF 37)
What FM covers the MK19?
FM 3-22.27
What is the average recoil force of the MK19?
500 lbs
FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
What is the type of ammunition fired from the MK19?
• M430 (HEDP) • M383 (HE) • M918 (TP) • M922 (DUMMY) (FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 10)
What are the 6 steps in the MK19 cycle of operation?
- Charging
- Extracting (delinking)
- Cocking
- Firing
- Blowback
- Automatic Feeding
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 15)
What are the proper procedures to clear a MK19?
In a Firing Situation:
1. Move the safety switch to S (SAFE).
2. Open the top cover assembly. If all the ammunition has NOT been fired, the bolt is to the rear and
a round is on the bolt face. If the bolt is forward, lock it to the rear
3. Take the ammunition from the feed tray by reaching beneath the feed tray and pressing the
primary and secondary positioning pawls. While pressing the position pawls, slide the linked
rounds out of the MK 19 through the feed throat.
4. Insert a section of the cleaning rod or bayonet through either side of the receiver rail. Place it on
top of the live round or cartridge case, as close to the bolt face as possible, and push down. This
action forces the round out of the MK 19.
5. Lower and pull both charger handles to the rear.
6. Inspect the chamber and bolt face to ensure that no live rounds are in the weapon.
7. Place the safety switch on F (FIRE) (Figure 2-6).
8. Maintain rearward pressure on the charging handle, press the trigger and ease the bolt forward.
9. Place the safety switch on S (SAFE).
In a Non-Firing Situation:
1. Place the safety switch on S (SAFE) (Figure 2-6).
2. Open the top cover assembly.
3. Lower one or both charger handles.
4. Pull the charger handle slightly to the rear.
5. Allow sufficient space between the face of the bolt and the chamber to see both.
6. Check for live ammunition.
7. Ride the bolt forward.
8. Return the charger handle to its original upright position.
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-3 / PDF 18)
What are the proper procedures for performing immediate action on the MK19?
During peacetime and training:
1. The gunner ensures the safety of other personnel and clears the weapon of ammunition by
performing the following steps in sequence:
• Clear the area of personnel.
• Pull bolt to the rear. If the bolt does not go to the rear, go to BOLT JAMMED.
• Catch the live round as it is ejected.
• Push the charging handles forward and up.
• Put the gun on S (SAFE) and check for any bore obstructions.
• If bore is clear, move safety switch from the S (SAFE) to the F (FIRE) position, and
attempt to fire.
• If nothing happens, put gun on S (SAFE) and wait 10 seconds.
• Pull the bolt to the rear.
• Catch the live round as it is ejected.
• Open the top cover and clear the ammunition.
• Check bore for any obstructions.
2. Charge the MK 19 in the normal manner and check to see the primary pawls have clicked up
behind the cartridge in front of the bolt face and that the secondary pawls have clicked up behind
the next round before firing. The feed pawls should click up within the 1-inch of charging handle
travel.
3. If the primary and secondary pawls do not click up within the last 1-inch of charging travel, follow
these procedures:
• Turn the MK 19 into unit level maintenance.
• Record ammo lot number, type of ammo, number of rounds fired, serial number of the
MK 19 and indicate whether ammo is linked with one-piece or two-piece links.
During Combat:
1. Press charger handle locks and rotate charger handles down.
2. Pull charger handles to the rear until the bolt sears.
3. Push charger handles forward and rotate charger handles up and lock.
4. Relay and fire.
5. Turn in live rounds that cycled through the weapon as instructed by current directives.
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-1 / PDF 139)
What is a hand grenade?
The hand grenade is a hand-held, hand-armed and hand-thrown weapon
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 7)
What is the effective casualty-producing radius of the M67 hand grenade?
15 meters
What are the components of a hand grenade?
• Body
• Filler
• Fuse Assembly
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 8)
What are the three characteristics of all hand grenades?
- Employment range is short
- Small effective casualty radius
- Delay element permits safe throwing
What FM covers Grenades and Pyrotechnic Signals?
FM 3-23.30
In what five areas can the hand grenade assist the individual soldier in the accomplishment of
the mission?
• Producing casualties • Signaling • Screening • Producing incendiary Riot control
What are the six types of hand grenades?
- Fragmentation – The grenades are used to produce casualties by high-velocity projection of
fragments. - Illuminating – This grenade is used to provide illumination of terrain and targets.
- Chemical – These grenades are used for incendiary, screening, signaling, training, or riot control.
- Offensive – This grenade is used for blast effect.
- Practice and Training – These grenades are used for training personnel in use, care and handling
of service grenades. - Nonlethal – This grenade is used for diversionary purposes or when lethal force is not desired.
How do you inspect unpacked grenades or grenades stored in ammunition pouches?
- Inspect unpacked grenades daily to ensure that the safety pins are present.
- Check the body for rust or dirt.
- Make sure the lever is not broken or bent.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 2 / PDF 25)
What types of grenades should every soldier be able to identify?
- M67 Fragmentation
- M18 Colored Smoke
- AN-M8 HC Smoke
- AN-M14 TH3 Incendiary
- ABC-M7A2, ABC-M7A3 CS Riot Control
About the M67 Fragmentation Grenade:
• Body - steel sphere with scored steel spring for fragmentation
• Filler - 6.5 ounces of Composition B.
• Fuse - M213.
• Weight - 14 ounces.
• Safety clip - yes.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the M67 grenade 35 meters. The effective
casualty producing radius is 15 meters and killing radius is 5 meters.
• Color/markings – The M67 grenade has an olive drab body with a single yellow band at the top.
Markings are in yellow
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 12)
About the M18 Colored Smoke Grenade:
• Body - sheet steel cylinder with four emission holes at the top and one at the bottom which allow
smoke to escape when the grenade is ignited. (recently manufactured grenades do not have
bottom holes.)
• Filler - 11.5 ounces of colored smoke mixture (red, green, yellow, and violet).
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 19 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities - The average Soldier can throw the M18 grenade 35 meters. The grenade burns
for 50 to 90 seconds with an average burn time of 60 seconds.
• Color/markings – The M18 grenade is alight green with black markings. The top of the grenade
indicates the smoke color.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 13)
About the AN-M8 HC Smoke Grenade:
• Body – sheet, steel cylinder.
• Filler - 19 ounces of Type C, HC smoke mixture.
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 24 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the AN-M8 grenade 30 meters. The grenade
emits a dense cloud of white smoke for 105 to 150 seconds. The AN-M8 Grenade produces
harmful hydrochloric fumes that irritate the eyes, throat and lungs. It should not be used in
closed-in areas unless soldiers are wearing protective masks.
• Color/markings – The AN-M8 grenade has a light green body with black markings and a white
top.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 15)
About the AN-M14 TH3 Incendiary:
• Body - sheet metal.
• Filler - 26.5 ounces of thermate (TH3) mixture.
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 32 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the AN-M14 TH3 25 meters.. A portion of the
thermate mixture is converted to molten iron, which burns at 4,000 degrees Fahrenheit. It will fuse
together the metallic parts of any object that it contacts. Thermate is an improved version of
thermite, the incendiary agent used in hand grenades during World War II. The thermate filler of
the AN-M14 grenade burns for 40 seconds and can burn through a 1/2-inch homogeneous steel
plate. It produces its own oxygen and will burn under water.
• Color/markings - gray with purple markings and a single purple band (current grenades). Under
the standard color-coding system, incendiary grenades are light red with black markings.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 20)
About the ABC M7A2 and ABC M7A3 CS Riot Control:
• Body – Sheet metal with four emission holes at the top and one at the bottom.
• Filler – The ABC M7A2 has 5.5 ounces of burning mixture and 3.5 ounces of CS in gelatin
capsules. The ABC M7A3 has 7.5 ounces of burning mixture and 4.5 ounces of CS pellets
• Fuse – M201A1 MOD2
• Weight – 15.5 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw either of these grenades 40 meters. Both
grenades produce a cloud of irritant agent for 15 to 35 seconds.
• Color/markings – Both grenades have gray bodies with red band and red markings.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 17)
What is the purpose of the D.A. Military Awards Program?
The objective of the DA Military Awards Program is to provide tangible recognition for acts of
valor, exceptional service or achievement, special skills or qualifications, and acts of heroism not
involving actual combat.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-12 / PDF 11)
What is the highest peacetime award for valor?
The Soldiers Medal
AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 3-12 / PDF 28
During peacetime, who is the approving authority for the Soldier’s Medal?
HQ Perscom
AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / Table 3-1 / PDF 33
What is an Award?
A decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or appurtenance bestowed on an individual or a unit
What is a decoration?
An award to an individual for a specific act of gallantry or service
What is DA Form 7013?
Certificate of Appreciation
What are the six groups that individual awards can be categorized into?
- Decorations
- Good Conduct Medal
- Service Medals
- Service Ribbons
- Badges and Tabs
- Certificates and Letters
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-13 / PDF 11)
What is the highest award given by the Army in time of war?
The Medal of Honor
What is engraved on the reverse side of the Medal of Honor?
The grade, name, and organization of the awardee are engraved on the reverse of the Medal of
Honor.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-32 / PDF 15)
What is engraved on the reverse side of every Decoration or Good Conduct Medal other than
the Medal of Honor?
The name of the awardee only
AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-32 / PDF 15
How many stars are on the blue silk shield that the Army Medal of Honor is suspended from?
13
Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor?
The U.S. Congress
Who awards the Medal of Honor?
The President of the United States
AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-31 / PDF 14
What is the word inscribed on the suspension bar of the Medal of Honor?
“Valor”
Whose profile is on the Medal of Honor?
Minerva, the roman goddess of wisdom and righteous war
What is the order of precedence for the wearing of individual awards?
- U.S. Military Decorations
- U.S. Non-Military Decorations
- Prisoner of War Medal
- Good Conduct Medal
- U.S. Army Reserve Components Achievement Medal
- U.S. Service Medals and Service Ribbons
- U.S. Merchant Marine Decorations
- Foreign Decorations (Does not include Service Medals and Ribbons)
- Non-U.S. Service Medals and Ribbons
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-40 / PDF 16)
Name the ribbon awarded to members of the US Army for successful completion of the Basic
and AIT?
The Army Service Ribbon
What is the DA Form 2442?
Certificate of Achievement
What is the time limit for recommending an award?
Two Years
How many “V” devices may be worn on a ribbon?
Not more than 1
The “V” Device is authorized for wear on what decorations?
- Distinguished Flying Cross
- Bronze Star Medal
- Air Medal
- ARCOM
- Joint Service Commendation Medal
How many different weapons are authorized component bars?
19
For what is the Good Conduct Medal given?
For exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity
What three words are inscribed on the front of the Good Conduct Medal?
Honor, Efficiency, and Fidelity
Who is the approving authority for the Good Conduct Medal?
The Company Commander
How often can you get the Good Conduct Medal?
Every 3 years
Who are the final approving authorities for the AAM, ARCOM, MSM, LM and DSM?
- AAM = Lieutenant Colonel and above
- ARCOM = Colonel and above
- MSM = Major General and above
- LM = Lieutenant General and above
- DSM = U.S. Army Chief of Staff
Who can make recommendations for an award?
Any person having knowledge of an outstanding act or achievement
To whom is the Purple Heart awarded?
To anyone, military or civilian, wounded or killed in action against an armed enemy
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 2-8 / PDF 18)
What is the second highest award for valor?
The Distinguished Service Cross
What was the first medal awarded in the U.S. Army?
The Purple Heart
In the order of precedence, what are the U.S. Unit Awards authorized for wear on Army
Uniforms?
- Presidential Unit Citation (Army, Air Force).
- Presidential Unit Citation (Navy).
- Joint Meritorious Unit Award.
- Valorous Unit Award.
- Meritorious Unit Commendation (Army).
- Navy Unit Commendation.
- Air Force Outstanding Unit Award.
- Coast Guard Unit Commendation.
- Army Superior Unit Award.
- Meritorious Unit Commendation (Navy).
- Navy “E” Ribbon.
- Air Force Organizational Excellence Award.
- Coast Guard Meritorious Unit Commendation.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-6 / PDF 290)
What was the Purple Heart initially awarded for?
It was awarded for valor in the revolutionary war
What is a DA Form 4950?
Good Conduct Medal Certificate
What decoration has George Washington’s picture on it?
The Purple Heart
Who is the approving authority for the Army Achievement Medal?
The battalion commander
What is a DA Form 87?
Certificate of Training
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the AAM?
For Military Achievement
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the ARCOM?
For Military Merit
What is a Fourragere?
A ropelike device worn to signify the award of a foreign decoration
When can a unit award be worn?
When serving with a unit that received an award or if you were assigned to the unit when the
award was assigned
Name the four Special Skills Tabs.
- Ranger
- Special Forces
- Presidents Hundred
- Sapper
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
AR 670-1
Name three appurtenances.
- Oak leaf clusters
- “V” Devices
- Numerals
- Clasps
- Service Stars
- Arrowhead
- Berlin Airlift Device
- Ten-Year Device
- “M” Device
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-12 / PDF 301)
If the number of authorized oak leaf clusters exceeds four and will not fit on a single ribbon,
what will happen?.
A second ribbon is authorized for wear. When the second ribbon is worn, it is placed after the first
ribbon; the second ribbon counts as one award. Personnel may wear no more than four oak leaf
clusters on each ribbon. If the receipt of future awards reduces the number of oak leaf clusters
sufficiently (that is, a silver oak leaf for five awards), personnel will remove the second ribbon and
place the appropriate number of devices on a single ribbon.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-12 / PDF 301)
What DA Form is used to recommend /request an award?
DA Form 638
What Army Regulation governs Awards and Decorations?
AR 600-8-22
When was the Medal of Honor established?
1862
AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 3-6 / PDF 27
Why is the Purple Heart different than all the other decorations?
While clearly an individual decoration, the Purple Heart differs from all other decorations in that
an individual is not “recommended” for the decoration; rather he or she is entitled to it upon
meeting specific criteria.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-40 / PDF 16)
What are the three U.S. Army Combat Badges?
- Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)
- Combat Action Badge (CAB)
- Combat Medical Badge (CMB)
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)?
Personnel in the grade of Colonel or below with an infantry or special forces military occupational
specialty who have satisfactorily performed duty while assigned as a member of an
infantry/special forces unit, brigade or smaller size, during any period subsequent to 6 December
1941 when the unit was engaged in active ground combat. There is specific criteria for each
conflict that must also be met.
What are the four specific eligibility requirements for the Combat Action Badge (CAB)?
- May be awarded to any soldier.
- Soldier must be performing assigned duties in an area where hostile fire pay or imminent danger
pay is authorized. - Soldier must be personally present and actively engaging or being engaged by the enemy, and
performing satisfactorily in accordance with the prescribed rules of engagement. - Soldier must not be assigned/attached to a unit that would qualify the soldier for the CIB/CMB.
Can the Combat Action Badge be awarded to members of the other U.S. Armed Forces and
foreign Soldiers?
Yes, provided they were assigned to a U.S. Army unit and meet the four specific eligibility
requirements for the award of the CAB.
May Soldiers may be awarded the CIB, CMB and CAB for the same qualifying period?
Yes, provided the criteria for each badge is met. However, subsequent awards of the same
badge within the same qualifying period are not authorized.
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Medical Badge (CMB)?
The following medical personnel, assigned or attached by appropriate orders to an infantry unit of
brigade, regimental, or smaller size, or to a medical unit of company or smaller size, organic to an
infantry unit of brigade or smaller size, during any period the infantry unit is engaged in actual
ground combat are eligible for award of the badge, provided they are personally present and
under fire during such ground combat:
1. Subsequent to 6 December 1941 – Army Medical Department (Colonels and below), the Navy
Medical Department (Captains and below), the Air Force Medical Service (Colonels and below),
assigned or attached to the Army, who have satisfactorily performed medical duties.
2. Subsequent to 19 December 1989 – Special Forces personnel possessing military occupational
specialty 18D (Special Operations Medical Sergeant) who satisfactorily performed medical duties
while assigned or attached to a Special Forces unit during any period the unit is engaged in
actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards
are not authorized.
3. Subsequent to 16 January 1991 – Personnel outlined in (1) above, assigned or attached to Armor
or ground Cavalry units of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily performed medical duties
while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and
under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized.
4. Subsequent to 11 September 2001 – Personnel outlined in (1) and (3) above, assigned or
attached to or under operational control of any ground Combat Arms units (not to include
members assigned or attached to Aviation units) of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily
performed medical duties while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat provided they are
personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized.
Awards will not be made to general or flag officers. Specific eligibility requirements by geographic
area are listed in Army Regulation 600-8-22.
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
AR 670-1
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.
Why are all Soldiers in the U.S. Army now authorized to wear the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S. Flag Cloth Replica upon gaining permission from their commander?
The Nation is at war and will be for the foreseeable future. As an expeditionary Army, our Soldiers’ commitment to fight and win our Nation’s War, at home and abroad, is best exemplified by permanently wearing the U.S. Flag insignia on the utility uniforms.
What AR covers the issue and sale of personal clothing?
AR 700-84
When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear
with uniform?
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is complete protective
headgear must be removed and army headgear donned
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-17 / PDF 33)
When must Identification Tags be worn?
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or OCONUS
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-16 / PDF 33)
What does “ECWCS” stand for?
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?
Corporal through SGM of the Army and also the Officer Ranks.
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-8 / PDF 227
What is a CVC uniform?
Combat Vehicle Crewman’s Uniform (Tanker’s Uniform)
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
• Hospital duty Uniforms • Food Service Uniforms • Flight uniforms • CVC Uniforms (AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-14 / PDF 32)
How is the beret properly worn?
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch
above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped
over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the
ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the
edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the
head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 3-5 / PDF 41)
Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?
Chaplains
When is the wear of Army uniforms prohibited?
• In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in
off-duty civilian employment.
• When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public
demonstrations, except as authorized by competent authority.
• When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist
organization.
• When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army.
• When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-10 / PDF 31)
Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which circumstances?
• Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of military vehicles.
• The wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately owned vehicle (to include a
motorcycle, bicycle, or convertible automobile), a commercial vehicle, or on public conveyance
(such as a subway, train, plane, or bus).
• Soldiers will not wear headgear indoors unless under arms in an official capacity, or when
directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities.
• Male and female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events (after
Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniforms, the enlisted green dress uniform, the
Army green maternity dress uniform (females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-10 / PDF 31)
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293)
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
Where are unit awards worn on the male Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8
above the right breast pocket flag
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 299)
Where are unit awards worn on the female Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the
bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 300)
What are the dimensions of the dress uniform nameplate?
1 x 3 x 1/16 of an inch
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-24 / PDF 271
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Class A uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower
portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Class A uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a
similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform
to individual body-shape differences.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Class A uniform?
The wearers left
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Class A uniform?
The wearers right
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Class A Uniform?
No more than 3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
No more than 3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
How are service ribbons worn on the male Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293).
How are service ribbons worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Class A Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or
foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the
RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 268)
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Class A uniform?
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk
approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside
edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 254)
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Class A uniform?
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is worn so the bottom of
the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8
inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the
lapel.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 255)
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Class A uniform?
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the notch, centered on
the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Class A uniform?
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from
the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
How are service stripes placed on the Class A uniform?
The service stripes are worn centered on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve on the Army
green uniform coat. The service stripe is placed at an angle of 45 degrees with the lower end
toward the inside seam of the sleeve, and it is placed 4 inches from the bottom of the sleeve. For
each additional period of 3 years honorable service, another service stripe is added above and
parallel to the first stripe, with a 1/16-inch space between stripes
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 274)
One service stripe represents how many years?
3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275
What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform trousers worn
by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through
SMA?
The trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC will not have a gold stripe along
the legs which can be found on the trousers worn by CPL through SMA.
As a “rite of passage” when a Soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO Corps, what is
added to the Army Blue Service Uniform?
The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a
Service Cap.
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293)
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Blue Service Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or
foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the
RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 268)
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Blue Service
Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign
badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned
to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 269)
Where are unit awards worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8
above the right breast pocket flag
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 299)
Where are unit awards worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the
bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 300)
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower
portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a
similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform
to individual body-shape differences.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Army Blue Service
uniform?
The wearers left
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Army Blue Service
uniform?
The wearers right
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Army Blue Service
Uniform?
No more than 3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
No more than 3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
How are service ribbons worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293).
How are service ribbons worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk
approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside
edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 254)
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is worn so the bottom of
the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8
inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the
lapel.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 255)
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the notch, centered on
the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from
the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
How are service stripes placed on the Army Blue Service uniform?
The service stripe is worn centered from seam-to-seam on the outside bottom half of both
sleeves. The first stripe is sewn on an angle of 30 degrees, with the lower end inserted in the
front inside seam, 1⁄4 inch above the cuff braid. The upper end of the stripe is inserted in the back
seam of the sleeve. Each additional stripe is spaced 1⁄8 inch apart from the last, and above the
first stripe.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275)
One service stripe represents how many years?
3
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275
Which items are considered part of the ACU ensemble and also authorized for wear with the
BDU?
- Rigger Belt
- Moisture Wicking T-Shirt (tan)
- Green socks
- Army Combat Boots – Hot weather and Temperate weather (tan)
Can the Black all-weather coat be worn as a raincoat while wearing BDUs?
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment when organizational rain gear has not been issued
What is the proper distance of the shoulder patch from the seam of the shoulder on the BDU?
1/2 inch
How is the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S. Flag Insignia placed on the BDU Uniform?
If the Soldier has a Shoulder Sleeve Insignia-Former Wartime Service (SSI-FWTS) (Also
commonly called a “combat patch), the insignia is placed 1/8 inch below the SSI-FWTS. If the
Soldier does not have a SSI-FWTS, the insignia is placed 1/2 inch below the right shoulder seam.
What is the estimated lifetime of the new ACU?
6 months. (ACU is made with the same nylon/cotton rip-stop fabric as the current Enhanced Hot Weather BDU (EHWBDU). The current EHWBDU has an estimated wear life of six months.)
Explain the new digitized pattern.
The new pattern is designed to work in the three primary combat environments, – Woodland,
Desert and Urban. Though not optimized for any particular environment, it is effective in all three.
Describe the rank and grade insignia on the ACU.
The rank and grade will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener, expect
major and 2nd lieutenant; which will be bronze embroidery with hook fastener. The olive drab
areas of the warrant officer rank will be foliage green.
Can embroidered badges be worn on the ACU?
No, embroidered badges will not be worn on the ACU.
Describe the Name tape / U.S. Army tape for the ACU.
The U.S. Army Tape will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener. The
finished length will be 5 inches.
How is the Name tape / U.S. Army tape worn on the ACU?
Immediately above and parallel with the slanted chest pocket flaps
Describe the rank insignia dimensions used on the ACU.
Private through Colonel – 2 inches by 2 inches with hook fastener
Brigadier General and Major General – 2 inches by 2 inches overall with hook fastener
Lieutenant General – 2 inches by 3 1⁄4 inches with both hook and loop fasteners attached.
General Officer – 3⁄4 inch stars point to vertex 1/8 inch apart
Soldiers may wear up to five skill badges on the ACU. All skill badges will be worn above the
U.S. Army tape in order of precedence from the wearers left. How would you wear 1,2,3,4, or and 5
skill badges?
1 Badge – Worn 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape.
2 Badges – Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with 1⁄4 inch
between badges.
3 Badges - Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with 1⁄4 inch
between badges.
4 Badges – Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the
U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and 1⁄2 inch between badges horizontally.
5 Badges - Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the
U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and 1⁄2 inch between badges horizontally.
The 5th badge is placed 1⁄4 inch above and centered on the top two badges.
Branch insignia will not be worn with the ACU with one exception. Who is allowed to wear
branch insignia and how is it worn?
U.S. Army Chaplaincy religious denomination insignia may be worn 1/8 inch above and centered
on the name tape. The insignia will be pin on only.
How will the SSI (Unit Patch) and the SSI-FWTS (Combat Patch) be worn on the ACU?
The SSI will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left sleeve
of the coat.
The SSI-FWTS will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the
right sleeve of the coat.
How will the U.S. Flag insignia be worn on the ACU?
The U.S. Flag insignia is worn on the right shoulder pocket flap of the ACU coat.
How many skill tabs can be worn on the ACU?
No more than 3
How are skill tabs worn on the ACU?
Centered on the shoulder pocket flap of the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left
shoulder of the ACU coat in order of precedence IAW AR 670-1.
Can a Soldier wear the Black All weather coat as a raincoat with the ACU?
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment.
How is the ACU patrol cap worn with the ACU?
Personnel wear the patrol cap straight on the head so that the cap band creates a straight line
around the head, parallel to the ground. The patrol cap will fit snugly and comfortably around the
largest part of the head without distortion or excessive gaps. The cap is worn so that no hair is
visible on the forehead beneath the cap. At their discretion, individuals may wear the earflaps
down during cold weather, except in formation when the commander may prescribe wear policy
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 3-5 / PDF 42)
What type of rank is authorized to be worn on the ACU patrol cap?
Sewn or Pin on rank.
How is the name tape worn on the ACU Patrol Cap?
The name tape will be worn centered on the hook and loop pad on the back of the ACU Patrol
Cap.
When the ACU trouser leg is bloused, what is the maximum distance that it may extend down
the boot?
The bloused trouser legs should not extend below the third eyelet from the top of the boot..
Describe the proper process for washing the ACU.
- Wash in cold water and mild detergent containing NO optical brighteners or bleach.
- Tumble dry at low heat (not to exceed 130 degrees fahrenheit)
- Remove immediately from dryer and fold flat or place on a rustproof hanger to ensure heat from
the dryer does not set wrinkles. - To drip dry, remove from the washer/water and place on a rustproof hanger. Do not wring or
twist.
What are the components of the IPFU?
- Jacket, running, gray and black.
- Pants, running, black.
- Trunks, running, black, moisture-wicking.
- T-shirt, gray, short sleeve, moisture-wicking.
- T-shirt, gray, long sleeve, moisture-wicking.
- Cap, knit, black
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-2 / PDF 85)
When authorized by the Commander, may the IPFU be worn on and off post and on and off
duty?
Yes, Soldiers may wear all or part of the IPFU with civilian attire off the installation, when
authorized by the commander.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-4 / PDF 85)
What is the only insignia authorized for wear on the IPFU according to AR 670-1?
The Physical Fitness Badge
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-5 / PDF 85
How is the Physical Fitness Badge properly placed on the IPFU?
When the physical fitness badge is worn, it is sewn on the upper left front side of the IPFU T-shirt.
On the IPFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1⁄2 inch above the word “Army.”
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-5 / PDF 85)
Are Soldiers authorized to wear commercially purchased gray or black spandex shorts under
the IPFU trunks?
Yes, The length of the shorts must end above the knee or higher. The commercial shorts must be
plain, with no logos, patterns, or obtrusive markings. Soldiers are not required to buy the spandex
shorts.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-3 / PDF 85)
Who are the only Soldiers authorized to wear the IPFU shirt outside of the trunks?
Pregnant Soldiers
AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-6 / PDF 85
Can Commanders authorize the wear of commercial items be worn with the IPFU?
Commanders may authorize the wear of commercial running shoes, calf-length or ankle-length,
plain white socks with no logos, gloves, reflective belts or vests, long underwear, and other items
appropriate to the weather conditions and type of activity. If soldiers wear long underwear or other
similar items, they must conceal them from view when wearing the running jacket and pants of
the IPFU.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-3 / PDF 85)
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
20 December 1976
What is Sergeant’s Business?
To train and lead soldiers
What is a Sergeant?
A leader
Explain the Chain of Command
The succession of commanders superior to subordinates through which command is exercised
Define Responsibility
Being accountable for what you do
How does the Chain of Command support the NCO support channel?
By legally punishing those who challenge a sergeant’s authority
Define Duty.
Duty is a legal or moral obligation to do what should be done without being told to do it
What is the role of the CSM?
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
How does a Commander exercise command?
Through subordinate commanders
When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
4 July 1966
Is the CSM in the Chain of Command?
No (but he supervises the NCO support channel)
What are key elements of command?
Authority and Responsibility
What is the NCO Support Channel?
It is the channel of communication that reinforces the Chain of Command
What must a Sergeant have in order to accomplish Sergeant’s Business?
The Skill, ability and Leadership to train soldiers for combat and lead them into combat
Who is the only member of both your chain of command the your NCO support channel?
Your first line supervisor, section, squad or team leader
What does FM 6-22 cover?
Army Leadership (Competent, Confident and Agile)
What does FM 7-0 cover?
Training the force
Define Leadership.
Leadership is influencing people—by providing purpose, direction, and motivation—while
operating to accomplish the mission and improving the organization.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-1 / PDF 145)
What is purpose?
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired outcome.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 12)
What is direction?.
Providing clear direction involves communicating how to accomplish a mission: prioritizing tasks,
assigning responsibility for completion, and ensuring subordinates understand the standard.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-10 / PDF 12)
What is motivation?
Motivation supplies the will to do what is necessary to accomplish a mission.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-12 / PDF 12)
Describe the “Be, Know and Do”.
Army leadership begins with what the leader must BE, the values and attributes that shape a
leader’s character. Your skills are those things you KNOW how to do, your competence in
everything from the technical side of your job to the people skills a leader requires. But character
and knowledge—while absolutely necessary—are not enough. You cannot be effective, you
cannot be a leader, until you apply what you know, until you act and DO what you must.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 11)
What are the thee principal ways that leaders can develop others through which they provide
knowledge and feedback?
- Counseling
- Coaching.
- Mentoring.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-67 / PDF 216)
A leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and developing what
areas?
- Military Bearing
- Physical Fitness.
- Confidence
- Resilience.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
What is military bearing?
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
What is physical fitness?
Having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health
and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
What is confidence?
Projecting self-confidence and certainty in the unit’s ability to succeed in whatever
it does; able to demonstrate composure and outward calm through steady control over emotion..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
What is resilience?
Showing a tendency to recover quickly from setbacks, shock, injuries, adversity, and
stress while maintaining a mission and organizational focus..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout
Soldiers’ and leaders’ careers?
- Institutional training.
- Training, education, and job experience gained during operational assignments.
- Self-development.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-53 / PDF 89)
What are the Leader Actions?
- Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational partners) to do what is
necessary. - Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for
future operations. - Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and
missions.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-7 / PDF 12)
What are the three levels of leadership?
- Direct - Direct leadership is face-to-face, first-line leadership.
- Organizational - Organizational leaders influence several hundred to several thousand people.
They do this indirectly, generally through more levels of subordinates than do direct leaders. - Strategic - Strategic leaders include military and DA civilian leaders at the major command
through Department of Defense levels. Strategic leaders are responsible for large organizations
and influence several thousand to hundreds of thousands of people.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 11)
What are the Army Values?
• Loyalty • Duty • Respect • Selfless Service • Honor • Integrity • Personal Courage (FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 2-7 / PDF 16)
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the
attributes of an Army leader?
- A leader of character
- A leader with presence.
- A leader with intellectual capacity.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-2 / PDF 145)
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader
competencies?
- An Army leader leads
- An Army leader develops
- An Army leader achieves.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-2 / PDF 145)
Why must leaders introduce stress into training?
Using scenarios that closely resemble the stresses and effects of the real battlefield is essential
to victory and survival in combat.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 10-43 / PDF 113)
What are intended and unintended consequences?
• Intended Consequences are the anticipated results of a leader’s decisions and actions.
• Unintended consequences arise from unplanned events that affect the organization or
accomplishment of the mission..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 9-12 / PDF 100)
What is communication?
A process of providing information
FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 7-87 / PDF 78
Name the two barriers of communications
- Physical
2. Psychological
Name some physical barriers of communication
- Noise of battle
* Distance
What is counseling?
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s
demonstrated performance and potential.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-1 / PDF 157)
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
- Event counseling
- Performance counseling
- Professional growth counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-3 / PDF 157)
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major factors that
determine a leaders character?
- Army Values
- Empathy
- Warrior Ethos
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 2-15 / PDF 18)
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
- ID the problem
- Gather information
- Develop criteria
- Generate possible solutions
- Analyze possible solutions
- Compare possible solutions
- Make and implement the decision
(FM 5-0 Jan 2005 / 2-23 / PDF 46)
What is reverse planning?
Reverse planning is a specific technique used to ensure that a concept leads to the intended end
state.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 9-18 / PDF 101)
To assess subordinates, leaders you must-
• Observe and record subordinates’ performance in the core leader competencies.
• Determine if the performances meet, exceed, or fall below expected standards.
• Tell subordinates what was observed and give an opportunity to comment.
• Help subordinates develop an individual development plan (IDP) to improve performance.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-59 / PDF 90)
What are the team building stages?
- Formation
- Enrichment
- Sustainment
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-97 / PDF 216)
Name some things in a unit that affect morale
- Mess
- Military justice
- Supply
- Billets
What are Beliefs?
Beliefs derive from upbringing, culture, religious backgrounds, and traditions.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 4-59 / PDF 46)
What Field Manual covers counseling?
FM 6-22 Appendix B
What are the characteristics of effective counseling?
- Purpose: Clearly define the purpose of the counseling.
- Flexibility: Fit the counseling style to the character of each subordinate and to the relationship
desired. - Respect: View subordinates as unique, complex individuals, each with a distinct set of values,
beliefs, and attitudes. - Communication: Establish open, two-way communication with subordinates using spoken
language, nonverbal actions, gestures, and body language. Effective counselors listen more than
they speak. - Support: Encourage subordinates through actions while guiding them through their problems.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-24 / PDF 160)
What are the three approaches to counseling?
- Directive
- Non-directive
- Combined
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Directive counseling.
Advantages:
• Quickest method.
• Good for people who need clear, concise direction.
• Allows counselors to actively use their experience.
Disadvantages:
• Doesn’t encourage subordinates to be part of the solution.
• Tends to treat symptoms, not problems.
• Tends to discourage subordinates from talking freely.
• Solution is the counselor’s, not the subordinate’s.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Non-Directive counseling.
Advantages: • Encourages maturity. • Encourages open communication. • Develops personal responsibility. Disadvantages: • More time-consuming • Requires greatest counselor skill. (FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Combined counseling.
Advantages: • Moderately quick. • Encourages maturity. • Encourages open communication. • Allows counselors to actively use their experience. Disadvantages: • May take too much time for some situations. (FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
- Event counseling
- Performance counseling
- Professional growth counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-3 / PDF 157)
What are some examples of Event counseling?
- Instances of superior or substandard performance.
- Reception and Integration Counseling.
- Crisis Counseling
- Referral Counseling
- Promotion Counseling
- Separation Counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-4 / PDF 157)
What areas would you cover in a reception and integration counseling?
• Chain of command familiarization..
• Organizational standards.
• Security and safety issues.
• Noncommissioned officer (NCO) support channel (who is in it and how it is used).
• On- and off-duty conduct.
• Personnel/personal affairs/initial and special clothing issue.
• Organizational history, structure, and mission.
• Soldier programs within the organization, such as Soldier of the Month/Quarter/Year, and
educational and training opportunities.
• Off limits and danger areas.
• Functions and locations of support activities.
• On- and off-post recreational, educational, cultural, and historical opportunities.
• Foreign nation or host nation orientation.
• Other areas the individual should be aware of as determined by the leader.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-9 / PDF 158)
