Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A radiograph intended to demonstrate the crowns and crestal 1/3 of the alveolar process of BOTH arches is called a?

A

Interproximal Radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of radiograph is used to demonstrate the entire tooth and its surrounding bone?

A

Periapical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List three physical characteristics of X-rays

A

wave length, energy, frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

High kVp settings produce x-rays that are more penetrating and have a?

A

shorter wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Small bundles or packets of electromagnetic radiation are called?

A

photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Approximately__% of the energy of the high speed electrons that collide with the target is converted into heat. What % is converted into x-rays?

A

99, and 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are x-rays produced?

A

the collision of high speed electrons with a target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many times each second does the voltage of an alternating electric current fluctuate from positive to negative?

A

60 times each second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The volt is used to describe?

A

electrical pressure pushing electrons through a wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The “target” side of the x-ray tube is called the?

A

anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The “filament” side of the x-ray tube is called the?

A

cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The low voltage circuit controls the number of free__________ available to strike the target.

A

electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

One kilovolt is equal to _______ volts

A

1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The milliamperage setting of the x-ray unit determines the _______ of the electrons _________

A

number

flowing through the wire in one second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An exposure timer set at 30 impulses (30/60) is equivalent to a __________ second exposure on a digital timer

A

1/2 or 0.50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

X-rays are absorbed by

A

matter; solid, liquid, or gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the aluminum filter prevent unnecessary exposure of the patient?

A

the aluminum filter selectively absorbs more of the long wave length radiations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The aluminum filter selectively removes the __________ wavelength x-rays that are not useful in producing a radio graphic image.

A

long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An x-ray unit operating at 70 kVp should have an aluminum filter equivalent to at least ___ mm of aluminum.

A

2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A properly collimated beam of dental x-rays should be ____________ inches at the patients skin.

A

2.75 in diameter or 7 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why are pointed plastic cones not recommended for dental radio graphic procedures?

A

pointed cones produce twice as much scattered radiation to the head and body than open cylinders (BID’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The quantity of x-rays produced by the x-ray unit is related to _______ or _________

A

penetrating ability

intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List the seven factors (under general considerations) that must be controlled to produce a proper diagnostic radio graph.

A

exposure time, milliamperage (MA), kilovoltage (kVp), BID length, film speed, film processing, size/body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mA and time influence the ________ of the x-ray beam

A

quanity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Penetrating power of the beam of radiation is determined by the

A

quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the size of the focal spot affect the quality of the radio graphic image?

A

It affects penumbra, small focal spots produce less penumbra than large focal spots. Penumbra is the area of partical shadow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What intraoral radio graphic principle will typically produce radio graphs of the maxillary molars with the foreshortened facial roots and an elongated lingual root?

A

Bisecting angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The dark gray or black areas of a radio graph are referred to as

A

radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The white or light gray areas of a radio graph are referred to as

A

radiopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List three examples of dental structures that are radiopaque

A

enamel, dentin, thick/dense bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List two examples of dental structures that are radiolucent

A

gingiva, pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What periapical radiograph is most likely to depict the lower board of the zygomatic arch?

A

maxillary premolar and molar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What periapical radiograph is most likely to demonstrate the coronoid process of the mandible?

A

maxillary premolar and molar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What radiograph is most likely to depict the incisive foramen?

A

maxillary anterior region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Given diagrams depicting periapical, or panoramic anatomic landmarks correctly identify the specified landmark

A

look at p39-40, 110, 111 for answer and then edit flash card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What radiograph is most likely to depict the genial tubercles?

A

mandibular anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What periapical radiograph is most likely to depict the mental foramen?

A

anatomy, mandibular, premolar, and molar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

High kilovoltage settings on the x-ray unit will tend to produce radiographs that exhibit ______ subject contrast

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Low kilovoltage settings on the x-ray until will tend to produce radiographs that exhibit ______ subject contrast

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Given illustrations of radiographs with the embossed dots up, identify whether they would represent maxillary or mandibular, right or left

A

mandibular, right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Density is a term related to the ________ of the film.

A

overall darkness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Somatic exposures using “F” speed film are ______ less than when “D” speed film is used.

A

1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which one of the film components is responsible for forming the image

A

silver halide crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the main purpose of the lead foil in the film packet?

A

to absorb scattered radiation from within the patients head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two major kinds of intensifying screens used in extraoral dental radiography?

A

panoramic and cephalometic (skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the recommended temperature for manually processing dental film

A

68-70 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why is time-temperature processing important?

A

the only way patient will receive the absolute minimum radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the purpose of the developing solution?

A

develop only exposed silver halide crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the purpose of the restrainer in the developing solutions?

A

prevents film fog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An appropriate safelight filter should be positioned at least ____ feet away from the counter top and contain a light bulb no bigger than _____ watts

A

4

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the main purpose of the fixing solution?

A

removes undeveloped silver halide crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sight development of dental radiographs may result in __________ to the patient and __________ quality radiographs

A

more radiation

poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What information must be included on the film mount? What information is optional?

A

date, patients name

optional; dentist name/address, name of exposing person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

List two items that might produce radiopaque artifacts on a radiograph

A

glasses, removable partials, earrings, body jewelry like tongue rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

List at least four causes of a lighter than normal radiograph

A

BID too far from the cheek, taking finger of exposure too fast, exposure too short, kVp set too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List at least three causes of a darker than normal radiograph

A

exposure too long, kVp too high, using D film exposure for a F speed film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How would a double exposed radiograph appear

A

2x darker and vaguely depicts two images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How would a backward film appear?

A

lighter than normal, herringbone or tire track pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What would a foreshortened image look like?

A

image that is too long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What would a elongated image look like?

A

image that is too short

61
Q

What is the main cause of a foreshortened radiographic image?

A

excessive vertical angulation

62
Q

What is the main cause of an elongated radiographic image?

A

insufficient vertical angulation

63
Q

Overlapped interproximal spaces are caused by

A

errors in horizontal angulation

64
Q

Cone cutting is the result of _________

A

errors in tube head alignment

65
Q

A bent film will cause the image of the teeth to appear

A

distorted

66
Q

A blurred or fuzzy image will be produced by

A

movement

67
Q

under developing a radiograph will produce an image that is _____ than a normal radiograph

A

lighter

68
Q

List three causes of an under developed radiograph

A

worn out/deteriorated developing solution, processing radiographs shorter time, cold developing solution

69
Q

An over developed radiograph will produce an image that is _______ than normal.

A

darker

70
Q

An under fixed radiograph will ________ with time

A

discolor

71
Q

Fixing a radiograph for several hours may produce a radiograph that appears ________ than normal

A

lighter/washed out

72
Q

White light exposing a film during processing will cause the radiograph to appear

A

too dark

73
Q

How would you test the darkroom for white light leaks?

A

masking tape, turn off all lights, allow 10-15 mins for eyes to adjust , mark each light with tape

74
Q

Describe a simple way to check for safelight film fog

A

coin test

75
Q

What test should be used to evaluate the adequacy of the darkroom safelight

A

test the film, type of safelight filter in use

76
Q

List three anatomic structures that may require modification of film placement procedures

A

Tongue tied, Tori, missing teeth

77
Q

What two intraoral radiographic procedures can be used to localize an object in all three dimensions of space?

A

Right angle localization-Miller’s Technic, shift shot/ Clark’s technic

78
Q

Define latent period as it relates to radiation biologic effects

A

can take hours, days, months, years, to appear

79
Q

List at least six factors that will influence radiation effects

A

type, dose, penetrating ability, acute/chronic exposure, whole body exposure, PDREF, dose and dose rate

80
Q

Are some radiation effects repairable

A

Sometimes, usually no

81
Q

List seven radiobiologically critical organs and the effects that they are known to develop

A

skin cancer, eye cataract, blood forming organs-Leukemia, thyroid-cancer, reproductive-mutations, fetus-defects, breast-cancer

82
Q

Dental radiographic procedures expose a __________ are of the patients face.

A

very localized

83
Q

List 4-5 examples of somatic tissues

A

muscles, bones, salivary glands, kidneys, skin

84
Q

List two types of radio sensitive tissues

A

blood forming (hematopoletic), reproductive tissue (ovaries & testies)

85
Q

List two types of radioresistant tissues

A

muscle, nerve

86
Q

List four types of tissues that are intermediate in radiation sensitivity

A

blood vessels, glands, connective tissues, bone

87
Q

Define the term radiosensitive and radioresistant

A

radiosensitive-very sensitive radioresistant- resistant to exposure

88
Q

Give two examples of a stochastic radiation effect

A

genetic mutations, and cancer/tumor induction

89
Q

Give two examples of a non stochastic/deterministic effect

A

erythema (reddening of the skin) epilation (loss of hair)

90
Q

List two examples of genetic/reproductive tissues

A

ovaries & testes

91
Q

Exposure of genetic tissues causes

A

inherited mutations

92
Q

An absorbed dose of 1 rad is equal to _____ milligray (mGy)

A

10

93
Q

List the six units used to measure radiation

A

gray (Gy), centigray (cGy), milligray (mGy), microgray (mGy), rad, millirad (mrad)

94
Q

Define in your own words the maximum permissible dose (MPD) concept of radiation protection.

A

It is the maximum dose of a lifetime a person occupationally or none can be exposed

95
Q

What is the MPD for a occupationally exposed person?

A

50 mSv or 5 rem/year

96
Q

What is the MPD for a non-occupationally exposed person?

A

5 mSv/yr or 0.5 rem/year

97
Q

What is the MPD for a pregnant occupationally exposed person?

A

5 mSv/yr or 0.5 rem/yr

98
Q

What is the ALARA concept of radiation protection. How does it differ from the MPD?

A

As low as reasonably achievable, not over exposing patient.

99
Q

A persons’ daily exposure to background radiation will be about _____mSv

A

3

100
Q

The National Council on Radiation Protection limits total lifetime occupational exposure to a formula: 10mSv x workers age in years. This occupational limit is called __________

A

individual lifetime effective dose

101
Q

What is background radiation? How much do we receive each year in mSv

A

Everyday radiation exposure within our environment. 0.9 mSv per year

102
Q

The average somatic dose per “D” speed periapical radiograph is about _________mSv/film

A

45%

103
Q

Digital imaging requires _______ less radiation than a conventional “D speed” radiograph

A

16%

104
Q

What is the risk of dental radiographs causing skin cancer, cataracts, sterility, thyroid cancer, birth defects?

A

not impossible, but very unlikely

105
Q

Leaded thyroid collars will reduce thyroid gland exposures by about _____

A

50%

106
Q

Leaded aprons will reduce _________radiation to the reproductive organs (gonads) by about _________

A

genetic exposure

98%

107
Q

Leaded thyroid collars and leaded aprons DO NOT reduce the amount of radiation exposing the

A

reproductive organs

108
Q

X-rays units with _________ timers are recommended because they use _______

A

electronic

shorter exposure times

109
Q

Film holding devices prevent exposure to the patient’s

A

fingers

110
Q

Approximately how many mechanisms have been identified within the nucleus of a cell that potentially minimize the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on DNA?

A

20- Human DNA damage repair system

111
Q

List at least six mechanisms that potentially minimize the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on DNA

A

resititution, enzymatic repair, dna structure, nuclear proteins, hormesis. p53 protein

112
Q

Compare the differences in the image quality of a panoramic radiograph with an intraoral periapical radiograph

A

panoramic has less detail than periapical

113
Q

How does the film used in panoramic radiography differ from the one used in intraoral radiography?

A

pano- requires intensifying screens, extra oral placements, intraoral “D or F” speed-intraoral placement

114
Q

Why are intensifying screens used with panoramic radiography important?

A

the film rotates around the patients head with the tube head

115
Q

Why is the sharply depicted plane an important concept to understand with panoramic radiography

A

patients teeth to show up on the film sharp and distinctly

116
Q

What is a supplementary radiographic technique

A

used to provide diagnostic radiographic information when normal procedure is difficult

117
Q

List the two types of occlusal radiographic techniques

A

cross section and topographic

118
Q

Name two radiographic localization procedures

A

shift-shot/clark’s technic/buccal & right angle/Miller’s technique

119
Q

A radiographic localization procedure requiring the use of a periapical radiograph AND a cross-section occlusal radiograph is called the

A

Right angle-Miller’s technique

120
Q

A radiographic localization procedure requiring the use of TWO periapical radiographs taken at different angles is call the

A

Shift shot/Clark’s technique

121
Q

What occlusal radiographic technique requires that the central ray be directed perpendicular to the bisector of the angle formed by the long axis of the tooth and the film plane?

A

Topographic Occlusal

122
Q

The radiographic localization technique most commonly used to locate the buccal-lingual position of an object in the mandible is the ______________ technique

A

cross section occlusal

123
Q

The radiographic localization technique most commonly used to locate the buccal-lingual position in the maxilla is the _____________ technique

A

Clark’s

124
Q

What is the primary purpose of an occlusal radiograph?

A

demonstrate extent of trauma, fractures, missing teeth, within mandible maxilla

125
Q

Why would your dentist ask you to take a radiograph using the “Miller’s”/Right-angle technique?

A

If he/she suspects impacted teeth

126
Q

A periapical radiograph of the maxillary molar region you have taken demonstrates overlapping of the interproximal spaces and that the mesial-buccal root of the 1st molar and the lingual root of the 1st molar are superimposed on each other. This indicates that the central ray was directed from a direction

A

Answer: B- too far from the mesial

Using the shift-shot principles, the object on the lingual moves IN the direction of tube-shift while the object on the buccal moves OPPOSITE to the direction of tube shift. Thus the mesial buccal and lingual roots superimpose on each other. Excessive horizontal angulation from the distal would cause the distal-buccal root and the lingual root to superimpose.

127
Q

What is a pixel?

A

The “heart” of a wired digital image receptor is a large silicone chip containing approx 220,000 discrete picture elements.

128
Q

In the digital imaging system using photostimulable phosphors, what is the location where the electrons are collected called?

A

luminescence centers

129
Q

List at least 4 advantages of digital imaging systems compared to conventional direct exposure film systems.

A

Almost, “instant” reduced patient exposure, elimination of a dark room, ability to manipulate the image

130
Q

List at least 4 disadvantages of digital imaging systems compared to conventional direct exposure film systems

A

small image detector size to conventional, high costs, storage issues, emerging technology

131
Q

What are the differences between PSP and CCD based digital imaging systems?

A

PSP is a crystalline halide compound, CCD has pixels, size is bigger

132
Q

What is the difference between the digital image receptor size and the “active area of the digital image receptor?

A

59% smaller than a #2 film and 49% smaller than a #1 film

133
Q

How many shades of gray does the computer software typically generate to create the digital image on the computer screen?

A

256

134
Q

What is the basic difference between an analog and digital image?

A

analog is a physical item, many shades of gray, digital is a image in numbers or digits

135
Q

What is the “privacy rule” established by the Dept. of Health and Human Services (HHS)?

A

address the use and disclosure of patients health info, establishes patients rights to understand

136
Q

What types (spoken, written, electronic, etc. ) of personal health information (PHI) are the HIPAA guidelines primarily intended to control? How do the HIPAA guidelines differ from the Texas Medical Privacy Act?

A

all of them. HIPAA controls and protects patient information from being shared

137
Q

What type of information constitutes “individually identifiable health information or PHI?

A

Demographic area, the provision of health care to the individual

138
Q

What is the primary purpose of the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

A

Keep providers or unauthorized people from sharing protected information about a patient

139
Q

What is the intent of the HIPAA policy relation to “the minimum necessary?”

A

dental offices implement policies and procedures to reasonably limit uses and disclosures to the minimum

140
Q

What are the four rights a patient has under HIPAA regulations related to their protected health information (PHI)

A

right to review/copy, right to a accounting of disclosures, request restricted use, right to amend info

141
Q

Under what circumstances will a state’s privacy rules preempt HIPAA regulations?

A

minor’s, injury, abuse, birth, or death

142
Q

Can you identify six specific elements in the Texas Medical Records Privacy Act that are different from HIPAA regulations?

A

includes more entities, limits the # of entities for info to be released, can’t market, written consent, prohibits re-identification, civil penalties

143
Q

What personal protective equipment should be work during intraoral radiographic procedures?

A

lead apron, thyroid collar, gloves, masks, lab coat

144
Q

What portions of the x-ray unit should be sprayed and/or wiped down before and after a radiographic procedure

A

chair, counter, surface, everything you or the patient touches

145
Q

What portion of the x-ray unit should never be sprayed with disinfectant?

A

control panel

146
Q

What portion of the panoramic unit should be covered with plastic wrap, or wiped down with disinfectant after the radiograph is taken?

A

tube head, exposure switch, counter, BID, apron

147
Q

Under what specific circumstances is it appropriate to hold the film in the patient’s mouth, or stabilize the tube head during a radio graphic exposure?

A

the parent, or guardian can, DA will not

148
Q

Where should the x-ray unit operator stand IF they can not get feet away from the patient during an exposure?

A

behind a appropriate barrier, outside the room