Board prep TrueLearn questions Flashcards

Random ass questions that I took for board prep

1
Q

In the very early stages of atherosclerosis, where would you find macrophages?

A

Macrophages will be found w/in “foam cells” in fatty streaks in the intimal layer of vessel walls during the very early stages of atherosclerosis.

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2
Q

What type of lung cancer will you find peripherally located in the lung?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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3
Q

What type of lung cancer will you find centrally located within the lung?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (Also heavily linked to smoking)

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4
Q

What is the primary treatment for overdose of an OTC medication which causes vertigo, nausea, vomiting, hyperpnea and tinnitus?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate is the initial treatment of a patient w/ Salicylate (Aspirin) toxicity.

Initially: Resp. alkalosis
Later: High anion gap metabolic acidosis

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5
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of pulmonary HTN in obstructive sleep apnea

A

The patient is unable to protect the upper airway from collapsing soft tissue results in gasping for air. The resulting hypoxia will trigger pulmonary vasoconstriction, resulting in pulmonary hypertension.

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6
Q

What is the causatory pathogen of a young child who presents w/ stridor, low-grade fever, barking cough and “steeple-sign” on radiograph?

A

“Croup,” or laryngotracheobronchitis is most commonly caused by a parainfluenza virus.

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7
Q

What is that A-a gradient, and what is considered normal?

A

The difference between the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli and the partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries. Normal is between 4 and 15.

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8
Q

A mid-diastolic rumble heard at the cardiac apex is indicative of what?

A

Mitral stenosis

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9
Q

What potentially fatal complication can come from taking an SSRI and a -triptan medication concomittantly?

A

Serotonin syndrome d/t the agonistic properties of -triptan meds and the increased serotonin in the neuronal cleft from the SSRI

Treat with Cyproheptadine, a serotonin receptor antagonist

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10
Q

What is the definition of chronic bronchitis, and what pulm function test changes would we expect to see?

A

Chronic Bronchitis, a form of COPD is: 3+ months of productive cough during each of 2 consecutive years.

PFTs: Decreased FEV1, Decreased FEV1/FVC, Increased TLC

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11
Q

What is a common pathologic organism found that causes respiratory symptoms, fever and fatigue which is found in the SE United states?

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum

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12
Q

A patient presents w/ a history of A-Fib, new onset visual blurriness and yellow halos. What is the mechanism of action of that at-fault drug?

A

Digoxin is a Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitor. You will find the following EKG for a patient suffering w/ Digoxin toxicity. commonly called the “Digitalis effect.”

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13
Q

What organ is at risk of rupture from Mononucleosis infection, and what embryologic layer is it derived from?

A

The spleen is derived from the mesoderm, along w/ the heart, blood, lymph vessels, kidneys, ovaries, testes and the cortex of the adrenal glands.

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14
Q

What heart valve is most at risk and from what organism in a patient with a history of IV drug use?

A

The tricuspid valve is most at risk for infection from Staph Aureus

Remember: Staph aureus is a gram+ cocci arranged in clusters. Coagulase + and beta-hemolytic

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15
Q

4-year old child presents w/ classic symptoms of Laryngotracheobronchitis including respiratory distress, stridor and a fever. What is the morphology of the causative agent?

A

Parainfluenza type 1 is a negative-sense ssRNA virus

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

Epiglottitis presemts with what?

A

Patients w/ Epiglottitis present w/ fever, sore throat, dysphagia, drooling and respiratory distress

Medical emergency! Danger of very rapid airway collapse

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18
Q

What organism is most likely at fault for a chronic alcohol abuser who presents w/ SOB, cough w/ thick bloody sputum and diabetes?

A

Klebsiella Pneumoniae, a gram-negative (RED) lactose fermenting bacillus

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19
Q

What is the antidote for beta-blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon. Patient will present w/ bradycardia, hypotension, mild hypoglycemia and fatigue. If blood pressure/HR fall enough, syncope may occur.

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20
Q

What is a normal V/Q ratio?

A

TRICK QUESTION! It varies throughout the lung – at the apex of the lung, ventilation > perfusion, so V/Q ~ 3.0. At the base of the lung, perfusion > ventilation, therefore V/Q ~ 0.8

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21
Q

What cardiac marker will you expect to be elevated in the setting of a Pulmonary Embolism?

A

D-Dimer

Also expect an INCREASED V/Q Ratio. Perfusion is decreased, therefore Ventilation/Perfusion will increase.

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22
Q

During acute re-feeding syndrome, what electrolytes are most at risk of fatal deficiency?

A

Magnesium, Phosphate, Potassium

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23
Q

Where do the potassium sparing diuretics exert their action?

A

There are 2 types -
1 - Aldosterone receptor antagonists such as Spironolactone and Epleronone which work on the distal convoluted tubule
2 - Epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC) blockers such as triamterene and amiloride which work in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct

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24
Q

What biomarker will be elevated, and in what demographic would you most expect to see Sarcoidosis?

A

ACE is non-specific, but can be elevated in up to 50% of pts.

Expect to see Sarcoidosis in black females

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25
Q

Clinically, what are the differences between typical and atypical pneumonia?

A

Atypical pneumonia is less severe, see below chart.

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26
Q

Which cytokine is responsible for increased ESR in the setting of inflammation, infection or malignancy?

A

IL-6

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27
Q

What medication can be used for both BPH and HTN and what is it’s MOA?

A

Terazosin, or other alpha-1 adrenergic inhibitors work well in this setting

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28
Q

Does increased INR mean faster or slower clotting time?

A

Increased INR (& PT) = SLOWER clotting time

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29
Q

A patient w/ acute pulmonary edema presents to the ER. What would lung biopsy show histologically?

A

Pink, acellular material within the alveoli

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30
Q

Briefly explain “Cardiac Index”

A

Cardiac index is the LV output in one minute to body size. Unit of measure = Liter/min/m^2

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31
Q

What is a first line pharmacotherapy for a hypertensive crisis which increases cGMP release?

A

Nitroprusside – On COMLEX, either this or Fenoldopam will be used for HTN crises.

32
Q

A patient present w/ cough, weight loss, dyspnea and a long history of smoking. What cancer is most likely, and what would be found histologically?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma is diagnosed by the presence of keratin production by the tumor cells. This also causes hyperCa2+

33
Q

What is the difference between dead space and shunt?

A

Dead space = Air & No blood

Shunt = Blood & No air

34
Q

Summarize the Gq pathway

A

Gq –> PLC –> PIP2 –> IP3 –> Increased intracellular Ca2+

This mostly occurs on smooth muscle

35
Q

Which medication is most likely to cause a case of NMS?

A

TYPICAL antipsychotics (D2 blockers) such as Haloperidol or Fluphenazine

36
Q

What coronary artery occlusion would be most likely to result in a papillary muscle rupture?

A

The papillary mm. are receive their sole source of blood from the posterior descending artery, so their rupture is most likely from a posterior wall MI.

37
Q

What is the most high sensitivity and specificity test for a patient w/ suspected pulmonary embolism?

A

Chest CT w/ angiography (CTA)

38
Q

A patient presents w/ a grey/white pseudomembrane on the hard palate, fever and lymphadenopathy. What is the morphology of the causative agent?

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae is a gram-positive rod that can cause diphtheria (a pseudomembrane is pathognomonic with diphtheria)

39
Q
A
40
Q

What are the diagnostic features of tetralogy of Fallot?

A

1- Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
2- Right ventricular hypertrophy
3- Ventricular septal defect
4- Overriding aorta

Seen on CXR as a boot -shaped heart outline

41
Q

What electrolyte changes will be present in a cardiac myocyte during an acute MI?

A

Decreased K+ influx d/t decreased ATP from decrease O2 supply. Not enough ATP = decrease in Na+/K+ ATPase pump action.

This ultimately results in sustained depolarization

42
Q

A 25 yo patient presents w/ classic aortic dissection symptoms. He is 6’5” w/ pectus excavatum, is extremely thin w/ long extremeties. What is the inherited defect?

A

Patients w/ Marfan syndrome have a defect in the FBN1 gene, which encodes for the connective protein Fibrillin-1. It presents in Autosomal Dominant patterns

43
Q
A
44
Q

At what spinal level is the aortic arch?

A

Roughly T4

45
Q

What are the clinical signs of a thyroid storm, and what is the initial treatment?

A

LOW TSH, excessive sweating, heat intolerance, tremors, altered mental status and tachycardia.

Initial treatment is a beta-blocker, which will control sympathetic overdrive, and decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

46
Q

Where is the Chapman’s point for the Pharynx, anteriorly?

A

On the 1st rib, 1 inch lateral to the sternum

47
Q

A patient presents w/ conjunctivitis several days after attending a pool party in which all the participants got the same thing. What is the morphology of the offending virus?

A

Double-stranded, non-enveloped, linear DNA. Adenovirus is a cause of what is known as “swimming pool conjunctivitis.”

48
Q

What will be the results of a peripheral blood smear for a symptomatic anemia patient on Phenytoin?

A

Phenytoin decreases activity of Intestinal Conjugase, which is necessary to convert folate into an absorbable form. Folate deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, so on a peripheral smear you would expect to see hypersegmented neutrophils.

49
Q

What is the main difference in MOA for first and second gen anti-histamines?

A

First gen (Diphenhydramine, Doxylamine) cause drowsiness d/t NON-selective antagonism of H1 receptors.

Second gen (Cetirizine, Loratadine) are selective H1 antagonists

50
Q

The parents of a patient w/ Cystic Fibrosis worry about the chances of having another child with the ailment. What is the possibility of this happening?

A

For Autosomal recessive diseases like CF, the chances of having an affected child is 25%

Remember – CF is d/t a mutation on the CFTR gene on chromosome 7. It causes sticky secretions and general failure to thrive.

51
Q

What is the diagnosis of a patient w/ a harsh systolic ejection murmur heard at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the neck?

A

It is most likely Aortic Stenosis, typically resulting from age-related calcific degeneration

52
Q

What is the most likely form of shock that a trauma patient will be suffering from?

A

Hypovolemic shock, even if there is no readily apparent bleeding – check internal!

53
Q

In a patient w/ hairy cell leukemia, what is the pathognomonic finding on peripheral blood smear?

A

Cytoplasmic projections on circulating lymphocytes

54
Q

Which collagen types are affected in Ehlers-Danlos?

A

Collagen types II and V

55
Q

What is the mechanism of action for an OTC medication that is used for symptomatic relief of an URI?

A

Pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine are alpha-1 agonists which provide relief from viral URIs

56
Q

Which sinus is the most commonly affected during a case of sinusitis?

A

Maxillary sinus (At least in adults)

57
Q

Define claudication

A

A condition in which cramping pain in the leg is induced by exercise, typically caused by obstruction of the arteries.

58
Q

A patient involved in an MVA develops dyspnea, tachypnea and tachycardia hours after admittance to the hospital. Patchy infiltrates in upper and lower lobes are seen on CXR. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Pulmonary contusion. A hemothorax and pneumothorax would present earlier and have different CXR findings

59
Q

What is the pathophysiology of aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease?

A

Poorly regulated arachidonic acid metabolism leads to out of control leukotriene formation. These increase airway edema, smooth muscle contraction and inflammatory mediators.

Look for the triad –
Sensitivity to NSAIDs
Asthma
Chronic rhinosinusitis w/ nasal polyps

Leukotriene inhibitors such as montelukast can be helpful in avoiding this.

60
Q

What is the appropriate gram stain for a patient with suspected TB?

A

Acid-Fast stain. Mycobacterium genus will be appropriately visualized on this stain

61
Q

This is just a refresh of viscerosomatic reflexes

A
62
Q

What disease is associated with Anti-Jo-1 antibodies, and what are the presenting symptoms?

A

Inflammatory myopathies such as dermatomyositis and polymyositis present w/ symmetric proximal msucle weakness, elevated serum creatine kinase.

Dermatomyositis: Heliotrope eruptions of the eyelash and Gottron papules on dorsal aspect of hand

63
Q

What is the causative agent of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

A

Staph Aureus

64
Q

What is the equation for number needed to treat?

A

1 / (0.40)-(0.30)

1 / ABSOLUTE risk reduction

If control group = 40% mortality and intervention group = 30% mortality, the equation is:

1 / (0.10)
=
10 people needed to treat to avoid one primary outcome

65
Q

What is the freedom of motion for a pronated radial head?

A

POSTERIOR (Remember, PROnated = POSTerior)

So, for a DIRECT treatment, we would put it DIRECTLY into the barrier, which would be ANTERIOR, or supinated

66
Q

What are staghorn stones made of and what are they due to?

A

Struvite (Staghorn) stones are the 2nd most common stone (second to calcium stones) and are mostly caused by infection. Can be quite large and lethal

67
Q

What court case ruled for the precedent of informed consent?

A

Schloendorff v. Society of New York Hospitals in 1914

68
Q

What is the morphology of the offending agent of a patient who was wounded 10 days ago by a rusty metal object, and now presents w/ lockjaw and muscle spasms?

A

Clostridium Tetani is a gramp positive, spore-forming rod.

69
Q

What is another name for a hemisected spinal cord?

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

Results in ipsilateral loss of touch and vibration below the lesion and contralateral loss of pain and temperature

70
Q

What is the confirmatory test for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?

A

Fasting gastric pH < 2 and fasting serum gastrin > 1,000 is confirmatory for a gastrin-releasing neuroendocrine tumor most likely located in the duodenum or the pancreas

71
Q

A patient presents w/ severe retrosternal pain after a bout of heavy drinking resulting in repeated vomiting x8 hours. There is tenderness to palpation in the epigastric area, and crackling heard on pulmonary auscultation. What is the diagnosis?

A

Boerhaave syndrome is a spontaneous rupture of the esophagus following sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure. It can result in mediastinal emphysema d/t air being let in from the ruptured esophagus.

72
Q

What disease is pathognomonic with “sawtooth” rete ridges of the epidermis into the dermis?

A

Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory disease which most commonly presents w/ purple papules with well-demarcated, irregular borders on the wrists, LE and genitoanal region. The lesions may exhibit Wickham’s striae, or a pattern of white lines.

73
Q

What is used to differentiate and categorize streptococcus species?

A

Their ability to hemolyze RBCs. Most streptococcus species are gram (+)

Viridans - Gram (+), Alpha hemolytic, Optochin-resistant
Pneumo - Gram (+), Alpha hemolytic, Optochin-sensitive
Pyogenes - Gram (+), Beta hemolytic

74
Q

What viscerosomatic level will you find changes at for a disease of the lungs?

A

T2-T7

Above: Heart, T1-T5
Below: Esophagus, T2-T8

75
Q

What are the levels of the Glasgow coma scale? What is good, what is bad?

A

GCS goes from 3-15. 3 is basically dead, 15 is normal.