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VUP-19 > Board Phase 1 ?'s > Flashcards

Board Phase 1 ?'s Flashcards

1
Q

Who wears blue jerseys?

A
  • Aircraft handling
  • Chock Crewman
  • Elevator Operator
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2
Q

Who wears yellow jerseys?

A
  • Aircraft Officers
  • Flight Deck Officers
  • CAT Officers
  • Air BOS’n Arresting Gear Officer
  • Plane Directors
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3
Q

Who wears purple jerseys?

A
  • Aviation Fuel Crew
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4
Q

Who wears brown jerseys?

A
  • Plane Captains
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5
Q

Who wears red jerseys?

A
  • Crash & Salvage
  • EOD
  • AO’s
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6
Q

Who wears green jerseys?

A
  • Squadron Aircraft Maintenance Personnel
  • Photographers
  • Helo Landing Enlisted
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7
Q

What is Newton’s 1st Law of Motion?

A

INERTIA

Objects at rest will remain at rest, or objects in motion will remain in motion until acted upon by an outside force.

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8
Q

What is Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion?

A

FORCE

Object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change in motion, or acceleration, is DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL to the amount of force and INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL to the mass of the object being moved.

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9
Q

What is Newton’s 3rd Law of Motion?

A

ACTION & REACTION

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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10
Q

List the axis of an aircraft.

A
  • Longitude: runs down the center line (roll)
  • Lateral: parallel to the wings (pitch)
  • Vertical: runs top to bottom (yaw)
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11
Q

Basic aircraft hydraulic system.

A
  • Pump
  • Actuator
  • Reservoir
  • Tubing (hydraulic line)
  • Selector Valve
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12
Q

What does the cyclic stick control?

A
  • Roll

- Pitch

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13
Q

What does a tail rotor control?

A

Yaw

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14
Q

3 objectives of first aid.

A
  • Maintain breathing
  • Stop bleeding
  • Prevent or treat for shock
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15
Q

What are the degrees of burns/

A

1st: red skin, mild pain
2nd: red skin, blisters, severe pain
3rd: charred black skin, possible nerve damage

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16
Q

3 ways to control bleeding.

A
  • Direct pressure
  • Pressure point
  • Tourniquet
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17
Q

What is the only universal and mandatory hand signal regardless of aircraft type?

A

Emergency Stop

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18
Q

What does a collective stick control?

A

Lift (Angle of Blades)

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19
Q

What is the required PPE on the flight line?

A
  • Cranial
  • Goggles
  • Leather gloves
  • Steel-toe boots
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20
Q

Class A Mishap

A

$2,000,000+ IN DAMAGE

Injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.

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21
Q

Class B Mishap

A

$500K - $2 MIL IN DAMAGE

Injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are hospitalized.

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22
Q

Class C Mishap

A

$50K - $500K IN DAMAGE

Non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the shift on which it occurred. 5 or more working days lost.

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23
Q

Class D Mishap

A

$20K - $50K IN DAMAGE

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24
Q

What is a HAZREP?

A

Report that lists a potential hazard in the work place

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25
Q

Who is responsible for maintenance department safety?

A

QAS

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26
Q

How often should oil consumption records be verified within limit?

A

Prior to every flight

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27
Q

What does OOMA stand for?

A

Optimized
Organizational
Maintenance
Activity

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28
Q

What is the compass calibration pad?

A

Magnetically quiet area

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29
Q

What are 3 types of audits?

A
  • Special
  • Work Center
  • Program
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30
Q

What is a Class A fire and what extinguishes it?

A
  • Ash producing material (i.e. wood, textiles, paper)

- H2O & AFFF

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31
Q

What is a Class B fire and what extinguishes it?

A
  • Flammable liquid substances

- AFFF, Halon 1211, Purple K Powder, CO2

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32
Q

What is a Class C fire and what extinguishes it?

A
  • Electronics

De-Energized: Treat as Class A/B/D fire

Energized: CO2, Purple K Powder, H2O in fog pattern

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33
Q

What is a Class D fire and what extinguishes it?

A
  • Metals that are combustable (i.e. magnesium & titanium)
  • H20 in large quantities in high velocity fog
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34
Q

What are the key elements of a fire?

A
  • Fuel
  • Oxygen
  • Heat
  • Chemical reaction
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35
Q

5 steps of ORM

A
  • Identify Hazards
  • Assess Hazards
  • Make Risk Decisions
  • Implement Controls
  • Supervise
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36
Q

Who walked on the moon first? When?

A

Neil Armstrong

20 Jul 1969

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37
Q

How many people are required for an aircraft move?

A

7

1 - Move Director / 2 - Chock Walkers / 2 - Wing Walkers / 1 - Tow Tractor / 1 - Tail or Brake Rider

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38
Q

What is a firefighters primary and secondary duty?

A

Primary: Save lives

Secondary: Extinguish fires and limit damage

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39
Q

What are the 4 principles of flight?

A
  • Lift
  • Weight
  • Drag
  • Thrust
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40
Q

How many tie downs are required initially and at what wind speed?

A
  • Up to 45 knots

- At least 6 chains

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41
Q

At what wind speed and how many chains are utilized during normal weather conditions?

A
  • Up to 45 knots

- 9 chains

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42
Q

At what wind speed and how many chains are utilized during moderate weather conditions?

A
  • 45-60 knots

- 14 chains

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43
Q

At what wind speed and how many chains are to be utilized during heavy weather conditions?

A
  • Greater than 60 knots

- 20 chains

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44
Q

What are the two types of maintenance and what do they consist of?

A

Rework: reliability centered maintenance

Upkeep: Daily, Turnaround, Specials, Conditionals, Phase, Acceptance, Transfer

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45
Q

What programs does QA manage?

A 
Safety
Audits
Technical Data Management
ACSP
NAMDRP
S.E. Misuse and Abuse
Vibration Analysis
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46
Q

What are the 2 types of tie-downs used by the Navy?

A

TD-1A

TD-1B

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47
Q

What do wind indicators let pilots know?

A
  • Wind direction

- Velocity

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48
Q

When did the first woman pass fleet carrier quals and what ship was the first to permanently have woman assigned to it?

A
  • 1994

- USS Eisenhower

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49
Q

Who was the first MCPON?

A

Master Chief Delbert Black

13 JAN 67 - 01 APR 71

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50
Q

When was the birth of naval aviation and why? What model plane?

A

08 May 1911

Navy purchased two A1-Triad’s

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51
Q

Why can’t family members be stationed on the same boat?

A

The 5 Sullivan brothers were all killed while serving aboard the USS Juneau.

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52
Q

What was the turning point of WWII? When?

A
  • Battle of Midway
  • 03-05 Jun 1942
  • Japanese sank the Yorktown
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53
Q

Who wears white jerseys?

A
  • Safety
  • Medical
  • Air Transport Officer
  • Landing Signal Officer
  • Squadron Plane Inspectors
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54
Q

What are blister agents?

A
  • Liquid or solid casualty agents
  • Cause inflammation, blisters, general destruction of tissues

EX: Distilled Mustard (HD), Lewisite (L), Phosgene Oxime (CX), Levinstein Mustard (HL)

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55
Q

When did the island of Guadalcanal get taken by Marines?

A

13-15 November 1942

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56
Q

What is chemical/biological IPE?

A
  • MCU-2P Protective Mask
  • Advance Chemical Protective Garment
  • Chemical Protective Gloves
  • Liners & Over Boots
  • Skin Decontamination Kit
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57
Q

What are choking agents?

A
  • Gaseous or liquid casualty agents
  • Initial symptoms include tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache.

EX: Phosgene (CG) and Diphosgene

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58
Q

What is DEFCON 5?

A

Normal Peacetime Readiness

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59
Q

What is DEFCON 4?

A

Increased intelligence and strengthened security measures

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60
Q

What is DEFCON 3?

A

Increase in force readiness

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61
Q

What is DEFCON 2?

A

Further increase in force readiness

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62
Q

What is DEFCON 1?

A

Maximum force readiness

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63
Q

What is DEFCON?

A

Defense Readiness Condition is an alert posture by the US

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64
Q

Who was the first naval aviator to go into space? When did he?

A

Alan B. Shephard

05 May 1961

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65
Q

MOVEREP

A

Movement Report

  • Primary source of location information concerning ships (tracking)
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66
Q

5 programs that have to do with the hearing conservation program?

A
  • Noise Measure & Analysis
  • Audiometry
  • Education
  • Hearing Protective Devices
  • Engineering Control
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67
Q

EUCOM location

A

European Command

Struttgart, Germany

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68
Q

AFRICOM location

A

African Command

Struttgart, Germany

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69
Q

2nd Fleet Location and AOR

A
  • Norfolk, VA

- Atlantic Ocean

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70
Q

Operates in conjunction with the 2nd through 7th fleets?

A

10th Fleet

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71
Q

5th Fleet location and AOR

A
  • Manama, Bahrain

- Arabian Gulf, Indian Ocean, Persian Gulf

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72
Q

7th Fleet Location and AOR

A
  • Yokusaka, Japan

- Western Pacific, Indian Ocean

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73
Q

3rd Fleet Location and AOR

A
  • San Diego, CA

- Eastern Pacific Ocean

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74
Q

SOUTHCOM location

A

US Southern Command

Miami, FL

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75
Q

STRATCOM Location

A

US Strategic Command

Offutt Air Force Base, Nebraska

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76
Q

TRANSCOM location

A

US Transportation Command

Scott Air Force Base, Illinois

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77
Q

PACOM location

A

US Pacific Command

Camp Smith, Hawaii

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78
Q

NORTHCOM location

A

US Northern Command

Colorado Springs, Colorado

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79
Q

6th Fleet location and AOR

A
  • Gaeta, Italy

- Mediterranean sea, Black Sea

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80
Q

4th Fleet location and AOR

A
  • Mayport, FL

- Caribbean, Central & South America, Surrounding Waters

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81
Q

CENTCOM location

A

US Central Command

Tampa Bay, Florida

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82
Q

SOCOM location

A

US Special Operations Command

Tampa Bay, Florida

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83
Q

What is a special inspection?

A

Based off of calender days, flight hours, or number of cycles/events

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84
Q

What is a TD work order?

A

Technical Directive

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85
Q

What is a CM work order?

A

Cannibalization Maintenance

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86
Q

What is a TS work order?

A

Troubleshooting

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87
Q

What is a DM work order?

A

Discrepancy Maintenance

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88
Q

What is an AD work order?

A

Assist Maintenance

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89
Q

What is a SX work order?

A

Special Inspection One Work Center

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90
Q

What is a Phase Inspection?

A

Divides the total schedule maintenance into smaller packages

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91
Q

What is a FO work order?

A

Facilitate Other Maintenance

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92
Q

What is a SC work order?

A

Special Inspection Control

93
Q

What is a CL work order?

A

Conditional Look Phase

94
Q

What is a CF work order?

A

Conditional Fix Phase

95
Q

FFG Ship

A

Guided Missile Frigate

96
Q

DD/DDG Ship

A

Destroyer/Missile Guided Destroyer

97
Q

LPH Ship

A

Amphibious Assault Ship

98
Q

CG Ship

A

Guided Missile Cruiser

99
Q

LSD Ship

A

Docklanding Ship

100
Q

AS Ship

A

Submarine Tender

101
Q

AD Ship

A

Destroyer Tender Ship

102
Q

MCS Ship

A

Mine Countermeasures Support Ship

103
Q

LHA Ship

A

Amphibious Assault Ship

104
Q

CV/CVN Ship

A

Carrier/Nuclear Carrier

105
Q

LPD Ship

A

Amphibious Transport Dock

106
Q

LHD Ship

A

Amphibious Warfare Ship

107
Q

What is VRC?

A

Carrier Logistics Support

Fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery

108
Q

What is VC?

A

Fleet Composite

Fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing

109
Q

What is VQ?

A

Fleet Air Recon

Fixed wing squadron providing electronic warfare support

110
Q

What is VR?

A

Aircraft Logistics Support

Fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies

111
Q

What is HSC?

A

Helo Sea Combat

Combat Search & Rescue Missions, Rescue, Logistics, Mine Countermeasure

112
Q

What is VFA?

A

Strike Fighter

Fixed wing squadrons emphasized for both fighter and attack mission

113
Q

What is VFW?

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning

Fixed wing carrier squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft.

114
Q

What is VP?

A

Patrol

Fixed wing land based squadron that performs anti-sub warfare, anti-surface warfare, recon, and mining.

115
Q

What is HT?

A

Helo Training

116
Q

What is VT?

A

Training

Fixed wing squadron that provides basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers.

117
Q

What is VAQ?

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare

Fixed wing, tactically exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems, including communications.

118
Q

What is a DT-60 Dosimeter?

A
  • Non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter which is used to determine the total amount of gamma radiation
  • Measures exposure ranging 0-600 roentgens
119
Q

What are the 6 basic core capabilities that the Navy address?

A
  • Sea Control
  • Forward Presence
  • Power Projection
  • Deterence
  • Maritime Security
  • Humanitarian Assistance
120
Q

What is the NATO code and flame rate of JP-4? What is the flashpoint?

A

F-40
700-800 feet per minute
-10 degrees farenheit

121
Q

What does RADAR and SONAR stand for?

A
  • Radio Detection and Ranging

- Sound Navigation and Ranging

122
Q

What are M9 chemical agent detector papers?

A
  • Detects liquid chemical agents by turning a reddish color

- Does not detect chemical agent vapors

123
Q

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

A 
Naval
Aviation
Logistics
Command 
Management 
Information 
System
124
Q

What are 3 things you can buy with OPTAR funding OFC-01 for flight ops?

A
  • Fuel for flights
  • Liquid & gaseous oxygen for flight crew
  • Consumable office supplies
125
Q

S.O.R.T.S.

A

Status of Requirement and Training Support

Warfare Capability Status

126
Q

What is the purpose of the TACAN system?

A

Tactical Air Navigation

Uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance.

127
Q

What are the 5 effects of a nuclear explosion? Which is the worst?

A
  • Blackout
  • EMP
  • Radiation
  • Blast
  • Flash burns
  • Surface Blast
128
Q

What is a turbojet?

A

Projects a column of air to the rear at an extreme velocity

129
Q

What is a turboshaft?

A

Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a prop.

130
Q

What is a turboprop?

A

Propulsion is done by conversion of the gas energy into mechanical power to drive a prop

131
Q

What is a turbofan?

A

Propulsion is done by conversion of the gas into mechanical power, routed through a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan.

132
Q

What is Safe For Flight?

A

Squadrons ability to operate using general NATOPS, aircraft NATOPS, NAVAIR 01 series manual, and MESM.

133
Q

When is the airfields rotating beacon utilized? At what RPM?

A
  • Used, day or night, when the airport is below visual flight rules to identify location of the airport.
  • 12-15 rotations per minute
134
Q

What are nerve agents?

A

Liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses while damaging body function rather than tissue.

EX: Sarin, VX

135
Q

What is used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties?

A
  • Atropine

- 2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector

136
Q

What are blood agents?

A

Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the bloodstream.

EX: Hydrogen Cyanide, Arsine

137
Q

What is biological warfare?

A

Use of agents to cause diseases, sickness, or death.

138
Q

What is the NATO code and flame rate of JP-5? What is the flashpoint?

A

F-44
100 feet per minute
140 degrees farenheit

139
Q

What is the NATO code and flame rate of JP-8? What is the flashpoint?

A

F-34
100 feet per minute
100 degrees farenheit

140
Q

When did the first aircraft takeoff from a ship? Who was the pilot? From what ship?

A
  • 14 November 1910
  • Eugene Ely
  • USS Birmingham
141
Q

When did QA start?

A

22 October 1917

Inspector school was invented

142
Q

When was the first naval aviation fatality and who was it?

A

20 June 1913

Ensign William Billingsley

143
Q

What is the purpose of emergency shore based recovery equipment?

A
  • Sick pilot
  • Landing gear not locked
  • Blown tire
144
Q

When did the first carrier get commissioned and what was the name?

A

20 March 1922

USS Langley

145
Q

On aircraft tails, what do the letters mean?

A

COMNAVAIRLANT: 1st Letter A-M / 2nd Letter A-Z

COMNAVAIRPAC: 1st Letter N-Z / 2nd Letter A-Z

CNATRA: 1st Letter A-G / No 2nd Letter

146
Q

When was the Battle of Coral Sea? Where did it happen? What is its significance?

A

07-08 May 1942

  • Southwest coast of New Guinea
  • Air to Air battle where no ship saw each other
147
Q

What are the FPCON levels based off of?

A
  • Terrorist level threat
  • Capability to penetrate existing physical security systems
  • Risk of terrorist attack to which personnel and assets are exposed
  • Assets ability to execute its mission, even if attacked.
  • Protected asset criticality to their missions
148
Q

What is FPCON Normal?

A

General global threat of possible terrorist activity

149
Q

What is FPCON Alpha?

A

Increased general threat

150
Q

What is FPCON Bravo?

A

Increased or more predictable threat

151
Q

What is FPCON Charlie?

A

Incident occurs or intelligence is received of a threat

152
Q

What is FPCON Delta?

A

Immediate area where attack happened or intel is received that an attack is imminent

153
Q

What does MOPP stand for?

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

154
Q

What is MOPP Level 1?

A

Don PPE and M9 tape

155
Q

What is MOPP Level 2?

A

Don PPE, M9 tape, and protective overboot .

156
Q

What is MOPP Level 3?

A

Fill canteens and activate DECON stations

157
Q

What is MOPP Level 4?

A

Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs, and secure to web belt.

158
Q

What can you purchase with OPTAR AFM funds?

A
  • Consumable parts
  • Paint
  • Oil and lubricants consumed during flight
159
Q

Who is the Secretary of Defense?

A

Patrick Shanahan

160
Q

Who is the Secretary of the Navy?

A

Richard Spencer

161
Q

Who is the CNO?

A

Admiral John Richardson

162
Q

Who is the MCPON?

A

Master Chief Russell Smith

163
Q

Who is the CO?

A

Commander Levoy

164
Q

Who is the XO?

A

Commander Dacosta-Azar

165
Q

Who is the CMC?

A

Master Chief Sinclair

166
Q

Who is the CMEO?

A

Chief Garrett / Chief Graham

167
Q

Who is your division officer?

A

LT Nemetz

168
Q

Who is the Casualty Assistance Calls Officer?

A

Senior Flood / Chief Castro

169
Q

Who is the SAPR POC?

A

Chief Bougeous

170
Q

Who is the DAPA?

A

Chief Smith / Chief Castro

171
Q

What is an OPREP?

A

Used by units to provide the NCA and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of nuclear war.

THE HIGHEST PRECEDENCE

172
Q

What is a LOGREQ?

A

Submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify proper commands of its logistics requirements while visiting.

173
Q

What is a SITREP?

A

Used by any unit commanding officers, OIC’s, or other commanders to provide appropriate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification for any incident not meeting OPREP-3 status.

174
Q

AE ship

A

Ammunition Ship

175
Q

AFS ship

A

Combat Stores Ship

176
Q

AO/AOE ship

A

Oilers/Oiler and Ammunition Support Ship

177
Q

LCC ship

A

Amphibious Command Ship

178
Q

The 11 Basic Wounds?

A
  • Fractures (Open/Closed)
  • Sucking Chest Wound
  • Abdominal Evisceration
  • Massive Hemorrhage with Amputation
  • Laceration
  • Electrical Shock
  • Smoke Inhalation
  • Burns
  • Hypothermia
  • Heat Stress
  • Puncture Wound
179
Q

What is the Rule of 9’s?

A

Estimating process for percentage of body surface area burned

EX: Head = 9% / Arms = 4.5% each side / Chest = 9% / Stomach = 9% / Leg = 9% each

180
Q

The 4 principles of ORM?

A
  • Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost.
  • Accept no unnecessary risk.
  • Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
  • Make risk decisions at the right level.
181
Q

What are the 3 levels of ORM?

A
  • In Depth
  • Deliberate
  • Time Critical
182
Q

What are the 5 types of aviation mishaps?

A
  • Human Error
  • Maintenance and Support Factors
  • Administrative and Supervisory Factors
  • Material Failures and Functions
  • Environmental Factors
183
Q

How any types of nuclear explosions are there?

A

5

  • High Altitude Air Burst
  • Air Burst
  • Surface Burst
  • Shallow Underwater Burst
  • Deep Underwater Burst
184
Q

How any types of nuclear explosions are there? Which is the worst?

A

5

  • High Altitude Air Burst
  • Air Burst
  • Surface Burst (Worst Fallout)
  • Shallow Underwater Burst
  • Deep Underwater Burst
185
Q

What does AFFF stand for?

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam

186
Q

What is a MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier?

A

Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft that are not equipped with tail hooks.

187
Q

What is the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

Most precise enroute navigation system is of little value unless an approach and landing can be successfully completed at the aircraft’s destination.

188
Q

VHF Omnidirectional Range

A
  • A radio facility that eliminates many of the difficulties previously encountered in air navigation.
  • Not affected by weather or other common factors.
189
Q

What is a turnaround inspection?

A
  • Conducted between flights to ensure integrity of the aircraft for flight.
  • Good for 24 hours.
190
Q

What is a daily inspection?

A
  • Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than turnaround inspections.
  • Good for 72 hours.
191
Q

What is a special inspection?

A

Scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase.

192
Q

What is a conditional inspection?

A

Unscheduled events required as the result of a specific overlimit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection.

193
Q

What is an acceptance inspection?

A

Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts newly assigned aircraft or support equipment.

194
Q

What is a transfer inspection?

A

Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment.

195
Q

What dates are the MMP prepared and distributed?

A

O-Level: 25th

I-Level: 1st

196
Q

What is the function of QA?

A

Fundamentally the prevention of the occurance of defects.

197
Q

When was NATOPS established by the US Navy?

A

1961

198
Q

What is a WARNING?

A

Procedure that may result in death or injury if not carefully observed or followed.

199
Q

What is a CAUTION?

A

Procedure that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

200
Q

What is a NOTE?

A

Procedure that must be emphasized.

201
Q

What does SHALL mean?

A

Procedure is mandatory.

202
Q

Wha does SHOULD mean?

A

Procedure is recommended.

203
Q

What does MAY mean?

A

Procedure is optional.

204
Q

What does WILL mean?

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

205
Q

When was the first carrier landing of a FJ-1 Fury Navy jet? When

A

1948 aboard the USS Boxer.

206
Q

What was the first jet powered naval aircraft? When?

A

21 July 1946

FH-1 Phantom

207
Q

What is the oldest US Navy commissioned vessel?

A

USS Constitution

208
Q

What is the Union Jack?

A

Rectangular blue part of the US flag containing the stars.

209
Q

What is acceleration?

A

The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.

210
Q

What is speed?

A

The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an alloted amount of time.

211
Q

What is velocity?

A

The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.

212
Q

What is force?

A

Something that causes a change in the motion of an object.

213
Q

What is inertia?

A

Willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.

214
Q

What are the 3 types of motion?

A

Linear: when all of a body moves in a straight or curved line with all parts moving in the same direction.

Angular: when a body or part of it moves in a circle about a point called the axis of rotation.

General: combination of linear and angular motion

215
Q

What is the Angle of Attack?

A
  • The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air.
  • Imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.
216
Q

What is Autorotation?

A

Method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power.

“Engine Failure”

217
Q

Airspeed Indicator

A

Displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying.

218
Q

Altimeters show…

A

The height of the aircraft above sea level.

219
Q

Type Maintennce is…

A

Prefilled based on the type of work order selected

220
Q

Type Work Order

A

Two character code that describes the type of maintenance to be performed.

221
Q

Numeric code or alphanumeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction?

A

Work Unit Code

222
Q

What is TPI?

A

To Person Integrity

A system of handling and storing designed to prevent single person access to certain COMSEC material.

223
Q

What is CONFIDENTIAL classification?

A

Information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security.

Color Code = Blue

224
Q

What is SECRET classification?

A

Information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security.

Color Code = Red

225
Q

What is Top Secret classification?

A

Information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.

Color Code = Orange

226
Q

What are the 6 categories of HAZMAT?

A
  • Flammable or combustable materials
  • Aerosol containers
  • Toxic materials
  • Corrosive materials
  • Oxidizing materials
  • Compressed gases
227
Q

How big is a Type I maintenance hangar?

A

235 feet wide by 85 feet deep

228
Q

How big is a Type II maintenance hangar?

A

119 feet deep by 325 feet wide

229
Q

How big is a Type III maintenance hangar?

A

156 feet deep by 165 feet wide

VUP-19 (4 decks)

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