Board Exam Phase 1 - practice questions from forum

Question 1

According to the “Ankylosis and Pseudoankylosis of the temporomandibular joint in 10 dogs” by Strom et al, the 3D model and CT rejected by the images in A/B represent what type of defect?

A. Pseudoankylosis of the TMJ
b. Lacrimal Tumor
c. True ankylosis of the TMJ
d. Fractured coronoid process

Answer 1

C. True Ankylosis of the TMJ

Pictures C/D are of pseudoankylosis, most common location is osseous fusion of the zygomatic arch and mandible.

Trauma most common cause of both pseudo and true ankylosis of the TMJ

6/8 dogs treated surgically never regained normal TMJ ROM, this is likely due to muscular atrophy and fibrosis associated with disuse and surgical intervention

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding rabbit dentition is most correct?

Rabbit dentition is _________
a. Composed of 28 permanent teeth
b. Brachydont
c. Lophodont with regard to molars only
d. Radicular

Answer 2

A. Composed of 28 Permanent teeth

Question 3

What contact angle is ideal for good wetting of a dentinal bonding agent?

a. 0 deg
b. 75 deg
c. 110 deg
d 120 deg

Answer 3

a. 0 deg

Wettability is the ability of a liquid to flow easily over an entire surface and adhere to the solid.

Ideally it would be like water on a glass slab or 0 deg, for real life purposes the goal in <90 deg.

Things that make a good wetting angle include the cohesive force, smooth surface, surface energy

Wettability and contact angle have an inverse relationship, lower the contact angle the higher the wettabliliy

Question 4

What patients are at greatest risk for hypothermia under general anethesia?

a. patients with a lower surface area-to-mass ratio
b. Patients with a higher surface area to mass ratio
c. Obese patients
d. Short haired patients

Answer 4

b. Patients with a higher surface area to mass ratio

Question 5

Which statement is false regarding periodontal instruments?

a. Scalers and universal curettes have 2 cutting surfaces
b. An instrument with a sharp edge will shine, they reflect light
c. Arkansas and India stones require oil, while ceramic stones do not
d. An instrument with a dull edge will glide along acrylic test stick

Answer 5

b. An instrument with a sharp edge will shine, they reflect light

Dull cutting edges will reflect light

Question 6

Wiggs describes acid etching before application of bonding agents. Which of the following statements is most correct according to the source?

a. A 37% phosphoric acid solution or gel is customarily used to etch the enamel for about 20 seconds
b. A 37% phosphoric acid solution or gel may be used to etch the dentin for about 10 seconds
c. A 10% phosphoric acid solution or gel may be used to etch dentin for about 15 seconds
d. All of the above

Answer 6

4. All of the above

Question 7

A biopsy of the bone of 204 in this cat confirmed evidence of medullary fibrosis with. mild to moderate pleocellular inflammation and modest proliferation of woven bone. What process do you suspect is happening in this cat?
a. SCC
b. POF
c. FCGS
d. Alveolar bone expansion and osteomyelitis

Answer 7

d. Alveolar bone expansion and osteomyelitis

“Histologic, clinical, and radiologic findings of alveolar bone expansion and osteomyelitis is the jaws in cats” Bell, Soukup

Question 8

“Early Analgesic Efficacy of Morphine, Butorphanol, Lidocaine, Bupivicaine, or Carprofen after periodontal treatment in dogs”
According to the article sited, which of the following statements is not true:

a. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. Its effects are, in comparison with our agonists, not as potent and of short duration (approx 2 hours)
b. NSAIDs suppress pain transmission both peripherally and centrally
c. Administration of carprofen or the use of nerve blocks with bucpivicain improved analgesia after periodontal treatment more than did torb, morphine or nerve blocks using lidocaine
d. Administration of morphine with the use of nerve blocks with bupivicaine improved analgesia after periodontal treatment more than did any other anesthetic combination in this study

Answer 8

D. This study found Carprofen and Bupivicaine was best

Question 9

According to the article “Computed tomographic findings in dogs and cats with Temporomandibular joint disorders: 58 cases) Arzi, Cissell and Verstraete etal

Which of the following statements is most INCORRECT?

a. a fibrocartilagenous articular disk separates the TMJ cavity into dorsal and ventral compartments
b. The TMJ articular disk extends medially from the articular surface of the condylar process of the mandible to the pterygoid bone via a ligamentouth extension; thus, the disk fills the void btwn the condylar process and the mandibular fossa which promotes the congruity of the joint
c. In cats, the morphology of the TMJ is more restrictive such that independent movements of the mandible aside from hinge movement is minimal
d. Relative to the cranium, the mandibular fossa remains stationary; it s only the mandible that moves via the TMJ joint

Answer 9

B. The pterygoid bone is not the part of the TMJ. The mandibular fossa is part of the temporal bone

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding bonding adhesions is TRUE?

a. The ability to wet the substrate is the dominating contributor to the adhesion bond when the adhesive sets from liquid to solid
b. Impurities on the solid surface often increase wetting by the adhesive due to reduced surface tension but this increased wetting is not a factor in adhesion
c. Impurity free metal surfaces, because of their low surface energy, interact vigorously with liquid adhesives
d. The high surface energies of organic and inorganic liquids permit them to spread freely not eh solids of low surface energy. This a a prerequisite of good wetting and strong adhesive joints

Answer 10

A. is true

B. Surface impurities often prevent ANY wetting by the adhesive
C. Impurity free metal surfaces, because o their HIGH surface energy, interact vigorously with liquid adhesives
d. The LOW surface energies of organic and inorganic liquids permit them to spread freely on the solids of HIGH surface energy. This s a prerequisite of good wetting and strong adhesive joints

Question 11

The 3 primary mucoperiosteal flaps are described by Lommer in “ Oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs and cats”. These designs do not include which of the following?

a. Triangle
b. Envelope
c. Pedicle
d. Apically positioned flap

Answer 11

d. This is a type of periodontal flap but not one of the 3 primary

Question 12

“Dental radiographic findings in cats with chronic gingivostomatitis (2002-2012)”

In reference to the above article which of the following was NOT found to be associated with FCGS ore than other oral diseases

a. More widely distributed and severe periodontitis
b. A higher prevalence of external inflammatory root resorption
c. Retained roots
d. Buccal Bone expansion

Answer 12

D. This study did not find a higher prevalence of BBE in FCGS patients

Question 13

The instrument attachments shown below are utilized for what type of surgery?

a. Endodontic surgery
b. hemisection of teeth
c. Undermining periosteum
d. Maxillofacial bone surgery

Answer 13

d. Maxillofacial bone surgery

Piezo bone cutting ultrasonic tips

Question 14

Which of the following is true?
A. Unlike sulcular epithelium the junctional epithelium is not heavily infiltrated by neutrophils and leukocytes and appears to be less permeable
B. The Junctional epithelium is formed is formed by the confluence of the sulcular epithelium and the reduced enamel epithelium during tooth eruption
C. The junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface by an internal basal lamina via Hemidesmosomes.
D. Junctional epithelium protects the tooth surface from bacteria and has a slow cell turnover rate

Answer 14

A. sulcular epithelium is not heavily infiltrated and is less permeable
B. Formed by the confluence fo the ORAL epithelium and REE
C. TRUE
D. RAPID cell turnover

Question 15

According to “experimental determination of subantimicrobial dosage of doxycycline hyclate for treatment of periodontitis in Beagle” by Kim et al, wha tis the proposed subantimicrbial dose of doxycycline for dogs with periodontitis?

a. 3mg/kg PO q24
b. 2mg/kg PO q12
c. 2mg/kg PO q24
d. 4mg/kg PO q12

Answer 15

C. 2mg/kg PO q24

Question 16

What two cytokines are involved in the destruction of bone and connective tissue in periodontitis?

a. IL-1 alpha, IL-6
b. TNF-alpha, IL-1Beta
c. TNF-Beta, IL-1C
d. MMP4, IL-1alpha

Answer 16

b. TNF-alpha, IL-1Beta

Question 17

What is the most abundant periodontal ligament fiber group?

A. transeptal
b. Horizontal
c. Olique
d. Apical

Answer 17

C. Oblique

Question 18

According to “ Radiographic outcome of the Endodontic Treamtn of 55-fractured canine teeth in 43 dogs” by Adrian et al, what is NOT a definition of failure of an orthograde root canal therapy?

a. Development of external inflammatory root resportion
b. Widening of periodontal ligament space after treatment
c. worsening of existing EIRR
d. Widened periodontal ligament space that remained the same

Answer 18

d. widened periodontal ligament space that remained the same

Question 19

Which of the following is a side effect of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?

a. Increased intracranial pressure
b. Tachycardia
c. Decreasedd cardiac output
d. Increased GI motility

Answer 19

C. Decrased cardiac output

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 major components of dental resin-baed composites?
a. Coupling agents
b. Filler particles
c. Matrix
d. Activator

Answer 20

4. Activator - source of energy used to activate an initiator and produce free radicals.

Question 21

Which number of walled boney defect has the best outcome for guided tissue regeneration?

a. 3 walled defect
b. 2 walled defect
c. 1 walled defect
d. Cup defect

Answer 21

A. 3 walled defect

Question 22

According to Sasser “Endodonitc Disinfection for Orthographe Root Canal Treatment in Veterinary Dentistry” What is NOT considered a property of an ideal irritant?

A. Dose not stain the tooth
B. Is nontoxic, non carcinogenic, and does not interfere with healing of the periapical tissues
C. Has no adverse effects on the sealing ability of the filling material
d. Induces a cell-mediated immune response

Answer 22

D. Induces a cell-mediated immune response

Question 23

According to “Regenerative Endodontics by Feigin et al, the process depicted in this figure recommends use of which irritant?

A. 6% NaOCL
B. 17% EDTA
C. 2% Chlorhexidine
D. 1:1:1 metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, minocycline rinses

Answer 23

B. 17’% EDTA

Question 24

What generation of bonding agent comes in a single bottle and requires acid etching?

A. Generation VII
B. Generation V
C. Generation VI
D. Generation IV

Answer 24

B. Generation V

pg 280-288 Use of composite restoration materials in the journal of Veterinary dentistry 2014

Question 25

What is NOT a property of a good quality dental cement for prosthodontics?

A. High creep
B. high compressive strength
C. Very low microleakage
D. Elastic modulus equal to dentin

Answer 25

A. High creep

Question 26

What is not true about acid etchant in veterinary dentistry?

a. It is typically 37% phosphoric acid
b. Demineralizes dentinal tubules (remove hydroxyapatite)
C. Removes the smear layer
d. If used on dentin does not require a primer

Answer 26

D

Question 27

You have an apparently healthy 8yo MI Border Collie that you are placing under general anesthesia for a standard root canal of 104. He has no known history of anesthesia. His preoperative lab work (chem/CBC/T4) was normal. You premedicate him with 0.3mg/kg butorphanol IV and the dog collapses, becoming profoundly sedate. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A. You calculated an incorrect dose of administered too much butorphanol
b. The dog has occult neurologic disease
c. The dog had an induced syncopal episode
d. The dog has an MDR-1 gene mutation

Answer 27

D. The dog has an MDR-1 gene mutation

Other drugs to avoid to use reduced doses include Ivermectin, acepromazine, anti-cancer medications, loperamide

Question 28

According to McCloy “Managing Instrument Separation” how do you manage this Endodontic complication?

A. Use a small hand instrument to obtain purchase or 2 files together in a file braiding technique
b. Enlarge the coronal access and potentially use forceps
c. Ultrasonic virbration to loosen the file
d. All of the above

Answer 28

D. All of the above

JVD 2015 pg 262-265

Question 29

Which of the following embryologic structures gives rise to the dental pulp?
A. Cell rests of Malassez
B. Nasmyth’s membrane
C. Dental Papilla
D. Hertwigs root sheath

Answer 29

C. Dental Papilla

Question 30

What is the name of this instrument and how is it used?

A. Peeso-reamer, used for space preparation
B. Lentulo spiral, used for obturation
C. Rotary H-File used for canal preparation
D. Path finder for locating canal

Answer 30

B. Lentulo serial, used for obturation

Question 31

According to Veterinary Oral and Maxillofacial pathology, what is NOT a cardinal feature of Odontogenic Epithelium?
a. Palisading of the basilar Epithelium
b. Ondontogenic islands are comprised of polygonal cells with long intercellular desmosomal bridges
c. Palisading epithelial cells have basilar nucleli
d. Epithelial cells have basilar clear zone within the cytoplasm

Answer 31

D

I don’t agree with this answer, I think the answer would be C - palisading epithelial cells have ANTIbasilar nuclei (nuclei located at apical pole)

Question 32

According to Lumb and Jones, Chapeter 1, Stages of general anesthesia, the levels of CNS depression induced by anesthetics have been classified into 4 stages according to the neuromuscular signs of the patient. Which is the correct definition?
a.Stage I Sedation, II stage of delirium, stage III of surgical anesthesia, stage IV overdose
b. Stage 1 sedation, Stage II loss of conciousness, stage III surgical plane, Stage IV deep
c. Stage 1 loss of consciousness, stage II loss of involuntary reflexes, Stage III loss of consciousness, stage IV deep depression of reflex to death
d. Stage 1 voluntary movement, Stage II delirium and involuntary movement, Stage III surgical anesthesia, Stage IV deep CNS depression

Answer 32

D

Question 33

According to: Semi-Automatic Segmentation of Cone Beam CT datasets for Volume Measurements of Equine Cheek teeth, JoVD 2022, which statement is TRUE:
A. Mandibular cheek tooth volume was on average 40% larger than maxillary counterparts
B. The “Gold standard” for cheek tooth volume is water displacement method
C. This study was unable to confirm feasibility and validity of CBCT datasets
D. The segmentation method overestimated the volumes obtained by water displacement

Answer 33

B

Question 34

The condense ectomesenchyme surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla complex forms the ________ and ultimately develops into the ________. Which answer is most correct?
A. Dental papilla, PDL
B. Dental papilla, dentin and pulp
C. Dental sac, PDL
D. Dental sac, dentin and pulp

Answer 34

C

Question 35

In JAVMA 2014; 244-449-459 the article titled “ VPT in dogs; 190 cases (2001-2011). Which statement would be correct?
A. the overall success rate of the VPT was 70%, with MTA being 84% and Ca(OH)2 was 58%
B. the overall success rate of the VPT was 85%, with MTA being 92% and Ca(OH)2 was 58%
C. the overall success rate of the VPT was 75%, with MTA being 75% and Ca(OH)2 was 92%
D. the overall success rate of the VPT was 85%, with MTA being 74% and Ca(OH)2 was 88%

Answer 35

B. the overall success rate of the VPT was 85%, with MTA being 92% and Ca(OH)2 was 58%

Question 36

RC prep used in root canal therapy consists of these ingredients:
A. Glycol, urea peroxidase, EDTA
B. Water, Sodium hypochlorite, EDTA
C. Chlorhexidine, glycol, eDTA
D. Urea peroxidase, glycol, sodium hypochlorite

Answer 36

A. Glycol, urea peroxidase, EDTA

RC prep is made of 15% EDTA and 10% urea peroxide. The EDTA is a chelating agent (removes calcium ions) that helps remove the smear layer (dentin debris and pulp tissue left on the canal walls from instrumentation) in combination with sodium hypochlorite.

Question 37

Which theory has NOT been considered to play a role in the mechanism of tooth eruption?
A. Periodontal ligament force theory
B. Root Growth theory
C. Dental follicle theory
D. Cervical loop theory

Answer 37

D. Cervicle loop theory

Ten Cates oral Histopath (pg 236-237)
5 working theories for tooth eruption include:
1. Root formation
2. Bone remodeling
3. Dental follicle
4. PDL
5. Molecular determinants of tooth eruption

Question 38

What is this instrument used for?
A. Used for space preparation
B. Used for Obturation
C. Used for access widening
D. For locating canal

Answer 38

C. Used for access widening

Question 39

The biologic width is most correctly,
A. B
B. B +C
C. C
D. D

Answer 39

B+C

Verstrate Chapter 23

Question 40

Safety and Efficacy of Convenia as an Adjunctive Treatment of periodontal disease in dogs
In reference to the above article, which of the following statements is the MOST INCORRECT?

A. The authors concluded that Cefovecin was shown to be as effective and safe adjunctive treatment for severe periodontal disease in dogs undergoing periodontal scaling an surgery as Clindamycin
B. The authors concluded that while there were no significant treatment differences, there was a proportionally a larger reduction in pocket measurement in the deepest pockets, with a trend in favor of Cefovecin over clindamycin
C. The authors reported that adverse events were limited to injection site reactions
D. The authors concluded that susceptibility of Cefovecin of pathogens isolated int he this study indicated no MIC shift and that the risk of resistance development of Porphyromonas app and Prevotella app through the use of cefovecin as an adjunctive treatment to periodontal therapy is minimal.

Answer 40

C. no adverse events were identified other than some owner reporting GI symptoms, that were unrelated to treatment according to observing vets

Question 41

According to Wiggs pg 427, which of the following is not an appliance used for treatment of linguoversion of the maxillary incisors?
A. Elastic ligature ties
B. Maxillary expansion screw appliance
C. Maxillary incised incline plane
D. Labial Maxillary arch bar with elastics

Answer 41

C. Mandibular incised incline plane would be appropriate

Question 42

According to Verstraete’s surgery text, which of the following statements is most correct with regard to treatment of avulsed teeth?

A. properly developed surgical flaps are critical to allow for proper exposure of the alveolus for anatomic replantation of avulsed teeth
B. ORal administration of NSAID drugs have been shown to reduce the amount of root respiration after replantation of avulsed teeth
C. Rigid fixation has been associated with a high degree of ankylosis and root replacement resorption
D. Generally, Endodontic treatment is recommended 4-6weeks after replantation, at the time of splint removal.

Answer 42

C. Some mobility of the splint is preferred which is a typical trait of intramural composition points with or without wires

Verstraete pg 218-226
A. Flaps are not recommended
B Not true
D. endo treatment is recommended at 7-10 days when the splint should be removed

Question 43

The muscle highlighted is most correctly identified as_________

A. Masseter enervated by CNV
B. Master enervated by CN VII
C. Zygomaticus enervated by CN V
D. Zygomaticus enervated by CN VII

Answer 43

A.

Question 44

In reference to the above article, which of the lines drawn on the tongue is NOT an appropriate level of glossectomy in the dog?

A. Black
B. Red
C. Blue
D. All of these are appropriate

Answer 44

D

Question 45

According to the article “ dental radiographic findings in cats with chronic gingivostomatisis”
Which of the following statements is the most CORRECT?
A. There was no significant difference in the presence of resorptive lesions with or without stomatitis
B. 65% off cases were between four and eight years of age
C. Alveolar bone loss was dominated by vertical bone loss
D. Contrary to previous studies, increase globulins was rarely observed in this study

Answer 45

A.

35% of cases were btwn 4-8 years old
Alveolar bone loss was donated by horizontal bone loss
Increased globulins was noted in 50% of the cases

Question 46

According to the authors of “Clinicopathological features, risk factors, and predispositions, and response to treatment of eosinophilic oral disease”

Which regard to eosinophilic grandma complex in dogs
Choose the most CORRECT answer

A. Type 1 cell mediated immunity appears to play a role in the pathogenesis
B. Siberian huskies were the most comply represented breed in this study
C. Mineralization is not a feature of this lesions
D. Lesions were more commonly found in male dogs in this study

Answer 46

A

Question 47

Choose the most correct answer: Luting agents are strongest in _______

A. Shear
B. Compression
C. Tension
D. Rotation (kepler force)

Answer 47

B.

Kepler force is associated with satellites
Verstrate Ch 23

Question 48

Evaluate the occlusal radiographic image. Which statement is most correct?

A. The white arrows delineate areas of external replacement resorption that are present at the roots of multiple incisor teeth
B. The black arrowheads delineate a poorly defined area of bone lysis
C. The white arrowheads delineate a ST mass that is present btwn the L maximally second incisor and the right maxillary first incisor
D. The black arrow delineates external inflammatory resorption of the maxillary second incisor

Answer 48

C. The ST mass is between the right maxillary second incisor and the left maxillary first incisor

Question 49

The image below is most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following?
A. Complicated crown root fracture
B. Dens invaginatus
C. Condensing osteitis
D. Compound ondontoma

Answer 49

B

Question 50

In reference to the article “ Results of root canal treatment in dogs 127 cases”

Which of the following statements is MOST INCORRECT?
A. Treatment was classified as successful for 69% of roots
B. Success was lower for maxillary fourth premolars than for canine teeth
C. Evidence of preoperative periodical lucency decreased the success rate
D. Evidence of preoperative root resorption decreased the success rate

Answer 50

B. Success was lower for canine teeth

Question 51

Regarding local anesthetic agents, which of the following statements is most correct?

A. All clinically effective local anesthetics are vasoconstrictors
B. Non-ionized local anesthetic agents defuse into a cell faster than ionized agents
C. Local anesthetics with a lower Pka possess a slower onset of action
D. Local anesthetic block transduction and transmission of pain but will not affect modulation of pain

Answer 51

B.

Local anesthetics Block transduction, transmission and modulation
A and C are opposite

Question 52

As described in Cohens Pathways of the Pulp, which of the following statements regarding Endodontics is FALSE?

A. Apexification is the process whereby a nonmetal, immature, permanent tooth which has lost the capacity for further root development is induced to form a calcified barrier at the root terminus
B. Apexogenesis is treatment designed to preserve vital pulp tissue in the apical apr top the root canal in order to complete formation of the root apex
C. Primary dentin is produced during tooth development until teeth hav erupted into the oral cavity
D. In external inflammatory root resorption the inflamed pulp is the tissue involved in resorbing the root structure

Answer 52

D.

A. page 857
B. Page 845
C. Page 458
D. Page 639

in external inflammatory root resorption the necrotic infected pulp provides the stimulus for periodontal inflammation int he ligament space.
D. describes internal inflammatory root resorption

Question 53

Successful use of MTA fill apex as a sealant for Feline root canal therapy of 50 canines in 37 cats. JVD 2020 Col 37(2) 77-87

Referencing the above article, which of the statements below would be most correct?
A. 8% of treated teeth were classified as failed
B. A noted advantage of MTA Fillapex is it does not expand after filling which has been reportedly associated with overfilling complications
C. MTA Fillapex is biocompatible, noncytotoxic, radiopaque but was not shown to contain antibacterial properties
D. Evidence of preexisting periodontal lucency was significantly associated with an increased risk of RCT failure

Answer 53

A

MTA fillapex does expand slightly which is associated with its good sealing capacity.
It is antibacterial.
Periapical lucency was NOT significantly associated with an increased risk of RCT failure

Question 54

Referring to the article titled “Cardiovascular effects of orotrachael intubation following anesthetic induction with propofol, ketamine-propofol, ketamine-propofol, or ketamine-diazepam in premeditated dogs” from JAVMA April 2014:

Choose the most CORRECT statement:

A. Orotracheal intubation after induction with ketamine-diazepam caused transitory hypertension during intubation
B. Orotracheal intubation after induction with Ketamine-Propofol caused transitory hypertension during intubation
C. Orotracheal intubation after induction with propofol caused transitory hypertension during intubation
D. Arterial BP was not significantly decrease with Ketamine-propofol at various time points after orotracheal intubation

Answer 54

A

B this combination did not cause cardiovascular stimulation
C. Propofol alone did not cause cardiovascular stimulation
D. in all groups, arterial BP were significantly decreased at various time points after intubation

Question 55

Which of the following statement regarding anesthetic drugs is most INCORRECT?

A. A2 agonists such as xylazine and medetomidine, do not generally depress ventilation at lower doses, although hypoxemia may occur, with much individual variation in the response
B. Opioids directly depress central chemoreceptors in a dose dependent manner, causing an increase in threshold and a decrease in sensitivity of the ventilatory response to CO2
C. Dissociative agents such as ketamine or tiletamine-zolazepam (Telazol), may cause dose dependent respiratory depression with an associated decrease in respiratory rate, resulting in a decrease in PaO2 and increase in PaCO2
D. Anticholinergic drugs, such as atropine and glycopyrrolate, cause contraction of the smooth muscle within the larger airways, increasing airway resistance and decreasing dead space volume

Answer 55

D
Anticholinergic drugs cause dilation of smooth muscle within the larger airways decreasing airway resistance and increasing dead space volume

Question 56

What is indicated by the number 4 on the dental radiograph image below?

A. Endodontic infection of 202, 203
B. Periodontal-endo lesion of 202-203
C. Chevron sign
D. Odontogenic Cyst

Answer 56

C. Chevron sign

Question 57

What numbers do 23, 24, and 25 represent?

A. Maxillary bone, TMJ, condylar process
B. Squamous portion of zygomatic arch, mandibular fossa, coronoid process
C. Zygomatic process of temporal bone, mandibular fossa, condylar process
D. Wing of zygomatic arch, TMJ articular surface, Coronoid process

Answer 57

C. Zygomatic process of temporal bone, mandibular fossa, condylar process

Question 58

The asterisks in the MRI image depicted below indicate which of the following?

A. enlarged buccal and mandibular LNs
B. Cerebrospinal fluid extravasating into the surrounding tissues
C. Contrast enhancement of the muscles of mastication
D. Rhabdosarcoma of the temporals and masseter muscles

Answer 58

C. Contrast enhancement of the muscles of mastication

Question 59

According to “ Biological Behavior of Canine Acanthomatous Ameloblastoma assessed with CT and Histopathology: A comparative study,” the diagnostics imaging findings associated with CAA were variable within the same population. Which of the following is NOT a consistent diagnostic imaging finding in dogs with CAA?

A. Alveolar bone lysis in 100% of cases
B. Positive contact enhancement 93% of cases
C. Intraosseous tumor location 75%
D. Cortical bone thinning in 78%

Answer 59

C. Intraosseous tumor location in 75%

Question 60

According to Goldschidt et al “ Clinical characterization of Canine Acanthomatous Ameloblastoma (CASS) in 263 dogs and the influence of postsurgical histopathology margin on local recurrence.” in JVD 2017, CAA;s were over represented in adult large breed dogs with golden retriever being over represented. What % made up the most common location?

A. 51.2% rostral mandible
B. 63.6% caudal maxilla
C. 51.2% Caudal maxilla
D. 63.6% Rostral mandible

Answer 60

A. 51.2% rostral Mandible