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Board Flashcards

1
Q

Why should the dose of a medication be decreased when a patient stops smoking?

A

Smoking induces CYP1A2, lowering clozapine serum levels; upon cessation, levels rise.

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2
Q

How can liver disease impact drug levels in the body?

A

Liver disease affects enzyme activity, leading to potentially toxic drug levels.

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3
Q

What effect does kidney disease have on drug concentrations?

A

Kidney disease or drugs reducing renal clearance can increase serum drug levels.

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4
Q

What makes older adults more sensitive to psychotropics?

A

Factors include decreased metabolism, protein binding, muscle mass, and increased body fat concentration.

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5
Q

Why are inducers and inhibitors of enzymes important to know in drug therapy?

A

They impact drug levels which can lead to subtherapeutic or toxic levels.

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6
Q

What are some examples of drugs that can reduce renal clearance of lithium?

A

Examples include NSAIDs, thiazides, and ACE inhibitors like HCTZ.

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7
Q

Where is norepinephrine produced in the brain?

A

Norepinephrine is produced in the locus coeruleus and medullary reticular formation.

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8
Q

What is the role of GABA in the brain and how does it relate to anxiety?

A

GABA is an inhibitory NT; decreased levels can increase anxiety.

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9
Q

What are some risk factors associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

Risk factors include being male, genetic loading, and intellectual disability.

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10
Q

Which part of the brain is the largest and divided into lobes?

A

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, divided into lobes.

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11
Q

Define tolerance in relation to drugs.

A

Tolerance is the process of becoming less responsive to a particular drug over time.

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12
Q

What are the three levels of prevention in mental health?

A

Primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.

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13
Q

What is the primary aim of primary prevention?

A

Decreasing the incidence of mental disorders.

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14
Q

Give an example of secondary prevention in mental health.

A

Screening programs or telephone hotlines.

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15
Q

What is the focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

A

Decreasing disability and severity.

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16
Q

What are the DSM-5 criteria for ADHD in adults?

A

≥ 5 symptoms per category, noticeable in ≥ 2 settings, impact on functioning.

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17
Q

What are the common neurotransmitter dysfunctions in ADHD?

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin dysfunction.

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18
Q

What are the signs of stimulant abuse in ADHD?

A

Insomnia, tremors, elevated blood pressure, mood swings, etc.

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19
Q

Name a non-stimulant medication used for ADHD.

A

Strattera (atomoxetine).

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20
Q

What are some nonpharmacological management strategies for ADHD?

A

Behavioral therapy, psychoeducation, family therapy, etc.

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21
Q

Describe the primary symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder.

A

Impulsivity, recurrent suicidal behavior, intense relationships, identity disturbances.

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22
Q

What treatment approach is recommended for Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT).

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23
Q

List some characteristics of Antisocial Personality Disorder.

A

Reckless, deceitful, lack of remorse, impulsivity, disregard for others.

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24
Q

What are the core symptoms of Rett Syndrome?

A

Loss of purposeful hand skills, stereotypic hand movements.

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25
Q

What is unique about the physical exam findings in Rett Syndrome?

A

Loss of purposeful hand skills and stereotypic hand movements.

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26
Q

What are tics in Tourette’s Disorder?

A

Involuntary, repetitive movements and vocalizations.

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27
Q

What are the primary neurotransmitters involved in Tourette’s Disorder?

A

Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Serotonin.

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28
Q

What is the pharmacological management for Tourette’s Disorder?

A

Atypical antipsychotics, Haldol, Pimozide, Aripiprazole.

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29
Q

What nonpharmacological management strategies can be used for Tourette’s Disorder?

A

Behavioral therapy, CBT, Deep Brain Stimulation.

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30
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for Tourette’s Disorder?

A

Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder, Stereotypic Movement Disorder.

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31
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Hallucinations, Delusions, Referential thinking, Disorganized behavior, Hostility.

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32
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Affective flattening, Alogia, Abolition, Apathy, Abstract thinking problems, Anhedonia, Attention deficits.

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33
Q

What are the associated neurobiological defects in schizophrenia?

A

Enlarged ventricles, Smaller frontal and temporal lobes, Cortical atrophy, Decreased cerebral blood flow.

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34
Q

What alterations in chemical neuronal signal transmission occur in schizophrenia?

A

Excess dopamine, Excess glutamate, Decreased GABA, Decreased serotonin.

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35
Q

What preventative care measures should be taken for individuals with schizophrenia?

A

Monitor routine labs, Serum glucose and lipid panels, Weight/BMI, Eye exams, Liver and kidney function.

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36
Q

What are Erikson’s stages of development and their characteristics?

A

Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt.

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37
Q

What nonpharmacological management strategies can be used for schizophrenia?

A

Individual/group therapy, Assertive Community Treatment.

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38
Q

What is the virtue associated with the stage of industry vs. inferiority?

A

Competency

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39
Q

What is the virtue associated with the stage of identity vs. role confusion?

A

Fidelity

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40
Q

What is the virtue associated with the stage of intimacy vs. isolation?

A

Love

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41
Q

What is the virtue associated with the stage of generativity vs. stagnation?

A

Care

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42
Q

What is the virtue associated with the stage of integrity vs. despair?

A

Wisdom

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43
Q

What is the unfavorable outcome of the industry vs. inferiority stage?

A

Inferiority in understanding and organizing

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44
Q

During which stage does a personal sense of identity develop according to Erikson’s theory?

A

Identity vs. role confusion

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45
Q

What is the age range for the stage of intimacy vs. isolation?

A

20-35 years

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46
Q

What stage focuses on giving time and talents to others in middle adulthood?

A

Generativity vs. Stagnation

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47
Q

What stage involves fulfillment and comfort with life in late adulthood?

A

Integrity vs. Despair

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48
Q

At what age range does the formal operational stage begin according to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

12 years to adulthood

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49
Q

What concept describes a child’s ability to know that objects continue to exist even when not seen or heard?

A

Object permanence

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50
Q

At what age range does the concrete operational stage occur according to Piaget?

A

7-11 years

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51
Q

Which of Freud’s stages involves focusing on the genitals?

A

Phallic stage

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52
Q

What is the age range for the oral stage in Freud’s psychosexual stages?

A

0-18 months

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53
Q

What muscle relaxant is recommended for treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A

Dantrolene

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54
Q

What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

Hyperreflexia, myoclonic jerks, agitation, rapid heart rate, elevated blood pressure, headache, sweating, shivering, confusion, fever, seizures.

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55
Q

What is the onset time for serotonin syndrome?

A

Within hours

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56
Q

How should serotonin syndrome be treated?

A

Discontinue offending agent, use Cyproheptadine

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57
Q

What are the symptoms of serotonin discontinuation syndrome?

A

Flu-like symptoms, insomnia, nausea, imbalance, sensory problems, hyperarousal, fatigue, lethargy, myalgia, decreased concentration, vomiting, ataxia, impaired memory, agitation.

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58
Q

What are the effects of an agonist on receptors?

A

Activates a biological response by opening the ion channel

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59
Q

What is the difference between an inverse agonist and a partial agonist?

A

Inverse agonist causes opposite effect, partial agonist has limited actions.

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60
Q

What type of drug binds to receptors but does not activate a biological response?

A

Antagonist

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61
Q

Define delusion and paranoia.

A

Delusion: False belief despite evidence. Paranoia: Belief that others are against you.

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62
Q

What is assessed in a mental status exam?

A

Appearance, behavior, speech, mood, affect, thought process, thought content.

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63
Q

What components are included in the Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE)?

A

Concentration, orientation, speech, registration, recall, fund of knowledge.

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64
Q

Name some instruments for assessing cognitive impairment.

A

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA), Mini Cog, St Louis University Mental Status Exam (SLUM)

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65
Q

What age groups have a higher suicide risk based on gender?

A

Age 45 or older for males, age 55 or older for females.

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66
Q

List some risk factors for suicide.

A

Previous suicide attempts, older age, divorced/single/separated, white, living alone.

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67
Q

What are the key features of delirium?

A

Acute onset, altered level of consciousness, inattention, changes in cognition and concentration.

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68
Q

What is the preferred treatment for agitated delirious patients?

A

Haloperidol (Haldol) per APA guidelines.

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69
Q

What are the pharmacological management options for delirium?

A

Antipsychotic agents, atypical agents, anxiolytics for insomnia.

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70
Q

What is the one-year mortality rate for clients with delirium?

A

Up to 40%.

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71
Q

What are the types of dementia based on cortical and subcortical characteristics?

A

Cortical (affects cerebral cortex) and Subcortical (dysfunction below cortex).

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72
Q

What functional deficits are associated with cortical dementia?

A

Apraxia, Agnosia, Aphasia.

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73
Q

What is the hallmark of Lewy body disease?

A

Recurrent visual hallucinations.

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74
Q

What are the early signs of dementia due to HIV disease?

A

Cognitive decline, motor abnormalities, behavioral abnormalities.

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75
Q

What is the second most common type of dementia?

A

Vascular dementia.

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76
Q

What is the cardinal feature of Huntington’s disease?

A

Motor abnormalities (choreoathetoid movements).

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77
Q

What are the key characteristics of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)?

A

Chronic dysregulated mood, frequent temper outbursts, severe irritability, anger, no identifiable stressor.

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78
Q

What is a characteristic of Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED)?

A

Involves repeated sudden episodes of impulsive, aggressive, violent behavior or angry verbal outbursts.

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79
Q

What neurotransmitters are dysregulated in Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin (DNS).

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80
Q

What cognitive and memory symptoms of MDD in older adults are often confused with dementia?

A

Pseudodementia.

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81
Q

What does SIGECAPS stand for in the context of MDD?

A

Sleep disturbance, interested reduced, guilt/self-blame, energy loss/fatigue, concentration problems, appetite changes, psychomotor changes, suicidality.

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82
Q

What are the differences between Dementia and Pseudodementia?

A

Onset, progression, insight, behavior, memory, disability emphasis, affect, psychiatric history, suicide risk.

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83
Q

What is the recommended duration for continuing antidepressants in MDD treatment?

A

Minimum of 6-12 months; 2+ prior episodes consider continuing indefinitely.

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84
Q

What are the first-line and second-line pharmacological treatments for MDD?

A

First-line: SSRIs; Second-line: TCAs.

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85
Q

What are the non-pharmacological management options for MDD?

A

ECT, TMS, CBT.

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86
Q

What are the contraindications for Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

Cardiac disease, compromised pulmonary status, history of brain injury or tumor, anesthesia medical complications.

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87
Q

What are the potential adverse effects of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

Possible cardiovascular effects; systemic effects like headaches, muscle aches, drowsiness; cognitive effects like memory disturbances, confusion.

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88
Q

How should suicidal ideation be managed clinically?

A

Always assume seriousness; assess and intervene promptly.

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89
Q

What teratogenic risks are associated with benzodiazepines?

A

Floppy baby syndrome, cleft palate

90
Q

Name the teratogenic risk associated with carbamazepine.

A

Neural tube defect

91
Q

What is the teratogenic risk of lithium (Eskalith) during pregnancy?

A

Ebstein anomaly

92
Q

Which teratogenic risk is specific to Divalproex Sodium (Depakote)?

A

Neural tube defects, specifically spina bifida

93
Q

What severe skin condition can Lamictal (Lamotrigine) cause?

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)

94
Q

What signs and symptoms may be seen in patients with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?

A

Fever, sore throat, facial swelling, rash, skin sloughing

95
Q

Mention the black box warning associated with carbamazepine.

A

Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia

96
Q

Why is screening for HLAB-1502 allele important before initiating carbamazepine?

A

Highly associated with outcome of carbamazepine-induced SJS

97
Q

What condition is monitored by absolute neutrophil count in patients taking Clozapine?

A

Risk for neutropenia

98
Q

When should Clozaril be discontinued if Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) is less than 1000?

A

Discontinue if ANC is less than 1000

99
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of folic acid for women planning pregnancy?

A

0.4 - 0.8mg daily

100
Q

What does the BMI range of 18.5-24.0 indicate?

A

Normal weight

101
Q

Which medication is FDA-approved for bulimia nervosa?

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

102
Q

List the features commonly seen in patients with Anorexia Nervosa.

A

Low BMI, amenorrhea, emaciation, bradycardia, hypotension

103
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Wellbutrin (Bupropion)?

A

Norepinephrine-Dopamine Reuptake Inhibitor (NDRI)

104
Q

Why is Wellbutrin contraindicated in bulimia and eating disorders?

A

Increased risk of seizures and electrolyte imbalance

105
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of Clozapine (Clozaril)?

A

Cytochrome P-450 enzyme CYP1A2

106
Q

What is the goal of exposure therapy for PTSD?

A

To achieve adaptive resolution.

107
Q

Explain the desensitization phase in exposure therapy.

A

Clients visualize trauma, verbalize negative thoughts, focus on physical sensations.

108
Q

What occurs during the installation phase of exposure therapy?

A

Clients strengthen positive thoughts to replace negative ones.

109
Q

Describe the body scan process in exposure therapy.

A

Scan body to identify any tension.

110
Q

What is the focus of family systems therapy?

A

Chronic anxiety within families.

111
Q

What are the treatment goals of family systems therapy?

A

Increase family’s awareness, enhance self-differentiation.

112
Q

Explain the concept of triangles in family systems therapy.

A

Dyads forming triads to decrease stress levels.

113
Q

What is the primary goal of structural family therapy?

A

Produce structural change in family organization.

114
Q

What is one of the primary methods used in structural family therapy?

A

Direct interactions between family members.

115
Q

What are paradoxical directives in strategic therapy?

A

Negative tasks assigned to resistant family members.

116
Q

What is the focus of solution-focused therapy?

A

Reworking present solutions based on past success.

117
Q

What is one of the key techniques used in solution-focused therapy?

A

Miracle question - envisioning a problem-free scenario.

118
Q

Describe projection as a defense mechanism.

A

Attributing unacceptable thoughts to another person.

119
Q

Explain displacement as a defense mechanism.

A

Redirecting impulses onto a powerless target.

120
Q

What is sublimation as a defense mechanism?

A

Redirecting unacceptable emotions into constructive behaviors.

121
Q

Define intellectualization as a defense mechanism.

A

Focusing on intellectual aspects to avoid emotional ones.

122
Q

What does rationalization involve as a defense mechanism?

A

Logically justifying generally unacceptable behavior.

123
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hyperprolactinemia?

A

Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, sexual dysfunction, gynecomastia.

124
Q

List the symptoms of pseudoparkinsonism.

A

Stooped posture, shuffling gait, rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors at rest.

125
Q

How is acute dystonia characterized?

A

Facial grimacing, involuntary upward eye movements, muscle spasms.

126
Q

What are the symptoms of akathisia?

A

Restlessness, trouble standing still, constant foot movement.

127
Q

Define akinesia.

A

It is the absence of movement, difficulty initiating movement.

128
Q

Describe the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

A

Protrusion and rolling of the tongue, sucking/smacking movements, facial dyskinesia.

129
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?

A

Low birth weight, microcephaly, midface hypoplasia, underdeveloped jaw.

130
Q

Which medication is associated with most cardiac adverse effects among antidepressants?

A

Citalopram.

131
Q

Differentiate between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics.

A

Pharmacodynamics studies drug effects on the body. Pharmacokinetics studies body’s actions on the drug.

132
Q

List medications that can cause mania and depression.

A

Steroids, disulfiram, isoniazid, antidepressants (mania); steroids, isotretinoin, beta blockers (depression).

133
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Fragile X Syndrome?

A

Larger head/ears, short stature, hyper-extensive joints, broad forehead.

134
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Extreme muscular rigidity, mutism, hyperthermia, tachycardia, diaphoresis.

135
Q

What percentage of the exam covers ‘Scientific Foundation’ and ‘Advanced Practice Skills’?

A

45% (30% for Scientific Foundation and 25% for Advanced Practice Skills)

136
Q

How many questions are there in total on the test?

A

175 questions

137
Q

What type of answers should you avoid choosing on the test?

A

Partially correct answers

138
Q

What is the recommended strategy when faced with adjective-based questions like ‘priority’ or ‘initial action’?

A

Prioritize in order: i. Airway, breathing, and circulation ii. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs iii. The nursing process: Assessment before intervention

139
Q

What are some baseline labs to monitor for Lithium therapy?

A

Thyroid panel, Serum Creatinine, BUN, Pregnancy Test if 12-51 years old, ECG if over 50 years old

140
Q

What are some side effects of Lithium on the endocrine system?

A

Hypothyroidism, weight gain

141
Q

What are some CNS side effects of Lithium?

A

Hand tremors, fatigue, nystagmus, mental cloudiness, headaches

142
Q

What are some dermatological side effects of Lithium?

A

Maculopapular rash, pruritis, acne

143
Q

What gastrointestinal side effects may occur with Lithium therapy?

A

Diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, anorexia

144
Q

How can a hypertensive crisis occur when taking MAOIs?

A

Occurs when taken with foods containing tyramine or certain medications

145
Q

What is the treatment for hypertensive crisis?

A

Discontinue the MAOIs

146
Q

What are the stages of change in the Transtheoretical Model?

A

Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance, Relapse

147
Q

What action step is recommended in the Contemplation stage of change?

A

Help them see benefits of changing and consequences of not changing

148
Q

What is the goal of Cognitive Therapy according to Aaron Beck?

A

To change clients’ irrational beliefs, faulty conceptions, and negative cognitive distortions

149
Q

What tools are used in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for clients’ problems?

A

Journaling, nightmare exposure and rescripting, relaxed breathing, cognitive restructuring

150
Q

Who originated Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)?

A

Marsha Linehan

151
Q

What are the goals of Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)?

A

Decrease suicidal behaviors, increase realistic decision making and emotion communication

152
Q

What does Existential Therapy emphasize?

A

Accepting freedom, responsible choices, and focusing on personal responsibility

153
Q

Who originated Humanistic Therapy?

A

Carl Rogers

154
Q

What is the focus of Interpersonal Therapy?

A

Interpersonal issues creating distress, modifying relationship problems

155
Q

What is the goal of Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?

A

To provide a form of behavioral therapy

156
Q

What are at least 3 symptoms required for conduct disorder diagnosis?

A

Aggression, destruction of property, deceit or theft

157
Q

Which type of therapy is recommended for managing conduct disorder?

A

Behavioral therapy (family & individual therapy)

158
Q

What are the main symptoms of conversion disorder?

A

Blindness, mutism, paralysis, paresthesia, other unexplained neurological symptoms

159
Q

How soon do symptoms of adjustment disorder typically occur after a stressful event?

A

Within 3 months of the event/change

160
Q

What are the subtypes of adjustment disorder with specific mood disturbances mentioned?

A

Adjustment disorder with depressed mood, anxiety, conduct issues, mixed emotions and conduct

161
Q

Describe the characteristics of grief and loss as compared to major depression.

A

In grief, self-esteem is usually preserved unlike in major depression

162
Q

What are some nonpharmacological management strategies for grief and loss?

A

Encourage expression, support groups, community resources, psychoeducation, psychotherapy

163
Q

What are the core symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A

Reexperiencing traumatic event, increased arousal, avoidance of trauma stimuli

164
Q

List pharmacological treatments recommended for PTSD.

A

SSRIs, TCAs, Prazosin for nightmares

165
Q

What are some nonpharmacological treatments for OCD?

A

CBT, EMDR, Exposure therapy, Supportive group therapy, Relaxation techniques

166
Q

What are the main obsessions and compulsions in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A

Obsessions: Recurrent thoughts causing anxiety; Compulsions: Repetitive behaviors

167
Q

What are some risk factors associated with OCD?

A

First-degree relatives, PANDAS (associated with streptococcal infections)

168
Q

Which cerebral hemisphere controls most right-sided body functions?

A

The left hemisphere controls most right-sided body functions.

169
Q

What connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

A

The corpus callosum, a large bundle of white matter.

170
Q

What functions are controlled by the frontal lobe?

A

Thinking, planning, problem solving, emotions, behavioral control, decision making.

171
Q

What is the primary auditory area located in?

A

The temporal lobe.

172
Q

What does the parietal lobe involve primarily?

A

Perception, object classification, spelling, visuospatial processing.

173
Q

What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?

A

Vision, visual processing, color identification.

174
Q

What part of the brain is crucial for balance and hand-eye coordination?

A

The cerebellum.

175
Q

Which brain structure regulates body temperature and heart rate?

A

The brainstem.

176
Q

What is the main purpose of the Clock-Drawing Test (CDT)?

A

To screen for signs of neurological problems like dementia.

177
Q

What system is essential for the regulation of emotions and memory?

A

The limbic system.

178
Q

What does the hippocampus regulate primarily?

A

Memory, converts short-term memory to long-term memory.

179
Q

Which brain structure is responsible for mediating mood and emotions?

A

The amygdala.

180
Q

What does hyperactivity of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway mediate?

A

Positive psychotic symptoms.

181
Q

What is postulated to be the cause of negative symptoms in schizophrenia?

A

Decreased dopamine in the mesocortical projection.

182
Q

What is the Tarasoff Principle about?

A

Duty to warn potential victim of imminent danger of homicidal clients.

183
Q

Explain the elements of informed consent.

A

Decision capacity, full disclosure, comprehension, voluntariness, documentation.

184
Q

What does the principle of justice involve?

A

Doing what is fair in all aspects of care.

185
Q

Define nonmaleficence in healthcare ethics.

A

Doing no harm, such as stopping harmful medications or treatments.

186
Q

What does beneficence promote in healthcare?

A

Promoting well-being and doing good for patients.

187
Q

Explain the concept of veracity in healthcare ethics.

A

Telling the truth about medical conditions and treatment options.

188
Q

What is autonomy in healthcare context?

A

Right to self-determination, respecting patient decisions.

189
Q

Describe the goal of case management.

A

Promote quality and cost-effective outcomes for clients.

190
Q

What does Stark Law prohibit in healthcare referrals?

A

Referring family members for patient treatment.

191
Q

What do the acronyms PICO and LOE stand for in research?

A

PICO: Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome. LOE: Level of Evidence.

192
Q

Define Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)

A

Potentially traumatic events occurring during childhood (0-17 years)

193
Q

What did Felitti et al. find in their seminal study on ACEs?

A

Positive unintended pregnancy, STDs, depression, anxiety, cancer, etc.

194
Q

What does the Biopsychosocial Framework of Care Recovery Model emphasize?

A

Resilience, control over problems and life, and not just symptom resolution.

195
Q

What are the aims of the Recovery Model in mental health care?

A

Help individuals look beyond survival, recognize abilities, foster dreams.

196
Q

Name the four dimensions of recovery in the Recovery Model.

A

Health, home, purpose, community

197
Q

What is the goal of Assertive Community Treatment (ACT)?

A

To help people integrate into the community, reduce hospital reliance.

198
Q

Describe the approach of Assertive Community Treatment (ACT).

A

Intensive, integrated mental health services in a community setting.

199
Q

Who determines the Scope of Practice for Nurse Practitioners?

A

State legislative statutes (State Board of Nursing)

200
Q

What is the Standard of Practice determined by?

A

American Nurses Association (ANA)

201
Q

What does confidentiality refer to in mental health practice?

A

Client’s right to expect non-disclosure of provided information.

202
Q

List some exceptions to confidentiality in mental health care.

A

Intent to harm self or others, litigation, court orders.

203
Q

What are the four components of health policy?

A

Process, policy reform, policy environment, policymakers.

204
Q

What is the aim of a just culture?

A

To create an environment that encourages individuals to report mistakes.

205
Q

How does forced field analysis work?

A

It looks at driving and hindering forces toward a goal.

206
Q

What is the core competency in nursing?

A

Ability to meet clients’ needs through logical thinking and nursing skills.

207
Q

Explain Root Cause Analysis (RCA).

A

It uncovers causes of problems using various tools and techniques.

208
Q

What does the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 mandate?

A

Employers must make reasonable accommodations for individuals with mental health disorders.

209
Q

What is the goal of quality improvement projects?

A

To improve systems, decrease costs, and enhance productivity.

210
Q

How does patient advocacy relate to mental health stigma?

A

It helps reduce the stigma through education and support.

211
Q

Define problem-based learning (PBL).

A

A student-centered approach where students learn by working.

212
Q

What is risk analysis in healthcare?

A

An ongoing process to understand and address organizational risks.

213
Q

How does patient-centered care model incorporate sociocultural competence?

A

By understanding and considering various aspects of a client’s background.

214
Q

What is reflective practice in nursing?

A

Linking theory to practice to enhance critical thinking.

215
Q

Define transference in a therapeutic relationship.

A

Displacement of feelings for significant people in the client’s past onto the provider.

216
Q

Explain countertransference in the context of nursing.

A

The nurse’s emotional reaction to the client based on his or her past experiences.

217
Q

What are the three medications approved by the FDA for alcohol dependence?

A

Acamprosate (Campral), disulfiram (Antabuse), naltrexone (Vivitrol).

218
Q

How does acamprosate (Campral) work in alcohol dependence treatment?

A

It reduces alcohol consumption.

219
Q

Explain the concept of clinical opiate withdrawal scale (COWS).

A

It assesses symptoms of opiate withdrawal such as yawning, anxiety, pupil dilation, etc.

220
Q

What is the purpose of the Screening, Brief Intervention, Referral, and Treatment (SBIRT) model?

A

It screens for substance use disorders and provides intervention and referrals for treatment.

221
Q

What type of problem does a group aim to solve?

A

An open-ended problem

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