Board Flashcards

1
Q

SMP 1

A

Safety Procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SMP 6

A

Lost tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SMP 9 and what is it?

A

CTI / RII
Something that can affect safe flight or RII specific by FAR 135 operator.
If an asset is disturbed in a control system/could result in failure/malfunction or a defect endangering safe operation of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SMP 18

A

Task and Shift Handovers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SMP 23

A

Maintenance Documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SMP 2

A

APU Ground running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SMP 3

A

Ground taxi procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SMP 15

A

Removal of Serviceable parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SMP 16

A

Removal of unserviceable parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SMP 17

A

Removal of scrap parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SMP 30

A

Maintenance docs and paper backup procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SMP 48

A

Fabricated parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where and what is the EASA and FAA approval number?

A

Form 3 in Share point.
UK.145.00883
MGTY330K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the MOE?

A

Share point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where can you find the SMS manual?

A

Share Point, EHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is the MOE foreign reg Sup?

A

Share Point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who are the form 4 holders and accountable manager.

A

Sander, Carl Wild and Clark Mouncher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can a repaired part be issued on a G Reg release form FAA8130

A

No - Unless Dual Release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Validity of Airworthiness authority approval Form 47

A

On Sharepoint,

Master Validity of Reg Authority Approvals / Components capabilities at Gulfstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RVSM

A

Specific Airspace Ethernet FL290 - FL410, 1000 ft separation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What to do if the tool to be used is not ACC AMM approved?

A
  1. Tech ops approval/Possible Disposition.
  2. SMS report.
  3. Health and Safety assessment required before use.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RII on MLG for US aircraft, confirm?

A
  1. Check SMP 9 & GMM / Roster

2. Part 135 registered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What class in engines?

A

A. Airframe
B. Engines
C. Components
D. NDT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Find an AD ref crew O2 bottle on GV?

A

Check CAA/FAA Website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can a B1 do a complex avionic task?

A

No, must be less than 10 steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maintenance definition and form number?

A

Scheduled maintenance, form 20.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Camo regulated by?

A

Part M / Sub part G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An A/C is in for 6 weeks in the hangar to carry out some maintenance what things are to be considered and what procedures?

A

Aircraft preservation
SMP 31
+29 days
Ref AMM Preservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Before some fuel from an A/C is put into the bill fuel, what three checks should be carried out.

A

A. Debris
B. Water checks
C. Biocide/Contamination check
D. SMP 58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What the definition of a motor powered aircraft/complex aircraft.

A

Minimum take-off weight 5700kg

Max pax 19
Certified for operation with a minimum crew of at least 2 pilots.

Fitted with a turbojet engine or more than 1 turboprop engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the Categories and time scales for an ADD in the tech log.

A
  1. Check SMP 56 Tech Log completion.
  2. Cat A. Items must be repaired etc. IAW the operators MEL stated limitations.
  3. Cat B. Items to be repaired within 3 consecutive days (72 hours)
  4. Cat C. Items to be repaired within 10 consecutive Callander days.

5 Cat D. Items to be repaired within 120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Simple test?

A

Bite - CMC or external test equipment not involving specialist training.

Go no go parameter

Test does not involve more than 10 steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When carrying out line maintenance what is required to release aircraft.

A

Line maintenance requires a CRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is required after a scheduled maintenance? (maintenance programme)

What SMP??

A

C-Cert

SMP 24

Release to service procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TD?

A

Technical Directives

No. 26 shipping of aircraft docs, with GPS tracking
07/10/2021

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

QIB’s

A

No.151
Swedish Airforce approval
26th October 2021

37
Q

What needs a CTI/RII?

A

Anything that will cause a Catastrophic failure

38
Q

Where is the EASA approval number?

A

EASA Form 3

39
Q

SMP 24

A

Release to service

40
Q

ICA?

A
  1. Instructions for continuous Airworthiness
  2. ICA is required by EASA/FAA part 21
  3. Also
    Includes CS 25
41
Q

What does the O and the M mean in the tech log?

A

Operational Defect

Maintenance action required defect

42
Q

What is Cap 747

A

Mandatory req for airworthiness

43
Q

CAP 562?

A

CAA info, procedures, manufacture, overhaul, repair, maintenance

44
Q

Who can make an STC?

A

Supplementary type Cert.

  1. Part 21 Sun Part J (design)
  2. It can be bought or Sold.
45
Q

Cat A

A

Can issue CRS for following:
Minor scheduled line maint.
Simple defect rectifications

46
Q

Cat B1?

A

Can issue certs of CRS and to act as B1 support staff following maintenance on structure, engines and beaux electrics.

47
Q

Cat B2

A

Can issue CRS.

Does not include CAT A

48
Q

CAT C?

A

Shall permit the holder to issue CRS following base maintenance .

49
Q

FAA CFR 14

A

Code of Federal Regulations.

Covers aeronautics and space regs

50
Q

FAA part 21

A

Cert procedures for products and parts.

51
Q

FAA Part 43

A

Maintenance, rebuilds and alterations.

52
Q

FAA Part 135?

A

Requirements for air taxis like Netjets

53
Q

FAA 135 manual?

A

GMM & RII roster list.

54
Q

MOR?

A

Report within 72 hours

Mandatory Occurrence Report

55
Q

Part 147?

A

Training Organisastion

56
Q

F337 form?

A

Major repairs or Mods under FAA.

57
Q

SMP 55

A

Line maintenance control of defects

58
Q

SMP 23

A

Maintenance documentation

59
Q

SMP 23

A

Maintenance docs

60
Q

SMP 24

A

Release to service procedure

61
Q

SMP 25

A

Aircraft robbery procedure

62
Q

SMP 45

A

Repair procedures

63
Q

SMP 52

A

Alternative part numbers.

64
Q

What is a drop shipped part?

A

Part dropped straight to engineer, paperwork and parts checked by engineer

65
Q

What info is on a tech log?

Six things.

A
  1. Aircraft hours
  2. Aircraft cycles
  3. Last flight times
  4. Engine in APU hours
  5. Defect log and rectification
  6. Release to service box
66
Q

What is a form three?

A

Maintenance organisation approval (EASA document)

67
Q

What would you find in the cockpit of a FAA part 91 aircraft?

A
  1. No tech log (optional)
  2. No MEL (optional)
  3. You will find a journey log.
68
Q

OEM?

A

Original equipment manufacturer

69
Q

MMEL?

A

Master minimum equipment list.

Produced by manufactures.

70
Q

MEL?

A

Minimum equipment list

More restrictive than MMEL

71
Q

Definition continued airworthiness?

A

Aircraft and is component should meet design specifications and configurations to be safe and secure

72
Q

Definition of safety?

A

Secure from threat of danger, harm or loss.

73
Q

Definition of quality?

A

Fitness for purpose.

74
Q

Definition of human factors?

A

Factors of elements that affect us.

75
Q

Definition of human performance?

A

Persons ability to perform duties.

76
Q

Definition of hazard?

A

Potential to cause injury or aircraft damage.

77
Q

MOE part 1?

A

Management.

78
Q

MOE part two?

A

Maintenance procedures.

79
Q

MOE part 2L?

A

Line maintenance procedures.

80
Q

MOE part three?

A

Quality systems procedures

81
Q

MOE part seven?

A

Federal aviation administration (FAA) supplement..

82
Q

MOE part eight?

A

Transport Canada civil aviation (TCCA) supplement.

83
Q

SMP 25?

A

Aircraft robbery procedure.

84
Q

FAA part 91?

A

General operating and flight rules for all aircraft.

85
Q

MOE 1.9?

A

Scope of work

86
Q

MOE part 2?

A

Maintenance procedures.

87
Q

M.O.R

A

Mandatory occurrence report

88
Q

GAMPS?

A

GULFSTREAM aerospace manufacturing procedure specification.