BNF: Guidance on Prescribing Flashcards

1
Q

What does “non-proprietary” mean?

A

Generic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Should biological medicines be prescribed by brand?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When are oral syringes provided for liquid medicines?

A

When the doses are not in multiples of 5mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sugar free preparations do not contain what 3 excipients?

A

Fructose, sucrose, glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false:

Preparations containing hydrogenated glucose syrup e.g. sorbitol are classed as sugar-free?

A

True

No evidence that they cause dental caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The excipient benzyl alcohol is associated with what in neonates?

A

Fatal toxic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Polyoxyl castor oils, used as vehicles in intravenous injections, carries the risk of what?

A

Severe anaphylactoid reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the problem with propylene glycol if its elimination is impaired, e.g. in renal failure, in neonates and young children?

A

Can cause adverse effects. When consumed in toxic quantities, the buildup of lactic acid can lead to acidosis and kidney failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two drugs may interact with propylene glycol? (Hint: alcohol interactants)

A

Metronidazole and disulfram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For extemp products:

  1. If the BP direction states that a preparation must be “freshly prepared”, within how many hours must it be made before issued for use?
  2. If the direction that a preparation should be “recently prepared” indicates that deterioration is likely if the preparation is stored for longer than how many weeks?
A
  1. Made within 24 hours of being issued

2. About 4 weeks at 15–25○ C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prescriptions for drugs used for contraceptive purposes (but which are not promoted as contraceptives) may need to be marked in handwriting with what symbol?

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a black triangle next to a drug mean and how long is this retained for?

A

The black triangle symbol = newly licensed medicines require additional monitoring by the EMA. Products usually retain a black triangle for 5 years, but this can be extended.
All suspected rxns for black triangle drugs should be reported to MHRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In terms of statistics, what does a very common side effect mean?

A

Greater than 1 in 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In terms of statistics, what does a common side effect mean?

A

1 in 100 to 1 in 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In terms of statistics, what does an uncommon side effect mean?

A

1 in 1000 to 1 in 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In terms of statistics, what does a rare side effect mean?

A

1 in 10,000 to 1 in 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In terms of statistics, what does a very rare side effect mean?

A

Less than 1 in 10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would be examples of immediate, rapidly-evolving reactions (<1 hour after drug administration)?

A
  • Anaphylaxis, with erythema, urticaria or angioedema, and hypotension and/or bronchospasm.
  • Urticaria/angioedema without systemic features
  • Exacerbation of asthma e.g. NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would be examples of non-immediate drug reactions without systemic involvement (6-10 days after drug administration)?

A

Cutaneous reactions e.g. localised inflamed skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would be examples of non-immediate drug reactions with systemic involvement (3 days - 6 weeks after drug administration)?

A
  • Cutaneous rxns with systemic features, e.g. drug rxn with eosinophilia and systemic signs (DRESS) or drug hypersensitivity syndrome (DHS), characterised by widespread red macules, papules or erythroderma, fever, lymphadenopathy, liver dysfunction or eosinophilia
  • Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis or Stevens–Johnson syndrome
  • Acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drugs are capable of causing oral ulceration?

A

Cytotoxics, ACE inhibitors, gold, nicorandil, NSAIDs, pancreatin, penicillamine, proguanil hydrochloride, and protease inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aspirin tablets allowed to dissolve in the sulcus for the treatment of toothache can lead to what?

A

White patch then ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lichenoid eruptions are associated with which drugs?

A
LICHENOID
I - inhibitor ACE
Ch - chloroquine
 - M before N - Methyldopa
N - NSAIDs
O - Old is Gold
D - anti Diabetics + Diuretics thiazide
24
Q

Brown staining is a common side effect of which mouthwash?

How can this be removed?

A

Chlorhexidine

With polishing

25
Q

Iron salts in liquid form can do what to the teeth?

A

Stains enamel black

26
Q

Permanent staining of the teeth is common with which antibiotic class?

What age group is affected and what are the contraindications?

A

Tetracyclines

Under 12 years

C/I in pregnancy, BF, under 12 years

27
Q

Osteonecrosis of the jaw is associated with what drug class?

A

Bisphosphonates

28
Q

Excessive ingestion of fluoride leads to what?

A

Dental fluorosis - white spots on teeth

29
Q

Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of the gum) is associated with which drugs?

A

Phenytoin, ciclosporin, nifedipine (and other CCBs)

30
Q

What does xerostomia mean?

A

Dry mouth from reduced/lack of saliva flow

31
Q

What drug classes cause a dry mouth?

A
  • Antimuscarinics
  • TCAs, SSRIs
  • Alpha blockers
  • Antihistamines, Antipsychotics
  • Baclofen, Clonidine
  • Opioids
  • Tizanidine
  • XS use of diuretics
32
Q

What drugs can increase saliva production?

A

Clozapine and neostigmine

33
Q

What drugs cause swelling of salivary glands?

A

Iodides, antithyroids, phenothiazines, sulphonamides

34
Q

True or false:

Drugs should not normally be added to blood products, mannitol, or sodium bicarbonate.

A

True

35
Q

Is prednisolone highly protein bound?

A

Yes

36
Q

If a patient has decreased muscle mass, will their eGFR be underestimated or overestimated?

A

Overestimated (as there creatinine will be low)

37
Q

What is the best way to calculate renal function in patients with a BMI < 18 and BMI > 40?

A

CrCl

38
Q

Should actual or ideal body weight be used when calculating CrCl?

A

Ideal, but if underweight use their actual body weight

39
Q

How do you calculate IBW?

A

Ideal body weight (kilograms) = Constant + 0.91 (Height - 152.4)

Where:

Constant = 50 for men; 45.5 for women
Height in centimetres

40
Q

In terms of eGFR, what is CKD2?

A

60-89

41
Q

In terms of eGFR, what is CKD3a?

A

45-59

42
Q

In terms of eGFR, what is CKD3b?

A

30-44

43
Q

In terms of eGFR, what is CKD4?

A

15-29

44
Q

In terms of eGFR, what is CKD5?

A

<15

45
Q

What drug can inhibit an infant’s sucking reflex?

A

Phenobarbital

46
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of oral codeine?

A

100mg

47
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of IV/SC/IM morphine?

A

5mg

48
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of oral oxycodone?

A

6.6mg

49
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of oral tramadol?

A

100mg

50
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of oral dihydrocodeine?

A

100mg

51
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of oral hydromorphone?

A

2mg

52
Q

10mg of oral morphine is equivalent to how much of IV/SC/IM diamorphine?

A

3mg

53
Q

If a patient is having morphine salt 12mg daily and needed to convert to a buprenoprhine patch, which one would they need to use?

A

Buprenorphine ‘5’ patch

54
Q

If a patient is having morphine salt 30mg daily and needed to convert to 72 hour fentanyl patch, which one would they need to use?

A

Fentanyl ‘12’ patch

55
Q

What can be used for anorexia in palliative care patients?

A

Prednisolone or dexamethasone

56
Q

A pharmacist providing MURs must ensure that at least 70% of all MURs fall under what national target groups?

A
  • Patients taking high-risk medicines - NSAIDs, anticoagulants (including LMWH), antiplatelets, or diuretics
  • Patients recently discharged from hospital who have had changes made to meds
  • Patients prescribed certain respiratory medicines
  • Patients with, or at risk of CVD, and are regularly prescribed at least 4 medicines.
57
Q

When would you report a yellow card?

A
  • All ADRs for new meds; black triangle
  • All serious ADRs for all meds (including homeopathic, off-label). This means- fatal, life-threatening, congenital abnormality, disabling, results or prolongs hospitalisation
  • All errors that result in an ADR e.g. from dosing, dispensing. (There are no repercussions from reporting such events)