BMS237 Advanced Developmental Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Why is developmental biology research important in todays society?

A

Because todays society is ageing faster than it is growing

- By 2020 - the population will grow by 3% and the population over 65 will grow by 12%

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2
Q

How much of the UK welfare budget is spent on pensioners?

A

55% - £114bn

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3
Q

What are the two theories of how organisms develop?

A

Epigenesis
- Aristotle 324BC
- Organisms develop progressively through the generation of new structures and forms
Preformationism
- Organsims develop from miniature versions of themselves: homunculus

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4
Q

What is the cell theory?

A
  • Proposed by Robert Cooke, 1665
  • That all organisms are composed of one or more cells
  • The cell is the most basic unit of structure, function and organisation in all organisms
  • All cells arise from pre existing living cells
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5
Q

How was the cell theory discovered?

A

Reported his studies - viewed thin slices of corks and looked into microscopes and saw cells

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6
Q

What is ‘Germ plasm determinants’ theory?

A

Weismann in 1880s

  • Germ cells have a collection of ‘determinants’
  • Somatic cells only have some of these determinants and therefore will carry out a specific function based on the determinants present
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7
Q

What experiments were conducted to try and prove Weismanns theory?

A

William Roux - 1888
- Killed one cell in a two cell stage frog embryo and left it in contact
- Half of the embryo developed suggesting that that cell only had those determinants (he was wrong)
Hans Driesch
- He physically separated the cells at two and four stage
- All developed normally and fully
- Showing that all determinants were present in every cell

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8
Q

What was the main difference between Roux’s and Driesch’s experiment?

A

In Driesch
- The two cells didn’t remain in contact so lost cell to cell communication - causing them to develop into full organisms

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9
Q

What are the two types of cell division?

A

Symmetric and asymmetric

- asymmetric produces two distinct daughter cells

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10
Q

What are the types of cell - cell communication involved in developmental biology?

A

Paracrine
- Signal produced by one cell and acts on a different cell
Autocine
- Produced by one cell and acts on the same cell
Juxtacrine
- Cell to cell contact

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11
Q

What is required for cell to cell interaction?

A

Signal reception requires cells to be competent (permissive

environment, receptor and transduction components)

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12
Q

What are the common features in signal transduction pathways?

A
  • Reception: The ligand (growth factor, signaling molecule) binds to a cell surface receptor and activates it.
  • Transduction: Receptor activation induces the transduction of the signal from the membrane to the nucleus via a cascade of secondary messenger activation.
  • Response: A transcription factor is activated and induces the transcription of specific target genes.
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13
Q

What are the three germ layers and what do they develop into?

A

Ectoderm - Nervous system, skin
Endoderm - Gut
Mesoderm - Blood, heart, muscle, kidney

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14
Q

How is tissue homeostasis controlled in development?

A

Negative feedback loop

  • Controls the amount of growth that occurs
  • Produces a protein which acts on stem cells preventing further proliferation
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15
Q

What is the role of stem cells in adults?

A

Stem cell mediated repair

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16
Q

What can happen when tissue homeostasis is disrupted?

A

If cells are pushed more towards differentiation instead of stem cells then it leads to ageing and degeneration
If cells are pushed towards progenitors and stem cells then leads to cancer

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17
Q

What are the processes who underlie embryonic development?

A

Pattern formation
Morphogenesis
Cell differentiation
Growth

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18
Q

What is pattern formation?

A

The process by which cells are organized in space and
time to produce a well-ordered structure within the embryo
- Development of body axis

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19
Q

Why is the development of body axis important?

A

Allows cell to know exact coordinates and allow it to adjust its genetic program and acquire new characteristics

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20
Q

What is morphogenesis?

A

Cell and tissue movement, and changes in cell behaviour
that give the developing organ its shape in 3D
eg. Gastrulation

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21
Q

What processes contribute to morphogenesis?

A

Cell adhesion
Cell migration
Cell death
Cell shape

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22
Q

What is cell differentiation?

A

Process by which cells become different from each other and acquire
specialized properties. Governed by changes in gene expression, which
dictate the repertoire of protein synthesised
- Gradual acquisition of new characteristics and loss of pluripotency

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23
Q

What are the steps involved in cell differentiation?

A
Stem cell
Specification
Determination
Differentiation 
Maturation
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24
Q

What is the difference between specification and determination ?

A

Specification
- Early commitment (unstable)
- If taken out of environment and placed in another it would not keep the same lineage and develop a new fate
Determination
- Commitment becomes stable
- Would not change fate if implanted in a new environment

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25
Q

What is growth in development?

A
Continuous process (embryonic, fetal, post-natal, adult).
Growth rate varies depending on age and organ.
Cell proliferation, cell enlargement, accretion.
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26
Q

What is accretion?

A

Accumulation of ECM around the cell in order to grow

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27
Q

Is differentiation reversible?

A

Yes

  • Add specific transcription factors and it returns to a pluripotent form
  • Induced pluripotent stem cells
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28
Q

When are animal models useful for developmental research?

A

Funnel model - Wrong
- That they are only useful in very early development
- Decreases as development progresses
Hourglass model - Right
- Early stages can vary a lot between animals
- The mid embryonic stages are the most useful as they share a lot of similarities with humans

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29
Q

What experimental approaches are used in developmental biology to study when and where a gene is expressed?

A
  • in situ hybridization,
  • northern blot,
  • RT-PCR,
  • micro-array
  • reporter lines (transgenic)
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30
Q

What is in situ hybridisation used for?

A

Study when and where gene expression occurs in an embryo

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31
Q

Outline the method for in situ hybridisation

A

Generate a probe (nucleotide sequence) that mimics the gene of interest and label it
The probe allows us to detect this compound using immunohistochemistry
- Using an antibody that is coupled with an enzyme (alkaline phophostase)
- Generates a chromogenic reaction where hybridisation of a probe to a specific transcript occurs
Hybridisation is very stables so creates a striped pattern which can be seen in the developing embryo

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32
Q

Why is in situ hybridisation qualitative and not quantitative?

A

Because the chromogenic reaction will continue to get stronger as the reaction is left
- There is no correlation between amount of transcript present and the intensity of colour

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33
Q

What are reporter lines used to study in developmental biology?

A

Where and when a gene is expressed in a embryo

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34
Q

Outline the method for reporter lines

A

Information about regulatory sequences (promotors and enhancers) are required

  • If you have information regarding this then you use that molecular information to drive expression of another gene
  • Use green fluorescence protein - drive its expression
  • Fluorescence is observed
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35
Q

Is the information received for reporter lines qualitative or quantitive?

A

Qualitative

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36
Q

What is a genome wide study?

A

Global information of overall gene expression of a specific cell

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37
Q

Give some examples of genome wide techniques used in developmental biology?

A

RT PCR
Microarrays
RNA seq

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38
Q

What are microarrays used for?

A

Finding gene expression content

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39
Q

Outline the technique for microarrays

A
  • Reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA
  • Label each cells cDNA with different fluorescent tags e.g.. cell A will all be red and B green
  • Hybridize on a life which have a collection of short sequences that are specific to every single gene in the genome of that species
  • If cell A was expressing a specific gene then a hybrid would form and red fluorescence would be seen , if B then green
  • Can use software that screens the dots and looks at intensity of fluorescence - tells us the amount of gene present
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40
Q

What happens if there is co expression of genes in microarrays?

A

If cells A and B express different genes then red and green would be expressed
- No co expression
If genes expressed in both then would see yellow

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41
Q

Why do developmental biologists also have to investigate protein distribution?

A

Because proteins may not be expressed where it was transcribed
In development there are mechanisms that may delay the protein production so that transcription occurs

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42
Q

How is protein distribution investigated it?

A

Western blot

Immunohistochemistry

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43
Q

Outline the technique of immunofluorescence

A

Requires the availability of antibody specific to the protein of interest
Antibody specifically binds protein
Detect this antibody by adding a second antibody specified for the immunoglobulin for the species that the original antibody is raised in

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44
Q

Compare western blotting and immunoflourescence

A

Western blot tells amount of protein in tissue but does not have as a high as a resolution

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45
Q

How would you study how important a protein is in development?

A

Gain of function and loss of function experiments

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46
Q

Define loss of function

A
Mutation in a gene that disrupts the expression or the
function of the protein product encoded by the mutated gene
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47
Q

Define gain of function

A

Mutation in a gene that confers a gain in the activity of

the protein product encoded by the mutated gene.

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48
Q

Define forward genetics

A

Seeks to identify a gene whose mutation caused a

particular phenotype

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49
Q

Define reverse genetics

A

Seeks to characterize the phenotype of particular

mutated gene

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50
Q

What are the two ways of causing loss of function mutations?

A

Forward genetics
- Introducing random mutations in genomes and look for phenotype
Reverse genetics
- Disrupt function of specific genes

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51
Q

What animal models can have forward genetics done?

A

C elegans
Drosophila
Zebrafish
Mice

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52
Q

What is used to introduce a mutation in forward genetics?

A

ENU - N-ethyl N-nitrosourea

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53
Q

What are the disadvantages of forward genetics?

A

Time consuming - so usually done on animal models with short generation time
Expensive

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54
Q

What animal model can knockouts occur in?

A

Mice, drosophila and zebrafish

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55
Q

What is required for a knockout to occur?

A

Knowledge about the gene you’re knocking out

- Its structure and location on chromosome

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56
Q

Outline the formation of a conventional knockout mouse

A
  • Create a construct that is similar to the endogenous gene (structure)
  • Modify this construct with a gene (e.g. antibiotic resistant) that will disrupt function of endogenous gene - e.g. effecting start codon stopping transcription
  • Once made the construct introduce into embryonic stem cells from a mice line (of one coat colour)
  • Can select out embryonic stem cells that have incorporated your gene by growing the stem cells on antibiotics - only ones with the construct will survive
  • Triggers homologous recombination - in cell division cross over reactions occur in chromatids causing replacement of endogenous gene
  • Inject these cells into blastocyst and then surrogate mother
  • Breed mouse and eventually will have a conventional knockout mice where the construct is in every single cell of the mouse
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57
Q

How can you check if the embryonic stem cells containing the construct are present in the knockout mouse?

A

By looking at the level of chimerism in coat colour as ES stem cells and blastocyst where from mice with different coat colours

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58
Q

What is the problem with conventional knockout mice?

A

The gene will have been knockout out from the earliest stage of development meaning that if that gene was required for normal embryonic development, it would be unlikely that the knockout mice would survive long enough to study the protein of interests function

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59
Q

How is the problem with conventional knockout mice overcome?

A

Conditional knockout mice crossed with tissue - specific cre mouse

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60
Q

Outline how a knockout mice can be made where the gene is only knocked out in specific tissues

A
  • Construct will contain targeting gene but will be surrounded by loxp sequences which does not disrupt endogenous gene function
  • Homologous recombination requires another mouse which expresses tissue specific cre recombinase - an enzyme that recognises loxp sites and triggers homologous recombination specifically in those tissues. The cre recombinase must be under the control of a promotor and enhancer
  • Cross the conditional mouse wth the tissue specific cre mouse then knockout will occur later in development
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61
Q

How can you chose when a knockout of a gene occurs?

A

Variants of cre mice that are inducible that allows you to not only choose which tissue but also when the knockout occurs

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62
Q

How do you investigate when a gene is regulated?

A
  • Embryology: tissue manipulation (graft, ablation)

- Manipulating signaling pathways: drugs, transfection/electroporation, genetics

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63
Q

Give examples of how tissue manipulation have lead to important embryological discoveries

A

Grafting different regions of developing embryo to different places and looked at the effect - lead to discovery of the organiser
Similar experiment lead discovery of the zone of polarising activity in the limb bud

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64
Q

How are the origins of cells expressing gene of interest investigated?

A

Fate mapping

  • Label small group of cells in early development before cells have become committed
  • Use antibody to detect the labelling later in development to see what has happened to the cell
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65
Q

What animals can fate maps be done in?

A

Zebrafish
Xenopus
C.elegans

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66
Q

How do you label cells in fate maps?

A

Injecting fluorescence dye

Adding a reporter gene

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67
Q

How can you label individual cells in a developing embryo?

A

Using loxp and cre recombinase

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68
Q

What is a morphogen?

A

A soluble secreted molecule that acts at a distance to specify the dates of cells. It specifies more than one cell type by forming a concentration gradient

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69
Q

Who came up with the idea of morphogens?

A

Alan Turing 1951

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70
Q

What is required of a morphogen make to make a concentration gradient?

A

Its not just making the morphogen that is important but also destruction of the morphogen at the other end of the field of cells

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71
Q

How can bilateral symmetry form?

A

If morphogens from both ends and sink in the middle

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72
Q

What must a morphogen do?

A
  • Induce different outputs at different concentrations

- Act directly at a distance

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73
Q

How can you use the morphogens property of inducing different outputs at different concentrations to test if a molecule is actually a morphogen?

A

Morphogens are instructive not just permissive

  • ectopically implant the morphogen and if its is a real morphogen it will change the cell fate if not the the cell will goto original fate (permissive)
  • Can also make concentration of the morphogen the same in all of the cells then all cells would have the same fate
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74
Q

What happens if you ectopically implant Shh in the anterior of a chick limb bud?

A

Get duplication of the digits

- Shh is acting as a morphogen

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75
Q

How can you use the morphogens property of acting directly at a distance to test if a molecule is actually a morphogen?

A

The morphogen must be able to diffuse all of the cells to reach the other end
Signals that are morphogens do not diffuse through they trigger a new molecule to be produced at each cell and released
- genetically engineer to make the morphogen juxtacrine - stopping it passing through the membrane of neighbouring cells
- If its a morphogen then cells won’t change fate
- If not then still will change fate

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76
Q

What is meant by a signalling molecule being ‘bucket brigade’?

A

The molecule doesn’t diffuse trough its fuel of cells it binds to the membrane of the neighbouring cell and triggers a new molecule to be formed and released from that cell
- This new molecule then triggers the same response

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77
Q

How would making a genetic mosaic test if a molecule is actually a morphogen?

A

Remove the receptor for the morphogen on later cells I the field

  • If actual morphogen cell fates won’t change in response to morphogen because won’t be able to detect it
  • If bucket brigade then it won’t be affected and cell fates will still be induced as long as the directly neighbouring cell still has a receptor for it
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78
Q

How does diffusion establish a morphogen concentration?

A

Binding to molecules in the extracellular matrix (e.g. heparan sulphate proteoglycans) and high concentrations of receptor can generate a steep gradient - called “restricted diffusion”
Rapid degradation of the signal in the extracellular space may also generate a steep gradient

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79
Q

How do Heparan sulphate proteoglycans (HSPGs) regulate morphogen diffusion?

A

HSPGs are found in the extracellular matrix and are known to bind to many ligands. They are sometimes called co-receptors. They regulate morphogen diffusion by:

  • sequestration or slowing diffusion. eg BMP (TGFbeta)
  • facilitating diffusion (Hedgehog)
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80
Q

What is planar transcytosis?

A

When the molecule inputs from one side of the cell and outputs from the other side - doesn’t leave the vesicle

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81
Q

What is the role of planar transcytosis in morphogen gradients?

A

A pit forms in the cell membrane and engulfs the morphogen in a vesicle
Repeated cycles of endocytosis and resecretion allows certain morphogens to travel through the cells in a tissue

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82
Q

Give evidence for the role of planar transcytosis in establsihing morphogen gradients

A

Evidence for transcytosis in Dpp (TGFbeta) signalling: antibody staining shows that Dpp is found in vesicles AND mutations that block vesicle formation cause Dpp to act in a juxtacrine manner

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83
Q

How does timing affect morphogen concentrations?

A

All neighbouring cells will think thy are going to be a cell that requires little or no morphogen until the morphogen gradient is established and they received the instructions for their real fate

  • There is a checkpoint at which all cells differentiate but not understood why
  • As the gradient is established, gene expression is changing with time. There must be a mechanism to block premature specification. The cell probably waits for the steady state of receptor activation to be achieved - but the molecular mechanism for this “check point” is poorly understood.
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84
Q

What is the transcriptional read out model?

A

How varying morphogen concentrations lead to different cell fates

  • Higher concentration of morphogen often results in a higher concentration of an activated transcription factor
  • In this model, receptor activation causes transcription factor to enter the nucleus and direct transcription. It is the same transcription factor in every cell - keep in mind these cells are initially identical.
  • It is the amount of transcription factor present that decided the cells fate
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85
Q

Give a transcription factor that also acts as a morphogen

A

Bicoid

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86
Q

How are transcription factor concentration interpreted at a DNA level?

A

Binding sites for transcription factors that activated by high concentrations of morphogens have a lower affinity and those activated by low concentrations have higher affinity binding sites

  • Even though both sets of genes see the same levels of transcription factors, only the high affinity enhancers can bind enough transcription factors to activate gene expression.
  • Also presence of negative feedback - repressor that switches off low concentration activated genes when high concentration genes are activated
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87
Q

How are strict thresholds of morphogen concentrations achieved even when the gradient isn’t that steep?

A

Positive feed back may help the cell commit to its fate. For example if one of the blue gene encodes a transcription factor that among other things activates its own expression

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88
Q

Why is the drosophila useful to use as a model organism?

A

Because it allows us to see evolutionary conserved genes between them and humans

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89
Q

What temperatures are drosophila live stock kept at?

A

18 decrees C
- If want to grow slowly with little maintenance
25 degrees C
- If want to grow fast

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90
Q

How long is development of drosophila?

A

10 days at 25 degrees C

21 days at 18 degrees C

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91
Q

What is the life span of drosophila?

A

40 days

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92
Q

Outline the history of using drosophila as a model organism

A

1910 - Morgan discovers a white eyed fly; white (w)
1913 - Sturtevant constructs first genetic map, genes are arranged in a linear order
1914/16- Bridges shows that chromosomes must contain genes.
1927 - Muller shows that X-rays cause mutations & chromosomal rearrangements
1979/1980 - Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus undertake a saturation mutagenesis to identify genes involved in the development and patterning of the larval cuticle
1980s,90s - technical and methodological advances

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93
Q

What technical and methodological advances were made from drosophila?

A
P-element transformation- transgenics
Enhancer trap	- promoter trapping
Gal4/UAS - gene misexpression
FLP/FRT - ‘clonal’ mutant analysis
RNAi- both ex vivo and in vivo
omic’ technologies - transcriptome, proteome etc
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94
Q

When was the genetic map of the drosophila published?

A

24th March 2000

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95
Q

How can we use the genetic map of drosophila to investigate genomes?

A

Can align genomes of different drosophila species and see which parts of the DNA have been conserved through time as the species have evolved over millions of years

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96
Q

Which parts of DNA have been seen to be conserved in drosophila?

A

Protein encoding exons are highly conserved

Most introns are not conserved

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97
Q

Some introns appear to be conserved through time, why is this?

A

Because they have regulatory roles

  • May be binding sites that transcription factors bind to
  • Enhancer regions
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98
Q

What are the physical differences between male and female drosophila?

A

Males are smaller with darker tip of abdomen

Females are larger and have distinct segments

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99
Q

Explain courtship in drosophila

A

It is genetically encoded, not learnt
Very strong drive for reproduction
Males face females and buzz wings and dance

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100
Q

Outline spermatogenesis in drosophila

A

Males have two testes and sperm tails
At the tip there are germ line stem cells which are maintained by hub cells
Hub cells produce a ligand that maintains stem cell fate of the cells surrounding them
When the stem cells differentiate, one cell remains by the hub cell and the other grates away to differentiate into sperm cells

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101
Q

How do hub cells maintain the fate of stem cells in drosophila?

A

They produce JAK/STAT pathway ligand

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102
Q

What are ovarioles?

A

String like structures which are present in drosophila ovaries
Over 100
They bind together and are where eggs develop and mature

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103
Q

How does fertilisation occur in drosophila?

A

After conception, females store the sperm in seminal receptacles for 2-3 weeks and is used to fertilise her eggs

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104
Q

How do oocytes form in drosophila?

A

Stem cell niche keeps stem cells in stem cell fate
They divide and one cell moves away
The cells undergo cystoblast mitotic divisions
Divide into 16 cells, two of the cells will have four connections and one of these cells will become the oocyte and the other 15 cells will becomes the nurse cells
Oocytes grow at the expense of the nurse cells
Egg activation occurs and undergoes meiosis

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105
Q

What are polytene chromosomes?

A

Large chromosomes in the drosophila

- Made of sub bands - over 5000 each 22kb

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106
Q

What are the maternal contributions to the zygote of drosophila?

A

pronucleus and proteins are RNA

- Proteins and RNA are made in nurse cells and are transferred to the developing oocyte via ring canals

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107
Q

What is responsible for the location of maternal factors in drosophila eggs?

A

Microtubules - minus and plus ended motors

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108
Q

What happens in early development of a drosophila zygote?

A

Pro nuclei from egg and sperm fuse
8 divisions of nuclei occur
After the 14th division there will be thousands of nuclei
Some remain in the centre to become the nuclei of yolk cells and other migrate to the top
Membrane starts to upgrow and form around the nuclei forming cells

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109
Q

What are the common intracellular signals in drosophila?

A
Hedgehog
Wingless (Wnt)
Delta
Transforming growth factor
Fibroblast growth factor
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110
Q

What processes are inched in the conversion of a single cell into an embryo?

A

Morphogenesis
Cell proliferation
Differentiation
Migration

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111
Q

What is cell differentiation?

A

Process by which cells become different from each other and acquire specialised properties
Governed by changes in gene expression, which dictate the repertoire of protein synthesised
Cells that become specialised lose potency

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112
Q

What is a morula?

A

64-128 uniform cells - this is due to cell proliferation and occurs very quickly and occurs very little growth

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113
Q

How is morula split into halves?

A
Split into a top and a bottom hemisphere 
In xenopus
- top hemisphere is animal 
- bottom is vegetal 
In chicks/humans 
- top is epiblast 
- bottom is hypoblast
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114
Q

What differences are seen in the oocyte and why is that important in embryo development?

A

At the 1 cell stage, before fertilisation, distribution of cytoplasmic components isn’t even
The oocyte is polarised and some of its components are only found in the vegetal half
When division occurs (in the animal vegetal plane) the cells become fundamentally different to each other as the top dividing cells will not inherit vegetal cytoplasmic components but bottom cells will

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115
Q

What is the first plane of division?

A

Animal vegetal

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116
Q

How does the presence of certain cytoplasmic components in different cells in a dividing morula cause a different fate?

A

The cytoplasmic components act on the DNA to regulate gene expression the vegetal hemisphere
- As a result particular transcriptional factors are turned on in the vegetal hemisphere and not in the animal
=> differences

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117
Q

How many genes does one transcription factor regulate?

A

Thousands

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118
Q

What transcription factor is turned on in the vegetal hemisphere of the morula?

A

VgT

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119
Q

What do changes in osmolarity in a morula lead to?

A

Blastocoel formation

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120
Q

What is the difference between the morula in a xenopus and a chick/human?

A

The morula is much flatter in chicks and humans and may be depicted as two flat surfaces

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121
Q

What does the activation of VgT transcription factor lead to?

A

Binds to the promotor region of Nodal gene up regulating it

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122
Q

What is the role of the nodal protein in the morula?

A

It is exported out of the cell in which it was made (made in vegetal cells) and is transported up into animal hemisphere

  • Acts as a morphogen
  • Animal hemisphere cells that recieve high concentrations of nodal become endoderm
  • Lower levels of nodal become mesoderm
  • No nodal protein become ectoderm
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123
Q

Which part of the morula of the germ layers develop from?

A

The animal hemisphere

The vegetal hemisphere are yolky energy providing cells which eventually die

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124
Q

How does the role of nodal differ in xenopus and in chick/humans?

A

Nodal also causes the cells to migrate and redistribute as well as just forming the germ layers

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125
Q

What would happen if the vegetal hemisphere didn’t exist in a morula?

A

All cells would have an ectoderm fate

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126
Q

How does a second symmetry event occur in the morula?

A

Sperm always binds to the animal hemisphere of the oocyte

  • Opposite side to sperm binding activates Wnt signalling pathway which activating the transcription factor beta catenin
  • So on the opposite side of the embryo Wnt signalling is activated leading to the formation of quadrants
  • as horizontal axis from animal/vegetal and then vertical axis from beta catenin presence
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127
Q

What is meant by a morula having four quadrants?

A

The morula is split in half by animal/vegetal hemisphere
it os then split in half vertically as beta catenin is present only in the side of the morula that the sperm doesn’t bind - activating Wnt signalling

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128
Q

What is special about the morula quadrant which is on the vegetal side and has beta catenin?

A

That is the quadrant with the most nodal signalling and the most Wnt signalling
This nodal and beta catenin overlap is called the Nieuwkoop centre
The future dorsal and posterior side

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129
Q

Where does the organiser develop?

A

In the cells that lie just above the Neiukwoop centre as they receive the most nodal signalling acting a specialised sub set of genes

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130
Q

Why does the combination of high levels of nodal and beta catenin lead to the development of the organiser?

A

Two parts of the promotor for genes (such as Gsc) need to be activated in order to activate transcription
Therefore requires the binding of SMAD2/4 (a downstream effector of nodal) and beta catenin (a downstream effector of Wnt)

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131
Q

How can we tell that there are differences between the mesoderm and the organiser?

A

Through in situ hybridisation

  • can see that different parts of mesoderm express different transcription factors and genes
  • Eg. Brachyury is induced in response to low levels of nodal, Gsc and Chordin
  • Xnot and Clim are induced in response to high levels of nodal and where Wnt signalling is activated
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132
Q

What happens to the organiser?

A

It undergoes convergent extension whereby the cells of the organiser form a long thin rod and internalise under the the ectoderm
Froms axial mesoderm

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133
Q

Why does the organiser undergo convergent extension?

A

Because the transcription factors expressed in the nucleus of cells of the organiser (e.g. siamois and goosecoid) begin to bind to promotors in an intrinsic manner to alter the cells behaviour
- including changes to migration and differentiation

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134
Q

What makes up the axial mesoderm?

A

Prechordal mesoderm and notochord

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135
Q

Why is there a clear AP axis after convergent extension of the organiser occurs?

A

Anterior end expresses Wnt and BMP antagonists
Posterior end expressed Wnt, FGF and retanoic acid
Antagonist actions from opposite ends creates a gradient forming the AP axis

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136
Q

What controls the formation of the AP axis?

A

Hox codes

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137
Q

How does neural induction occur?

A

Organiser produces secreted molecules - BMP antagonists such as Chordin and Noggin
These diffuse into the ectoderm and interfere with BMP interacting with receptor on a responding ectoderm cell
Causes the phosphorylation of SMAD
Causes a cascade of transcriptional factors to cause a neural fate

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138
Q

What happens in ectoderm cells that do not recieve BMP antagonists?

A

BMP is able to bind to BMP receptors on the ectodermal cells

Activating transcription factors that induce a skin fate

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139
Q

Where do BMP antagonists produced by the organiser diffuse into to?

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

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140
Q

What happens when BMP signalling is inhibited in the mesoderm?

A

Somites are formed

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141
Q

Give experimental evidence for neural induction

A

1920’s: Spemann and Mangold

  • A donor organiser was grafted from a donor onto a host newt
  • found that a ‘twinned’ embryo developed with a secondary neural axis
  • Secondary neural tube was host derived showing it was induced from the ectoderm in response to signals from the organiser
  • The prechordal mesoderm ad notochord where donor derived showing they’re formed from the organiser
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142
Q

Why was Wnt named that?

A

Because its an amalgam of wingless (the Drosophila gene) and int, a vertebrate proto-oncogene that encodes a mouse homologue of wingless.

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143
Q

When were the first wingless alleles first described?

A

The early 70’s

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144
Q

What is the relationship between Wg and Hh?

A

Wingless and Hedghog maintain each other so if you disrupt either of them it will lead to the same result
- Will cause wingless flies and disrupted segment polarity of the embryo

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145
Q

Why are there more types of Wnt in vertebrates then in drosophila?

A

Because vertebrates are more evolved so during evolution, duplications of the genes occurred
Its an ancient gene that is found in all metazoic organisms

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146
Q

How is the Wnt ligand formed?

A

When the ligand enters the secretory pathway, the N terminus is cleaved off
It becomes modified on two positions - (cys77 and ser209) by palmitoylation and palmitoleic acid modifications
Causes two fatty acids to be covalently linked to the wnt protein

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147
Q

How is Wnt secreted?

A

Wntless is required

  • Needs to either form multimers or be loaded onto a lipoprotein
  • Seen that HSPG is also important
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148
Q

Is it essential that Wnt is diffused out for normal function?

A

Evidence in drosophila say that just cell contact is enough for normal function of Wnt but no evidence to say this is the same in other organisms - most likely requires diffusion

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149
Q

What are the main receptors for Wnt?

A
Frizzled
Arrow or (LRP in humans)
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150
Q

What is the main transcription factor activated from wnt signalling?

A

Beta catenin

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151
Q

Describe the Wnt receptors

A

Frizzled

  • Made up of 7 transmembrane domains
  • LRP stands for LDL receptor related protein
  • LRP and Arrow are a single pass transmembrane protein which also makes contact with Wnt
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152
Q

How does Wnt bind to frizzled?

A

It binds to the long N terminal extension of frizzled which is known as the cysteine rich domain (CRD)

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153
Q

Give an example of an extracellular Wnt inhibitor?

A

Dickkopf1 (DKK1)

- Binds to LRP and Kremen promoting the internalisation of LRP

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154
Q

How is beta catenin broken down when Wnt signalling is not present?

A

There is destruction complex made up of APC, Axis, CK1, GSK3, Slimb proteins
Beta catenin binds to this complex and is phosphorylated CK1 and GSK3
This causes the Slimb protein to cause ubiquination of beta catenin leading to its degradation

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155
Q

What occurs to beta catenin when canonical Wnt signalling is present?

A

It is not broken down

  • Wnt binds to Frizzled and Arrow causing them to be brought together leading to phosphorylation of Dsh
  • This recruits the destruction complex to move to the receptor casino further phosphorylation of arrow creating binding sites for destruction causing the loss of Slimb from the destruction complex
  • Beta catenin still binds to the complex and it is still phosphorylation but Slimb is not there to tag beta catenin with ubiquitin to target it for degradation
  • This means that beta catenin remains in the complex causing it to clog
  • Beta catenin can then leave the complex and enter the nucleus where it can activate transcription
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156
Q

How is beta catenin targeted for degradation by the destruction complex?

A

Phosphorylation by both CK1alpha and GSK3 (kinases) is required for beta catenin recognition by an E3 Ubiquitin ligase complex (which contains β-TrCP/Slimb) to cause subsequent degradation by the proteosome.

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157
Q

Explain the binding sites for β-TrCP/Slimb on beta catenin?

A

CKI phosphorylates a site in the N-terminal tail of beta catenin at a specific recognition site
Only after this occurs can GSK3 phosphorylate another recognition site. (GSK3 phosphorylates 3 times at 2 different sites)
β-TrCP/Slimb can then bind to beta catenin once phosphorylation of the 3rd recognition site by GSK3 has occurred

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158
Q

Describe β-TrCP/Slimb and its interactions

A

β-TrCP/Slimb is the interacting site of an SCF E3 ubiquitin ligase complex

  • Contains a Roc component which binds to E2
  • It contains an F box which is responsible for its interactions with Skp1
  • It interacts with the substrate by a domain made up of WD40 repeats
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159
Q

What occurs in the nucleus when beta catenin enters?

A

When beta catenin is present

  • It binds to the promotor and activates acetyl transferases and BRC1 ( a chromatin remodelling enzyme)
  • Also activates transcription factors Pygo and Lgs
  • Allows transcription to occur
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160
Q

What is the role of Groucho in the nucleus?

A

When beta catenin is not present
- Groucho represses transcription by recruiting histone deacetylases wjocj causes acetyl groups to remove from histones causing tighter packing so it is less accessible for transcription

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161
Q

What examples of negative feedback are there in the Wnt signalling pathways?

A

DKK1, DKK4 and Axin 2 are all produced during the Wnt signalling pathway but act negatively on the action of the pathway

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162
Q

What other pathways are Wnt signalling involved in?

A

Planar cell polarity and convergent extension
- Involved Wnt11, Wnt3, Frizzled, Rho, Roc, Vang11/2
Axon guidance
- Repulsion by RYK receptor tyrosine kinase

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163
Q

What Wnt can inhibit canonical Wnt signalling?

A

Wnt5a

- Via ror2

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164
Q

What is the role of planar cell polarity?

A

To make all cells point in one direction

eg. hairs on rats, bristles in flies legs, hair cells in ear

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165
Q

What occurs in a mutant of Vang12?

A

Convergent extension does not work successfully

- Vang12 plays a role in the Wnt signalling pathway

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166
Q

What is the role of canonical Wnt signalling in drosophila?

A

Segmentation, also expressed at D/V boundary of the wing required for patterning and outgrowth
- The first wingless gene

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167
Q

What is the role of canonical Wnt signalling in C.elegans?

A

Doesn’t have a vital role but is used to regulate neuronal fate

  • If Wnt5 is active then the QL.d neurone will move backwards instead of forwards
  • Useful investigating the roles of Wnts and the strength of the signals
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168
Q

What is the role of canonical Wnt signalling in zebrafish?

A

Wnt11 induces a dorsal fate due to its activation of beta catenin
Wnt8/3 induces ventral/posterior fates in the late zygotic stage
Loss of Axin1 due to Wnt activation leads to posteriorisation of the anterior brain causing the loss of eyes

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169
Q

What is the role of Wnt signalling in intestinal stem cells?

A

Required to maintain intestinal stem cells in stem cell fate

  • If there is a loss of TCF4 or an over expression of dkk4 (and therefore loss of Wnt signalling) then you can see that there is a loss of these stem cells
  • Can be investigated using in situ hybridisation
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170
Q

How can Wnt signalling lead to cancer?

A

Ectopic wnt signalling can occur by the loss of APC gene (in destruction complex)
If the other copy of APC gene on the other chromosome is lost to (eg. due to mutation) then it can cause familial adenomatous polyposis as stem cells will just continue to divide uncontrollably without differentiation - cancer

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171
Q

What types of cancer can faults in Wnt signalling lead to?

A
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Breast cancer
Ovarian and uterine cancers 
Melanomas
Prostate cancer
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172
Q

What other diseases can faults in Wnt signalling lead to?

A

Wnt3-tetra-amelia
- Loss of function in Wnt3
- Babies born without limbs
Bone diseases
- LRP5 point munition cause insensitivity to Dkk causing an increase in bone density
- Axin2 mutations can cause severe tooth agenesis (oligodontia) - multiple missing teeth

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173
Q

What did Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus do in 1979?

A

Undertook a saturation mutagenesis to identify genes involved in the development and patterning of the larval cuticle

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174
Q

What did Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus find from their experiment?

A

They found 580 genes that didn’t cause lethality
Put them into complementation groups to check if they were on the same chromosome
Found that there were in 139 different genes in this experiment

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175
Q

How did Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus check if the genes were on the same chromosome?

A

They crossed each gene with each of the other genes

If a phenotype was shown then it failed to complement, if no phenotype was shown then complemented

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176
Q

What mutations did Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus find?

A

Lots including
Knirps - causes a loss middle chunk of segments
Paired - only has alternate segments
Gooseberry - lose half of each segment - segment polarity gene

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177
Q

What are the stages that occur during development that lead to segmentation?

A

Maternal genes
Gap genes
Pair rule genes
Segment polarity genes

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178
Q

What is bicoid?

A

A DNA binding transcriptional activator that acts as a morphogen
It is maternally loaded into the developing oocyte (by nurse cells)

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179
Q

What occurs if there is a loss of bicoid?

A

Loss of anterior structures

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180
Q

How can you partially rescue a bicoid mutant oocyte?

A

Implant anterior tissue from wild type oocyte into the bicoid mutant
Get the development of some anterior structures

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181
Q

How can ectopic transplantation of bicoid lead to bilateral symmetry?

A

If you take anterior tissue from wild type oocyte and implant in the middle of a bicoid mutant then you get bilaterally symmetry as thoracic segments all face the middle ectopic head

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182
Q

How can changing the number of gene copied of bicoid effect the developing oocyte?

A

If there are 0 copies then results in an oocyte with only 5 segments that are spread throughout the whole embryo (posterior)
If 1 gene (normal bicoid levels) then there are 7 segments and the original five or more posterior
If 4 genes (too much bicoid) then it compresses the segments posteriorly

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183
Q

How does bicoid act bind to DNA and act as a morphogen

A

High affinity binding site: activated at lower threshold concentrations of bicoid
Low affinity biding cites need high concs of bicoid to be activated

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184
Q

What is the role of pair rule genes?

A

Controlled by gap genes on a stripe by stripe basis
Kruppel and giant are repressors and bicoid and hunchback are activators
Each stripe is activated dependant on the interaction of positively and negatively acting transcriptional regulators

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185
Q

What is the role of segment polarity genes?

A

At this stage there is 14 segments but they need to be put together and show polarity within the segment (hairy cuticle and naked cuticle)

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186
Q

What is the relationship between Hh and Wg?

A

Hh and Wg feedback onto each other to maintain each others expression and refine segment borders

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187
Q

How is asymmetric pattern formed between Hh and Wg in the drosophila?

A

Hh maintains Wg expression which suppresses denticle development but an asymmetric pattern is formed because hedgehog causes degradation of wingless in posterior cells but not in the anterior cells creating a steep gradient on the posterior side

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188
Q

What is the role of hox genes in the drosophila?

A

Provide ‘who am I’ information to each segment.
Expression of homeotic genes along the a/p body axis occurs in the same order as the genes are within the genome.
Controlled by a combination of gap and pair-rule genes
Homeobox containing, DNA binding, transcription factors

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189
Q

How are hot genes laid out in the drosophila?

A

Two clusters

Patterned from anterior to posterior

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190
Q

What occurs when the antennapedia gene is mutated?

A

Mutation in drosophila hox genes that causes the antenna to turn to legs
Antennapedia gene is expressed in head as well as thoracic segments

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191
Q

What is meant by drosophila being a long germ band insect?

A

All 14 segments are defined at once

Meaning embryogenesis is complete in just 24 hours

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192
Q

When was the hedgehog gene discovered?

A

1980s

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193
Q

Name an animal that doesn’t have hedgehog signalling?

A

C.elegans

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194
Q

How many hedgehog genes are there in drosophila?

A

Hedgehog (Hh)

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195
Q

How many hedgehog genes are there in vertebrates?

A
Sonic Hedgehog (Shh)
Indian Hedgehog (Ihh)
Desert Hedgehog (Dhh)
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196
Q

Why is there more hedgehog genes in vertebrates then drosophila?

A

The genomes of vertebrates have undergone a number of genome duplications early in their evolution. As a result for several genes that are present in drosophila have more than one homolog.

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197
Q

How is the hedgehog ligand formed?

A
  • Hedgehog genes are transcribed
  • N-terminal region targets them the secretory pathway.
  • The signal sequence is removed and then the protein undergoes an autoproteolytic cleavage catalysed by the C-terminal part of the protein (this c terminal part has no other role than promoting this cleavage).
  • N-terminal part is coupled to a cholesterol molecule
  • A palmitoyl group is added to the N terminus by the skinny hedgehog gene in drosophila and Hhat in vertebrates
  • Both cholesterol and the palmitate are strongly hydrophobic and will render hedgehog quite insoluble in water and target it to membranes.
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198
Q

How is the hedgehog ligand diffused?

A

The hydrophobicity of the signaling component would make it impossible for the molecule to leave the cell membrane so it therefore requires the Dispatched protein

  • a 12 transmembrane protien
  • requires Scube glycoproteins
  • Mechanism not understood
  • likely to create multimeric hedgehog signaling particles that have their hydrophobic tail buried inside the particle or help load hedgehog molecules on lipoprotein particles
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199
Q

What receptors for Hedgehog are present in drosophila and vertebrates?

A
Drosophila 
- Patched 
- Smoothened 
Vertebrates
- Patched 1 and 2
- Smoothened 
- Hedgehog interacting protein (Hhip)
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200
Q

What is the overview of how Hedgehog signalling works?

A

Patched continuously inhibits smoothened by stopping it from reaching the membrane by sending it for degradation
When Hh is present, it relieves the inhibition allowing smoothened to be active

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201
Q

What is the ration of inhibition of patched to smoothened?

A

Not 1:1

one patched can inhibit many smoothened

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202
Q

What is different about the mammalian hedgehog pathway?

A

It takes place in the cilia

- discovered as cilia mutants had the same phenotype as hedgehog mutants

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203
Q

How is it thought that patch works?

A

It acts as a pump

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204
Q

What does the patch receptor have homology too?

A
  • Prokaryotic RND (resistance-nodulation division) permeases confer multi-drug resistance by pumping out toxins
  • NPC1 (Niemann-Pick protein C1), which promotes the movement of cholesterol-laden vesicles along microtubules and can transfer some molecules across membranes
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205
Q

What is the protein NPC1?

A

Ptc is also related to NPC1, the gene mutated in Niemann-Pick type C1 disease.
Niemann-Pick disease (NP) refers to a group of inherited metabolic disorders known as the leukodystrophies or lipid storage diseases in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance (lipids) accumulate in the spleen, liver, lungs, bone marrow, and the brain

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206
Q

What is the role of the hedgehog interacting protein (Hhip)?

A

Hedgehog interacting protein is a vertebrate specific molecule that most likely acts to “mop up” free hedgehog thereby preventing it from reaching the patched receptor and thus keeping the signal down

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207
Q

How is patch hedgehog signalling promoted by other proteins?

A

CDO BOC and and the verebrate specific gene Gas1 most likely act as a co-receptor promoting the binding of hedgehog signal to patched and thereby promoting signaling.

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208
Q

What occurs in drosophila when no Hedgehog signalling is present?

A

In the absence of hedgehog, patched inhibits the activity of smoothened and two complexes exist that keep the transcription facor Ci reponsible for the effects of hh signaling out of the nucleus

  • One containing costal2 (a kinesin like molecule that acts a scaffold protein) and fused a serine threonine kinase
  • The other contains the Ci and supressor of fused gene (sufu) a gene without clear domains
  • Under the influence of the first complex that is bound to Smo three other genes can act on Ci. They form complex consisting of casein kinase I Protein kinase A and Glycogen synthase kinase 3 beta.
  • The transcription factor Ci which as a full length gene is a transcritional activator is processed under the influence of these genes to a shorter form via Slimb.
  • The short form acts as a transcriptional repressor and is called CiR. In this way hedgehog target genes are actively repressed.
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209
Q

What occurs in drosophila when low Hh signalling is present?

A

When low concentrations of hedgehog are present it is thought that the PKA/GSK3/CKI complex dissociates from the complex containing Ci and as a final result, active repression by CiR is lost

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210
Q

What occurs in drosophila when high Hh signalling is present?

A
  • At high concentrations, hedgehog acts through both complexes to release a fulllength Ci that will actively promote transcription of target genes
  • This activation could involve phosphorylation but the exact nature if this phosphorylation is unknown
  • it is thought that phosphorylation of sufu by fused promotes formation of the active form of Ci.
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211
Q

How is the repressor form of Ci in hedgehog signalling formed?

A

PKA phosphorylates Ci first, priming phosphorylation by GSK3 and CK1.
Mutation of any of these sites reduces processing to Ci 75, and reduces Slimb binding
Slimb is an F box protein, a component of the SCF ubiquitin E3 ligase complex

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212
Q

What are the feedback effect of Hh signalling?

A

Negative
- One of the best known targets of Hh signaling is Patched1/Patched - limit level of activation and reduces the range of movement of the Hh signal
- CDO/BOC/GAS-1 (positive regulators) downregulated
Postive
- Gli1 (not Ci), which is always an activator of transcription, is induced

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213
Q

Give examples of non canonical Hh signalling

A

In myocytes/adipocytes
- Ca2+ acts on smoothened and activating AMPK
- Causes cellular metabolism stimulating aerobic glycolysis, where glucose is used as an energy source but without fully “burning” it in the mitochondria
- leads to the production of lactate, which leaves the cell and will acidify the extracellular medium.
In drosophila embryo
- Wg and Hh maintain each others expression in an autoregulatory loop
In wing patterning
- Diffuses to anterior side and produced app at the boundary between cells
Neural development
- Different cell types are induced depending on the amount and duration of the hedgehog signal.

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214
Q

How can Hh signalling pathway lead to disease?

A

Hedgehog loss of function
- holoprosencephaly, caused by a loss of ventral brain structures
- cyclopamine
polydactyly (extra digits) and syndactyly (webbed digits)

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215
Q

How can Hh signalling pathway lead to cancer?

A

Gain of Hh signaling
-Basal cell carcinoma (BCC),
medulloblastoma rhabdomyosarcoma
-Inactivation of Ptc1 or Sufu: tumor suppressor genes
-Activating mutations of Smo: Smo is a proto oncogene
BCC most common form of cancer

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216
Q

What other forms of cancer can be caused by hedgehog signalling?

A

In other cancers, Hh acts as a growth factor, but the pathway is not mutated

  • small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC)
  • pancreatic cancer
  • metastatic prostate cancer
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217
Q

What induces the organiser?

A

By signals released from the niewkoop centre

This activates BMP inhibitors

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218
Q

What is the pathway for ectoderm differentiating into epidermis?

A
  • BMP binds to BMP receptor and a secondary signal (Smad) is phosphorylated
  • Smad can then up regulate transcription factors like Msx1, GATA1 which leads to epidermal differentiation
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219
Q

What is the pathway for ectoderm differentiating into neural tissue?

A
  • BMP inhibited
  • No Smad phosphorylated so different transcription factors are up regulated (xlpou2, soxd)
  • Neural differentiation pathway
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220
Q

What occurs where BMP is inhibited in the mesoderm?

A

Somite formation

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221
Q

What is neurulation?

A

When the neural plate rolls up to form the neural tube

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222
Q

What causes the formation of the dorso-ventral axis?

A

Establishes in response to diffusible molecules

- BMPs released from surface ectoderm (dorsally) and Shh released from mesoderm ventrally

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223
Q

What causes the early neural border cells to be established?

A

Intermediate levels of BMP signalling triggering transcription factors (msx)

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224
Q

How is it thought that BMP’s induce a different dorsal cell type?

A
  • It was thought that they act as morphogens

- But recent work shows that roof plates may express many different BMP’s which induce a particular dorsal cell type

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225
Q

What are the key stages in ventralisation?

A
  • Notochord secretes shh
  • shh diffuses through spinal cord - conc gradient (morphogen)
  • It induces different patterns of transcription factors
  • High concs of shh cause floor plate cells to develop which occupy ventral midline of neural tube - activates shh
  • shh mRNA in both notochord and floor plate
  • shh diffuses into neighbouring cells causing ventral fate
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226
Q

What occurs during gastrulation?

A
  • The epiblast cells converge towards the primitive streak and involute down the streak
  • Epithelial cells transform to mesenchyme which is important in the ability of cells to migrate
  • Endoderm cells go deeper and mesoderm stays between endoderm and epiblast cells
  • Formation of mesoderm
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227
Q

Where is the paraxial mesoderm located and what does it form?

A

It is posterior to Hensen’s node and forms the somites

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228
Q

Where is the lateral mesoderm located and what does it form?

A

Found laterally to the axial mesoderm

Responsible for limb and heart formation

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229
Q

What does the intermediate mesoderm form?

A

Contributes towards formation of urogenital system - kidney and gonads

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230
Q

What does axial mesoderm form?

A

The notochord and precordal mesoderm

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231
Q

What are are somites?

A

Perfectly symmetrical small cells on either side of the spinal cord

  • Show evidence of segmentation in invertebrates
  • Segmented paraxial mesoderm
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232
Q

Give an example of segmentation in vertebrates

A

Somite number dictates number of spinal vertebrae

  • Humans have 33 vertebrae at adulthood
  • Human embryo has 38-44 somites
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233
Q

When is the primitive streak no longer present?

A

When somites no longer form - number of somites is fixed for a given species

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234
Q

What is the role presomitic mesoderm?

A

Although it is not segmented, it pre-figures the

future segmentation of somites

235
Q

How do somites form?

A

From by budding off pre somatic mesoderm

  • the paraxial mesoderm, becomes positioned in the tail of the pre-somatic mesoderm
  • form in pairs
236
Q

What model is used to explain the periodicity and reproducibility of somite formation?

A

The clock and wavefront model (Cooke and Zeeman, 1976)

237
Q

What does the clock and wavefront model (Cooke and Zeeman, 1976) say?

A

It predicts that a ‘clock’ ticks in the posterior pre somatic mesoderm and drives a molecular oscillator that dictates the periodicity of somites.
Where cells hit the travelling wavefront, an abrupt change of property occurs leading to the decision to form somites

238
Q

How was the clock and wavefront model discovered?

A
  • Cooke and Zeeman looked at the C hairy expression in the pre somatic mesoderm and saw that embryos have the same age all have very different expression patterns
  • They counted number of somites to see the developmental stage of bisected embryos
  • Concluded that expression of C hairy oscillates over 90 minutes which is the exact time it takes for a somite pair to form
239
Q

What experiments show how somite boundaries are formed?

A

Implanting a somite boundary into a non boundary region
- It creates a new boundary
- Meaning boundary cells can instruct cells that are anterior to form a boundary
Implanting lunatic fringe in anterior of somite
- Represses notch in anterior causing a boundary
Over expressing notch in posterior of somite
- Activates notch in posterior causing a boundary

240
Q

How is a somatic boundary formed?

A

Formed at the interface between notch expressing and non notch expressing areas

  • Anterior somite expresses high levels of notch signalling
  • Posterior somite expresses Mesp2 which activates lunatic fringe, this inhibits notch signalling creating a boundary
241
Q

What can inhibit notch signalling?

A

Lunatic fringe eg. Glycosyltransferase

- Notch signalling activates mesp2 which activates lunatic fringe

242
Q

How is the position of the wavefront in somite formation specified?

A

The interface of two opposing gradients of retanoic acid and FGF8
There is a high level of retanoic acid in already formed somites (anteriorly) decreasing towards presomatic mesoderm
FGF is expressed posteriorly so is high in mesoderm and low in somites

243
Q

How is the retanoic acid gradient formed?

A

Raldh2 is required for retanoic acid synthesis and is only produced in somites forming its gradient
FGF8 drives the expression of cyp26 which is an inhibitor of retanoic acid synthesis causing low retanoic acid where FGF8 is present

244
Q

What is the role of Mesp2 in somite formation?

A
  • FGF8 causes the expression of Tbx6
  • Tbx6 and notch signalling drive the expression of Mesp2 which is maintained by a negative feedback loop involving Ripply2 causing its expression to oscillate
  • Mesp2 leads to the suppression of delta and therefore decrease in notch activity
  • It is responsible for the formation of somite boundaries
245
Q

What occurs in the absence of notch signalling?

A

Somites do not align

In humans, this causes spondylocostal dysplasia. This is called Jarcho Lewin syndrome

246
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscle?

A
  • Movement and posture
  • Communication: speech, expression & writing
  • Maintain body temperature: heat released through muscle contraction participates in control of body temperature.
  • Respiration: importance of diaphragm
247
Q

What illnesses can cause muscle wasting?

A
  • Injuries
  • Ageing
  • Muscle-degenerating disease = Dystrophy
    (Duchenne and Becker)
248
Q

What are the stages of development of a muscle cell (myofibre)?

A

Stem cell undergoes specification/determination to form a myoblast
The myoblast then undergoes differentiation o form myotubules
- Myotubules then mature into myofibres

249
Q

How was MyoD discovered?

A

Weintraub, 1987

  • Fibroblasts could be driven to myoblasts if treated with a demythalating agent 5Aza (epigenetic changes)
  • He isolated the mRNA from both treated and untreated fibroblasts and converted it to cDNA
  • He hybridised these two cDNA together
  • Genes that are only found in fibroblasts or myoblasts will not be able to find a counter part to hybridise with so will remain single stranded
  • Found enriched cDNAs that were muscle specific
  • Isolated a number of genes through this including MyoD
250
Q

What is MyoD?

A

A master regulatory gene that is sufficient to drive muscle differentiation

251
Q

What happens if you ectopically implant MyoD into another cell type?

A

The cell will convert to a myoblast

252
Q

What other proteins are in the MyoD protein family?

A

Myf5, myogenin, Mrf4

253
Q

What is the function of the MyoD protein family?

A

They are transcriptional activators
They from heterodimers with E12 or E47
Binds to E box sequence in promotors of genes
- Abundant in promotors of genes which are involved in muscle cells

254
Q

What is the structure of the MyoD protein family?

A

Has a basic domain which is a binding site for DNA

Has a helix loop helix domain which allows or dimerisation with E12 and E47

255
Q

How are dermomyotome cells formed?

A

Dorsal part of the somites remain as epithelial cells and form dermomyotome

256
Q

What are dermomyotome cells?

A

Where skeletal muscles originate from
- contains progenitor cells for skeletal
muscles of the trunk and limbs

257
Q

What occurs in the ventral part of the somite?

A

The cells undergo a reverse process of epithelial to mesenchymal transition
The mesenchymal cells populate ventral pr too the somite and are responsible for formation of bonds

258
Q

What MRF gene is first expressed in embryonic development?

A

Myf5 - straight after somite formation

259
Q

What occurs in a knockout of Myf5?

A

No obvious defects at birth

A slight delay in myotome formation until onset of MyoD expression

260
Q

What occurs in a knockout of MyoD?

A

No obvious defects at birth

Increased Myf4 expression in somites

261
Q

Why do knockouts of MyoD OR Myf5 lead to viable offspring?

A

Because only Myf5 or MyoD is required for the generation of myoblasts
Have the capability to compensate for each other - functional redundancy

262
Q

What occurs in the myogenin knockout mice?

A

Mice die shortly after birth due to a diaphragm defect
Reduced density of myofibres so are replaced by myoblasts
Myogenin is required for muscle differential

263
Q

What MRFs are required for the determination of stem cells?

A

Myf5, MyoD or MRF4

264
Q

What MRFs are required for the differentiation of myoblasts?

A

Myogenin

265
Q

What MRFs are required for the maturation of myotubes?

A

MRF4

266
Q

What is required for the gene expression in epaxial myotome and hypaxial myotome

A
Epaxial 
- Neural tube and notochord secrete Shh
- Wnts released from ectoderm
- Both required to drive Myf5 and MyoD expression 
Hypaxial 
- BMP from lateral plate mesoderm 
- Wnt from ectoderm
- BMP4 drives Pax3 expression which represses Myf5 and MyoD expression. This is to ensure that the mytotome doesn't specifiy until it reaches its site of differentiation
267
Q

How do muscle progenitor cells know to move to the limb bud and what occurs in a splotch mouse?

A

Mesenchymal cells from limb bud expresses HGF/SF
BMP4 induced Pax3 in cells fates to become limb muscle
Pax3 induces C-met (receptor for HGF/SF)
After C-met activation, cells migrate to limb bud
Splotch mouse
- Deletion of Pax3 gene which drives expression of C-met
- If Pax3 is not present, migration does not occur
- Without this migration, MyoD and Myf5 will not be activated

268
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Adult muscle stem cells that are responsible for repair

269
Q

What occurs in a knockout of Pax7?

A

Pax7 specifies satellite cells

- In its absence, repair will not occur and cells will die

270
Q

How does adult regeneration of skeletal muscle occur?

A

Satellite cells are dormant until required
Activated by release of reactive oxygen species when muscle is damaged or after exercise
Reduced expression of Myf5 and MyoD which triggers repair
- Proliferate and differentiate activating myogenin
- Fuse with each other or existing fibre to repair muscle

271
Q

When are imaginal discs developed in the drosophila?

A

During embryogenesis - stage 12

272
Q

How does the wing imaginal disc develop in drosophila?

A

A wing disc grows from about 30 columnar epithelial cells to about 50000 by the end of the third larval instar

273
Q

What happens if one of the cells in the wing disc is mutated?

A

If make mutant in one original cell (of the 30) would have a huge impact on the overall wing
eg. Mutant fasIII clones produced a mosaic - normal structure but some cells are mutant and some are wild type

274
Q

What is the phenotype of Pax6/eyeless drosophila?

A

They have no eyes

275
Q

What is the phenotype of Pax6/eyeless mice?

A

Heterozygous - small eyes

Homozygous - do not survive - embryonic lethal

276
Q

What is the phenotype of Pax6/eyeless in humans?

A

Homozygous - don’t survive

Heterozygous - aniridia (loss of iris)

277
Q

What is eyeless?

A

A homeobox transcription factor homologous to vertebrate pax6
A key regulator of eye expression

278
Q

Is pax6 necessary or sufficient for eye development?

A
  • Found that Pax6 could rescue eye development and dorm new eyes so is sufficient - human pax6 expressed in flies
  • Also found to be necessary
279
Q

How many eyes does a drosophila have?

A

They have two large eyes on the side of their head

Three small eyes on the top called ocelli

280
Q

What is the role of the ocelli?

A

Used for orientation

281
Q

What is the structure of the large eyes of the drosophila?

A

Consists of 800 ommatidia per eye

282
Q

Give the structure of the drosophila ommatidia

A

Hexagon shaped
Curved so that the top ones face up and the bottom ones face down
Have 8 photoreceptors, 4 cone cells and 2 primary, 6 secondary and 3 tertiary pigment cells
Has a lens and a bristle

283
Q

What is the roll of cone cells in drosophila ommatidia?

A

Secrete the overlying lens

284
Q

What is the role of pigment cells in the driospohilla ommatidia?

A

They lattice optically insulates each until eye (stops light from dazzling)

285
Q

What is the layout of photoreceptors in a drosophila ommatidia?

A

Cluster of photoreceptors called rhabdomeres

  • Photoreceptors stretch across the length of the ommatidia
  • Small central R7 photoreceptors surrounded by larger R1-R6
  • R8 lies directly underneath of R7
286
Q

How are the ommatidia layed out in the eye?

A

They have a line symmetry where the ommatidia face opposite ways

  • Separates the dorsal and the ventral eye fields
  • Though to face a role in orientation
287
Q

What part of the fly brain are involved in processing vision?

A

Retina, lamina, medulla, lobula and lobule

1/3 of the brain - shows the importance of vision

288
Q

Where do photoreceptors R1-R6 protect to in the drosophila?

A

Project axons into the lamina

289
Q

Where do photoreceptors R7 and R8 protect to in the drosophila?

A

Project into the medulla

290
Q

What is meant by neural superposition of the eye?

A

Each rhabodmere are slightly angled meaning that light hits in the side focuses on the edges
Means any single object is seen by multiple rhabodmeres because they all overlap slightly but they activate different photoreceptors within those rhobodmeres
This process is the way a fly can increase the resolution of its sight - detect movement

291
Q

Where do photoreceptors first develop in the ommatidia?

A

Develop during the third install stage
Moves from anterior to posterior to fill the whole area with photoreceptors
- No photoreceptors in the morphemic furrow

292
Q

What is the morphogenic furrow in drosophila?

A

An indentation in the eye disc
It moves across the imaginal disc from posterior to anterior in response to a wave of signals that initiate development of ommatidia
It recruits each cell in the cluster and each cluster has a distinct morphology

293
Q

How does cell recruitment occur in the ommatidia?

A

R8 is the first photoreceptor to be recruited by notch signalling
R8, R2 and R5 secrete EGF pathway ligand spitz which recruited R3 and R4 and then R1 and R6
R7 is the last photoreceptor to be recruited
Then cone cells are recruited

294
Q

What is R7 recruitment in the ommatidia a good example of?

A

Single cell fate specification

295
Q

What is the phenotype of Sevenless and Boss mutants?

A

R7 not present but all other photoreceptors present

Shows R7 is not required for other photoreceptors

296
Q

What occurs to mutant drosophila that are lacking R7?

A

They cannot see ultra violet light

Th wild type favours UV light

297
Q

An experiment was conducted using Boss and Sevenless clones, what occurs when R7 is present and not present?

A

When R7 is not present, R8 is always a mutant

When R7 is present, R8 is always a wild type

298
Q

What conclusions do the results of the experiment involving Boss and Severnless lead too?

A

Shows that R8 requires boss to produce R7

Boss is a ligand in the ERF pathway which interacts with the seven less receptor - activates transcription pathway

299
Q

What are the three axis that need to be formed during development?

A

Anterior/posterior
Left/right
Dorsal/Ventral

300
Q

Why were skeletal elements used to study the limbs?

A

Easiest way to identify

- Associated with specific muscles and nerves

301
Q

What is a limb bud?

A

Form where limb will from

Appear first as protrusions from the flank at precise positions along the AP axis of the embryo

302
Q

What happens of you ectopically transplant lateral mesoderm?

A

If transplant to an area that is not normally a limb bud

- ectopic limb bud formation

303
Q

What do the results of ectopic mesoderm show about lateral mesoderm?

A

Before limb formation, there is molecular characteristics present in the mesoderm to form a limb

304
Q

What transcription factors are involved in formation of the limb?

A

T-box transcription factors

  • Tbx 5 - wing
  • Tbx 4- leg
  • Tbx5 can restrict expression go Tbx4
305
Q

What happens if your force expression of tbx4 in the forelimb?

A

you get a leg

306
Q

What dictates position of t-box transcription factors in limb formation?

A

HOX genes

307
Q

What is the role of hot genes in limb formation?

A

Expression of hox provides a permissive environment that allows synthesis of retanoic acid in mesoderm
Induces expression of tbx genes

308
Q

What happens if you implant FGF beads along the AP axis of the lateral mesoderm?

A

Limb formation wherever the beads are paced
Depending on where the bead is placed, depends on whether a wing or leg is formed
If implanted closer to the forelimb then a wing will develop (because it is close to tbx5)

309
Q

How is limb bud formation initiated?

A

Hox proteins allows the synthesis of retanoic acid
Retanoic acid induced Tbx transcription factors
Tbx causes the cascade activation of FGF10 in the mesoderm
FGF10 induces Wnt3a activating FGF8 in the ectoderm
Positive feedback loop between these causes limb outgrowth

310
Q

Outline the morphology of an early limb bud

A
The apical ectoderm ridge 
- Expresses FGF8
Zone of polarising activity 
- Expresses Shh
Progress zone
- Area of mesenchyme that lies under the AER
311
Q

How was the progress zone model formulated?

A

John sanders used microsurgery

  • took embryos form different stages and removed their AER and then allowed to continue to develop
  • Looked at there skeletal
  • If AER was removed at 3 days then proximal bones were developed but not distal
  • If removed at 3.5 days then proximal fully developed but no digits
  • If removed at 4 days then Neal full development but digits were truncated
  • He concluded that the AER plays a role in proximal distal development and maintaining cells in the progress zone
  • Concluded that progress zone cells are specified by the more time spent there: the more time in the progress zone, the more distal the cells
312
Q

How was the progress zone model disproved?

A

Disproved in early 2000’s when they used technique of cell fate mapping
- The fate of each cell didn’t match the predictions made from this model

313
Q

What is the two signal model?

A

Early in development, there are precursor cells for all p/d elements but they only develop into these cells based on what signals they receive

  • The signal for proximal formation is retanoic acid and is released from the paraxial mesoderm
  • The signal for distal formation is FGF and is released from the tip of the limb bud
  • They act antagonistically to each other
314
Q

How does expression of HOX effect whether proximal or distal parts of the limb bud develop?

A
Meis (a form of HOX)
- retanoic acid production 
- Causes expression of proximal structures
Combination of Hox11 an Hox13
- FGF production 
- Distal structures
315
Q

What are the homologs of Meis and Hox11 and Hox13 in drosophila?

A

Meis = Hth

Hox11 and 13 = Dll

316
Q

What happens if you graft the ZPA to anterior of limb bud?

A

Creates a mirror image duplication of distal digits

317
Q

What happens if you transplant a cluster of cells expressing high levels of Shh to the anterior of the limb bud?

A

Mirror image duplication of digits

- Same is if you graft ZPA

318
Q

How is it thought that the ZPA specifies the digits?

A

Suggested that ZPA secretes Shh which acts as a morphogen
High concentrations would specify digit 4
Low concentrations would specify digit 2

319
Q

Wat occurs to limb formation if there is a complete loss of Shh?

A

Complete loss of most skeletal elements

  • Small portion of digit present which is a remnant of digit 1
  • Because cells that are most anterior are outside of ZPA range so cells for digit 1 develop independently of Shh
320
Q

How is coordination of the different axes in limb bud formation maintained?

A

Negative feedback loop between Shh and Fgf8

- ensures coordinated development of limb bud along the axes

321
Q

How is the early eye field established in the embryo?

A

In the neural plate:

  • Under the influence of signals that define the anterior-posterior axis, an early territory is established that expressed distinct transcription factors: Rx, Six3, Pax6. This is the early eye-field
  • Slightly later, Shh from the prechordal mesoderm induces floor-plate like structure in the middle which splits the eye field
  • It does this by suppressing Pax6/Rx expression in the centre of the embryo, which is splits the field into two
322
Q

How does a Shh mutant have impaired eye development?

A

Unable to suppress Pax6/Rx in the centre of the embryo
Eye field is not separated
Results in cyclopia - single eye

323
Q

Which part of the neural plate does the eye field form?

A

Anterior neural plate

324
Q

When during development does the human eyes start to form?

A

3-7 weeks

325
Q

How do does the eye start to develop from the eye field during development?

A
  1. The eye field grows sideways and contacts the ectoderm
  2. The ectoderm then thickens forming the optic placodes
  3. Once induced, the placode signals back to the optic vesicle, causing it to undergo a mophological transformation, invaginating and forming a 2-layered cup-like structure
  4. This then pitches off to form a vesicle
326
Q

What transcription factors are induced in early eye development?

A

Six3 and Rx transcription factors which control proliferation and migration

327
Q

What is an essential quality of the lens of the eye?

A

Must be transparent

328
Q

How is the lens of the eye formed?

A
  • The lens placode is induced by contact between the optic vesicle and the overlying ectoderm
  • The lens placode is then induced, by the inner layer of the optic vesicle, to invaginate and pinches off to form a hollow lens vesicle
  • These cells are ‘stem-like’ – capable of ‘self-renewing’ to give more of themselves, or differentiating to lens fibre cells
  • Lens fibre cells are long, fibre-like highly specialised cells that fill the inside of the lens. They immediately make lots of a protein called crystallin – a transparent protein
  • Nucleus undergoes deterioration because so much crystallin produced
  • Stem like cells remain on outside of the lens
329
Q

What is the disadvantage of lens fibre cells losing their nuclei?

A

They have to lose their nuclei because the lens must be transparent
However, this means that these cells do not live very long so have to have a maintained population of stem cells to renew them

330
Q

What happens if stem cell stores deplete in the lens of the eye?

A

Stem cell populations can deplete in older people

Can lead to formation of cataracts

331
Q

What is the 2 layered cup like structure in the development of the eye?

A

Forms the retina

332
Q

Give the structure of the 2 layered cup like structure in the development of the eye

A

Consists of the outer retinal pigment epithelium and the inner neural epithelium

333
Q

What do the retinal progenitor cells in the outer retinal pigment epithelium give rise too?

A

Retinal progenitor cells in the outer layer form pigmented cells, giving the eye its colour

334
Q

What do the retinal progenitor cells in the inner neural epithelium give rise too?

A

Retinal progenitor cells in the inner layer give rise to the ganglion cells, bipolar cells amacrine cells, photoreceptors and Muller glia.

335
Q

What do optic stalks give rise to in eye development?

A

The astrocytes of the optic nerve

336
Q

How does retinal differentiation occur in the eye development?

A
  • The optic vesicle infolds, forming a bilayered optic cup
  • The inner wall of the optic cup becomes the neural retina, while the outer wall becomes the pigment epithelium
  • The cells of the outer layer produce melanin pigment (one of the few tissues other than the neural crest cells that can form melanin) and ultimately becomes the retinal pigment epithelium
  • Inner layer cells contain a stem cell-like population, which can either self-renew or can differentiate, via progenitors that differentiate to the diverse ganglion cells, interneurons, light-sensitive photoreceptor cells in the neural retina.
337
Q

What transcription factors are necessary for formation of eyes in invertebrates and vertebrates?

A

Six3, Rx1 and Pax6

338
Q

Give evidence for the evolutionary conservation of transcription factors involved in eye development?

A

if the mouse Pax6 gene is inserted into the Drosophila genome and activated randomly, Drosophila eyes form from Pax6+ cells

339
Q

What occurs in a Pax6 heterozygous and knockout?

A

Pax6 knockouts lack eyes, and heterozygotes have small eyes

340
Q

What are radial glia?

A

Neuronal stem cell
Radial glia can divide asymmetrically, giving rise to one daughter which is like its mother – ie a radial glia (stem cell), and a 2nd daugher that will differentiate to a neuron. This daughter uses the scaffold provided by its sister to migrate away from the ventricular zone

341
Q

How are radial glia formed?

A

Initially the neural tube is a single layered neuroepithelium. During early stages of neural tube development, some cells continue to ‘span’ the width of the neural tube. Their nuclei migrate back and forth at diferent stages of the mitotic cycle:
- In G1 and S phase of the cell cycle, the nucleus is away from the lumen.
- At M phase and cytokinesis, the nucleus is
close to the lumen.
- At cytokinesis, the lateral attachment is lost,
then reforms
These cells, which derive from the stem-like neuroepithelium, are called ‘radial glia’ and are believed to be the later ‘neural stem cells’

342
Q

What layers of the retina have developed by 7-8 weeks?

A

Neuorblasts sort into functional layers during development to form:
Rods and cones
Bipolar neurones
Ganglion cells
Axons of the ganglion cells join to form the optic nerve

343
Q

How do we knew that neuroblasts are stem/progenitor cells?

A

Rat retina:

  • A virus containing a functional β-galactosidase gene is injected into the back of the eye of a newborn rat to infect some of the retinal precursor cells
  • After a month to 6 weeks, the eye is removed and the retina is stained for the presence of β-galactosidase
  • Stained cells forming a strip across the neural retina, including five rod, a bipolar neurone, a rod termina, and a Müller glial cell
344
Q

Give examples of specific proneural genes that appear to drive specific retinal cell fates?

A

Chx10 promotes bipolar cells

Prox1 is involved in horizontal cell fate

345
Q

What is the function of all of the structures of the kidney?

A

To collect urine and void it into the bladder

346
Q

What events do we need to understand to appreciate kidney development?

A

Induce different cell types (nephron vs collecting ducts/calyces/ureter)
Induce these in a certain place in the body (lower back, bilateral)
Proliferation
Form branches (branching morphogenesis)
Form many nephrons
Attract blood capillaries to one end of nephron
Form tubes
Connect tubes (nephron and collecting ducts

347
Q

How has the sequenced drosophila helped with the discovery of human genomes?

A

Out of 929 known human disease genes, 548 have homologous genes in drosophila
Major signalling genes were discovered in fly:
Hh, Notch, Wg, Dpp etc

348
Q

When does the onset of heart formation occur in vertebrates?

A

Immediately after gastrulation

349
Q

Where do cardiac cells originate from?

A

The ventral lateral mesoderm called splanchnopleura

350
Q

How is the lateral mesoderm split?

A

Dorsal: Somatopleura - Splanchnic mesoderm and ectoderm
Ventral: Splanchnopleura - Splanchnic mesoderm and foregut endoderm

351
Q

What are the origins of the heart precursor cells?

A

First heart field
- First origin developed
- It has a low proliferative capacity so doesn’t contribute much to the structure of the heart
- It lays down the scaffold for the heart and is the exclusive source of the left ventricle
Second heart field
- High proliferation so can contribute to the structure of the heart
- It forms the right ventricle and outflow tract

352
Q

Where are heart precursor cells present in a chick embryo?

A

Precursor cells lie anterior part of embryo in the chick - angiogenetic cell clusters

353
Q

What is required for the specification of heart precursor cells during the development of the drosophila (mesodermal precursor to cardioblast)?

A

The homeobox gene Tinman

  • As the drosophila develops, Tinman expression becomes restricted to the dorsal vessel
  • It is originally expressed everywhere
354
Q

What is responsible for the regulation of Tinman in drosophila?

A

Dpp

355
Q

What is seen in a drosophila Tinman mutant?

A

In the wild type
- Myosin is stained
In drosophila
- Cant see myosin (a muscle specific protein)
- Therefore, Tintin is required for muscle formation

356
Q

What is the vertebrate homologue of Tinitn?

A

The Nk-2 family of homeobox transcription factors

  • Specifically Nkx2.5 (expressed in the cardiac crescent)
  • Responsible for the specification of mesodermal precursor cells
357
Q

What occurs in a Nkx2.5 knockout mouse?

A

They, unlike tinman mutants, form a heart but show cardiac defects at the looping stage
Suggests that there are some compensatory mechanisms to allow heart formation

358
Q

What regulates the expression of Nkx2.5 in vertebrates?

A

BMP (app homologue)

359
Q

How can you prove that BMP induces Nkx2.5 in chicks?

A

Gain of function experiments

  • Take a bead soaked in BMP2 and a control bead and implant them either side of the anterior primitive streak
  • Allow the chick to develop and then carry out in situ hybridisation for Nkx2.5
  • Saw more expression in lateral mesoderm by BMP2.5 bead
  • In presence of BMP2.5, Nkx2.5 is ectopically expressed in paraxial mesoderm (a tissue that doesn’t usually express it). BMP therefore has the capacity to induce Nkx2.5 expression
360
Q

How does the formation of the heart tube occur?

A

Angiogenetic cell clusters come together and the mesoderm thickens around it forming bilateral tubes
Migration occurs, bilateral tubes fuse to form a single endocardial tube
- Gives rise to endothelial lining of the heart and cushion cells that form valves

361
Q

What protein is responsible for cardiac muscle differentiation in the drosophila?

A

Dmef2

Responsible for differentiation of all muscle including skeletal and smooth

362
Q

What induces Dmef2 in drosophila?

A

Tintin

363
Q

What occurs in a Dmef2 mutant?

A

Differentiation of all muscle does not occur

Tinman is still present meaning the initial specification stages aren’t affected

364
Q

What does the phenotype of a Tinman mutant tell us about its role?

A

No Dmef2 present suggesting tinman is required for its induction, placing up stream genetically to Dmef2

365
Q

What are the vertebrate homologues of Dmef2?

A

Mef2A, Mef2B, Mef2C

  • Mef2c is the earliest gene expressed
  • Responsible for differentiation of cardiac muscle cells in vertebrates
366
Q

What occurs in a mutant Mef2C vertebrate?

A

There is no heart looping or right ventricle

There is upregulation of Mef2B suggestion part of a compensation mechanism

367
Q

What is responsible for the formation of the heart tube in vertebrates?

A

GATA transcription factors

  • Zinc finger proteins
  • GATA4 plays a role in controlling expression of genes involved in migration
  • Fore gut endoderm also important
368
Q

What is the phenotype of a GATA4 knockout mice?

A

2 tubes remain in bilateral positions - they fail to migrate - formation of heart tibe does not occur

369
Q

What is the drosophila homologue of GATA4?

A

Pannier

370
Q

What must occur for heart looping to start?

A

Looping is the first physical sign of a break in left and right symmetry

371
Q

How can we see the break in symmetry of the heart in vertebrate development?

A

Can be seen molecularly
- Lefty and Nodal, two TGFβ-related molecules, are specifically expressed on the left side
of the embryo.
- First asymmetry established when signalling through Activin receptor IIa inhibits Shh
expression on the right side of the embryo.

372
Q

What is the role of iv and inv in heart development?

A
  • iv (inversus viscerum) encodes a dynein, protein involved in the movement of cilia
  • inv (inversion of embryonic turning) encodes for Inversin, a protein containing
    ankyrin repeats found in cilia
  • Involved in heart looping
  • Inv and Iv are required for cilia
    movement - rotation. (In inv, cilia
    are smaller, creating a slower flow)
  • Cilia rotation establishes a preferential
    flow of Nodal and Lefty molecules on
    the left
373
Q

What occurs when a mutation in inv or iv genes occurs?

A

Mutations in inv or iv genes cause random (iv) or complete reversal (inv) of heart looping
Nodal and Lefty are expressed on the right, but not the left of embryo

374
Q

What genes are responsible for chamber formation?

A

dHand and eHand, two bHLH transcription factors, with specific expression in right and left ventricles
Initially expressed everywhere but then becomes restricted

375
Q

What controls the expression of dHand and eHand in vertebrates?

A

GATA4

376
Q

What occurs in a dHand knockout mouse?

A

Die early in development

Right ventricle hypoplasia

377
Q

What occurs in a eHand knockout mouse?

A

Died very early due to placental defects as it also has a role in tissue formation
A conditional knockout showed left ventricle defect but mice did survive until birth

378
Q

What is the formation of a definitive kidney known as?

A

Metanephros

379
Q

What two structures are involved in the formation of a definitive kidney?

A

Definitive kidney arises as a result of reciprocal interactions
between 2 structures, a small outpocketing of an intermediate
mesodermal structure called the ureteric duct (outpocket is called the ureteric bud), and the adjacent mesenchyme, called metanephric mesenchyme

380
Q

What part of the kidney does the metanephric mesenchyme form?

A

The definitive nephric tubules

381
Q

How does the metanephric mesenchyme become the nephric tubules in development?

A
  • The interaction between the ureteric bud epithelium and nephrogenic mesenchyme is an inductive interaction
  • The ureteric bud induces the nephrogenic mesenchyme to condense around the bud and undergo a mesenchymal-to-epithelial cell transition and form renal epithelium, then renal vesicles, in response to Wnt4
  • Renal vesicle proliferation is governed by signalling pathways forming an s shaped body
  • S body becomes polarised as the distal and proximal end have different properties
  • The proximal end secretes chemoattractants and angiogenic molecules to rearrange local endothelial cells and form new capillaries
  • The distal end fuses with the collecting duct by selective apoptosis
382
Q

Why (in development) do we have millions of nephrons per kidney?

A

Because the ureteric bud undergoes branching morphogenesis

- Therefore forms millions reba vesicles

383
Q

How does branching morphogenesis occur?

A

Governed by signals from the mesenchyme

  • The mesenchyme releases the signal GDNF which is reviewed by receptor tyrosine kinase (Ret) on the bud
  • Cells at the tip of the ureteric bud undergo proliferation and outgrowth
  • There is an arrest in the proliferation of the leading edge tip cell on the bud causing the bud to become flattened
  • The lateral tip cells continue to proliferate forming a cleft and two tips
  • This is repeated again and again to form multiple branches
384
Q

What is GDNF?

A

Initially identified as a neurotrophic factor and acts to promote proliferation, migration and outgrowth

385
Q

How did we study the development of the kidney?

A

Studied the process in real time using transgenic animals, organ cultures and sophisticated imaging - fluorescence

386
Q

What is the relationship of branching morphogenesis and calyces?

A

Branching morphogenesis of the ureteric bud underlies future calyces

  • In humans, at 6 weeks there are 16 branches and at week 7 minor calyces form
  • Major calyces are the remnants of the first branches
387
Q

What is the ureter a remnant of?

A

The initial ureteric bud

388
Q

When does kidney development occur?

A

Kidney development is protracted, proceeding throughout prenatal and even into postnatal life

389
Q

What is required to allow kidney development to continue into postnatal life?

A

Relies on stem like cells in both the ureteric bud and the metanephric mesenchyme

390
Q

What transcription factor is expressed in nephron stem cels and what is its role?

A

Six2

  • Activates genes that from the nephron and all the different cells within it
  • Six2 is not just a marker but regulates the events that keep the nephron stem cell in a self-renewing state
391
Q

What occurs when there is a loss of function of six2?

A

Depletion in nephron stem cell pool

392
Q

What occurs when there is over expression of six2?

A

Prevents differentiation of nephron stem cells

393
Q

How can we see evolution in the development of the kidney?

A

The first attempt of building the kidney in development is called pronephros and is at the top of the back - fails to form functional kidney
The second attempt is called mesonephros and is in the middle of the back - fails
The final attempt is metanephros at the lower back and successfully builds functional kidneys
- Evolutionary development

394
Q

How are the ureteric bud and metanephric mesenchyme formed?

A

The intermediate mesoderm is a line of cells that extends along the whole of the posterior body
It undergoes a mesenchymal to epithelial cell transition to form two structures, called the nephric cord and nephric duct
The duct develops into a lumen
Duct will eventually give rise to ureteric bud
The nephric cord then undergoes another epithelial to mesenchyme transition which will give rise to metanephric mesenchyme

395
Q

How is the glomerulus formed?

A
  • Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron
  • The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood
  • This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct.
396
Q

Why are we keen to look at the molecules responsible for kidney diseases?

A

Provides huge breakthroughs in understanding kidney diseases?
- WT1 was originally identified as a gene involved in Wilms tumor, a pediatric cancer in which kidney elements are incompletely differentiated and instead proliferate to form tumours

397
Q

What tissue are the lungs derived from?

A

Endoderm
- Will give rise to the epithelial lining go the trachea, larynx, bronchi, alveoli, through branching morphogenesis
Mesoderm
- Will give rise to cartilage, muscle and connective tissue

398
Q

What is the respiratory diverticulum?

A

The bud that is responsible for the formation of trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli

399
Q

How does the respiratory diverticulum form?

A

The most ventral tube in the embryo is the foregut
The top part of the tube (the oesophagus) starts to form a bud which is separated and sealed called the respiratory diverticulum which will form the trachea
It then undergoes branching morphogenesis

400
Q

When, in human development, do lung buds form?

A

4th week

401
Q

What is the role of the sac of mesoderm surrounding each lung bud?

A

.Its medial edge is the visceral pleura and its outer edge is the parietal pleura. The space in between is the pleural cavity

402
Q

When does development of the lung occur in humans?

A

1st bud - 4 weeks
Bronchi buds - 6 weeks
Developed lungs - 10 weeks (still very small)

403
Q

In what model organism was branching morphogenesis discovered?

A

Drosophila

  • Discovered through analysis of drosophila tracheal development
  • discovered the role of FGF10 and its inhibitor sporty
404
Q

What drives branching morphogenesis?

A
  • Endothelial epithelial cells that express FGF receptor respond to secretion of FGF from nearby mesenchyme by bud formation/extension toward the FGF source
  • Exposure of tip cells to high concentrations of FGF induces the expression of genes that code for signals eg. BMP4, Shh and cyclins (cell proliferation)
  • BMP4 is expressed at highest levels in the ‘leading edge’ tip cells and inhibits epithelial cell proliferation causing flattering of the bud
  • At the same time, Shh expressed by the tip cells diffuses to the mesenchyme, and inhibit FGF10 expression in the mesenchyme nearest the tip. This splits FGF10 expression promoting the next round of branching.
  • Sprouty 2 is then induced which inhibits FGF signalling so that branching is restricted to the tip of the bud
405
Q

How is branching morphogenesis an example of a negative feedback loop?

A

FGF10 induces expression of genes BMP4 and Shh which increase proliferation and growth
However, FGF10 then induces sprouty2, a molecule which inhibits FGF signalling and stops the proliferation and migration of distal tip cells
- This is negative feedback because a signal (FGF10) induces its own inhibitor (sprouty2) limiting its own action

406
Q

When alveoli are generated in the lungs, how do they create an extensive blood supply?

A

They up regulate VegF, a signalling factor which promotes angiogenesis, allowing for the formation of new capillaries
This forms an extensive capillary network around each alveoli

407
Q

What proportion of alveoli are present in the lungs at brith?

A

1/6 of adult alveoli

408
Q

How do we investigate the 3d process that govern lung development? (e.g. seal formation, branching morphogenesis)

A

In vivo approaches
- Conditional knockouts
Organ culture
- Can grow tissues in vitro and easily manipulate them
Light microscopy
- Using sophisticated microscopy provides high resolution of living tissues

409
Q

Why is cancer more common in organs that undergo branching morphogenesis?

A

Because this process extends into postnatal life

Constantly growing makes them more sensitive to mutations which can lead to cancer

410
Q

In development, what kind of cells are set aside in an undifferentiated from?

A

Adult stem cells
- In an undifferentiated from to contribute to the individual over its left time: to grow, restore, repair
Germ cells
- Undifferentiated state to be used for the next generation

411
Q

What are the two steps in the process of germ cell formation?

A

Primordial germ cells (PGCs) are determined I a specific location just ‘on the edge’ or ‘outside’ of the developing embryo
PGCs migrate to the gonad and become the progenitor population for eggs and sperm

412
Q

What is needed for germ cell determination?

A

A plastic cell type (totipotent)

A cell capable of undergoing meiosis

413
Q

What model organism gave us a conceptual understanding of how germ cells are formed and how?

A

C elegans

- The first division produces a specialised cell at the posterior side of the embryo - the P lineage cell

414
Q

How do you generate two different daughter cells from a single mother?

A

Non autonomous divison

  • Cell division plane is often a crucial determining factor in the fate of two daughter cells
  • For example division down the meridian may produce two identical cells but down the equator may separate cytoplasmic components and produce two different daughter cells
415
Q

How does the p cell retain its undifferentiated state during development?

A

Acts as a pre-germ cell
- Through asymmetric division, P cells inherit specialised P-granules (a mix of proteins and RNAs) that can be in the cytoplasm and get into the nucleus

416
Q

What is the role of P-granules in the p cell?

A
  • Bind to DNA of the P cell and block almost all transcription and therefore differentiation
  • Block translation in the cytoplasm
  • Promote stem cell fate and cause cells to undergo meiosis
417
Q

Where is the p cell located in a vertebrate embryo?

A

Always at the posterior of the embryo, even after each cell division

418
Q

How are widespread transcriptional decisions controlled in development of germ cells?

A

Epigenetic silencing mechanisms

- Alter DNA stability through DNA methylation and histone modifications

419
Q

What model organism gave us a conceptual understanding of how germ cells migrate and how?

A

Drosophila

  • Germ cells enter the body from pole cells by attachment to endoderm and migration through the gut into the gonads
  • A combination of chemoattractive and repulsive cues drive the primordial germ cells and gonad precursor cells together and to specific destination
420
Q

What is a gonad niche?

A

A small localised area that protects the germ cells from differentiating
A type of stem cell niche

421
Q

How does germ cell migration differ in males and females?

A

In males
- Primordial germ cells end up in niche and attach to hub cells where they are maintained
In females
- In ovaries, the germ cells end up in the niche and attach to stromal cap where they are maintained

422
Q

How do germ cells migrate from outside the embryo to the gonads?

A

After convergent extension in vertebrates, the formation of the primitive gut occurs. Once this is formed, the primordial germ cells migrate into the posterior of the developing gut, before leaving the gut to migrate to the gonads

423
Q

Why do primordial germ cells stay out of the embryo to from?

A

Stay in the extra embryonic territory
- While the major inductive events occur, then migrate through the posterior gut, then leave the gut to move laterally to the gonads

424
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

A failure to migrate to the protective niche causes the germ cells to differentiate

425
Q

What is the travelling stem cell niche?

A

Support cells travel with primordial germ cells to maintain the undifferentiated stem cell phenotype

426
Q

What do support cells in a travelling stem cell niche secret?

A

Stem cell factor (SCF)

427
Q

How do primordial germ cells know how to migrate to the gonads?

A

They follow a fibronectin train

Chemoattractant, Sdf-1 is also required

428
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

A cell that are endlessly capable of self renewing and/or differentiate to multiple lineages and cell fates

429
Q

What is a pluripotent stem cell?

A

A stem cell that can give rise to multiple lineages

430
Q

What is a multipotent stem cell?

A

A stem cell that cannot give rise to multiple lineages but can give rise to multiple cell types within in the same lineage

431
Q

What is the difference between a stem cell and a progenitor cell?

A

A stem cell are endlessly capable of self renewing and/or differentiate to multiple lineages and cell fates
A progenitor cell has a limited ability to self renew (only certain number of divisions) can give rise to a small number of specialised cells but not multiple lineages

432
Q

Why is it important that stem cells can self renew and differentiate?

A
  • Self renewal is needed because if the stem cells didn’t copy themselves, you would quickly run out. It is important for the body to maintain a pool of stem cells to use throughout your life
  • Differentiation is important because specialized cells are used up, damaged or die all the time during your life. Specialized cells cannot divide and make copies of themselves, but they need to be replaced for your body to carry on working.
433
Q

Give an example of a cell type that constantly needs renewing in adults

A

Red blood cells

  • Don’t have a nucleus so only survive about 6 weeks
  • Need to be produced more in women when pregnant - release of oestrogen activates haematopoietic stem cells
434
Q

What are tissue specific stem cells?

A

Adult stem cells

435
Q

What is the difference between inner mass cells and embryonic stem cells?

A

The same thing

  • When in the embryo they are called inner mass cells
  • When taken out of embryo (about 32 cell stage) and cultured in a lab they are called embryonic stem cells
436
Q

What can embryonic stem cells do?

A

They are pluripotent

  • If add the correct proteins in the specific order that mimics those that occur in vivo, you can drive the stem cells to a specific fate and produce specific tissues
  • Grow organs for transplantation
  • Understand how diseases develop
  • Test drugs in the laboratory
437
Q

What are the issues surrounding embryonic stem cells?

A
  • Have to use IVF to gain the embryos
  • Unethical
  • The stem cells aren’t completely identical so differentiation is more complex then first appeared
438
Q

Where were adult stem cells first recognised?

A

Bone marrow
Liver
Gut
Skin

439
Q

Where are adult stem cells present?

A
Bone marrow
Liver
Gut
Skin 
Brain 
Muscle
440
Q

What is an adult stem cell?

A

An adult stem cell is an undifferentiated (or partially-differentiated) cell found in tissues and organs that can self-renew and differentiate
to become most or all of the specialized cell types within their specific tissue lineage.
They are used to
- Maintain cell populations
- Help you heal
- Play a role in ageing

441
Q

What is meant by cellular homeostasis?

A

The constant or periodic generation of new cells to replace old, damaged, and dying cells, or the addition of new cells as needed
Adult stem cells fill this role

442
Q

What are the types of adult stem cells?

A
  • Hematopoietic stem cells: blood and immune system
  • Mesenchymal stem cells: bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, tendon/ligament
  • Epithelial stem cells: skin, gut, other linings
  • Muscle stem cells
    Neural stem cells: neurons, glial cells, retinal cells
443
Q

Where do adult stem cells reside?

A

In stem cell niches

  • Complex microenviornments around the stem cells, made up of many cells that interact with the environment and the stem cell to decide whether to activate it
  • Very vascularised - to carry information in the circulatory system
444
Q

What do hematopoietic stem cells give rise to?

A

Give rise to all the blood cell types:
- Myeloid (monocytes and macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, megakaryocytes/platelets, dendritic cells)
- Lymphoid (T-cells, B-cells, NK-cells)
Found in the bone marrow from very early on in development, as well as in umbilical cord blood and placental tissue

445
Q

What is meant by a stem cell being quiescent?

A

in its dormant form - not dividing

446
Q

How are stem cells maintained in a stem cell niche?

A
  • Stem cells cycle between a quiescent and an active form; that
  • Many other adjacent cells in the niche provide factors that regulate stem cell activity and the decision as to whether to remain quiescent, or become active, and then divide to give another stem cell or a daughter that will differentiate;
  • That stem cells respond to physiological signals – inlouding blood-borne factors (eg hormones).
    So niches include endothelial capillary cells.
447
Q

What do mesenchymal stem cells give rise to?

A

These stem cells will differentiate into:
- cartilage cells (chondrocytes)
- muscle cells (myocytes)
- fat cells (adipocytes)
- tendons, ligaments, and - connective tissue (epithelial cells including osteoblasts)
These cells are found in bone marrow, fat, and blood

448
Q

What do epithelial stem cells give rise to?

A
  • Give rise to epithelial cells which constitute 60 percent of the differentiated cells in the body.
  • Responsible for covering the internal (i.e. intestinal lining) and external surfaces (i.e. skin) of the body, including the lining of vessels, glands, and other cavities.
  • Epithelial stem cells are also found in the bulge region of the hair follicle
449
Q

What do neural stem cells give rise to?

A

Neural stem cells (also called neural precursor cells) give rise to neural progenitors and then to neurons, oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes

450
Q

Where are neural stem cells found?

A
  • Subventricular zone lining the lateral ventricles, where they give rise to newly-born neurons that migrate to the olfactory bulb via the rostral migratory stream
  • Subgranular zone, part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus
  • Hypothalamus lining the 3rd ventricle, where they contribute new neurons to energy/feeding circuits
451
Q

What are the three types of stem cell behaviours?

A

Quiescent - dormant
Active
Self renew or differentiate

452
Q

How have stem cells showed a positive result when treating multiple sclerosis?

A

Stem cells rebuilt patients immune system using stem cells harvested from their own blood - helped multiple patients

453
Q

Why have there been more success with haematopoietic stem cells compared to other types?

A

Haematopoietic stem cells are easier to access then other types as they can be collected from blood and bone marrow

454
Q

What is meant by stem cell tourism?

A

Patients travel to other countries with fewer restrictions to receive stem cell therapies

455
Q

What is a major danger of stem cell therapies?

A

Stem cells are self renewing

- If put in the body uncontrolled then it could lead to cancer

456
Q

Why is it hard to isolate epithelial stem cells?

A

Because it is surrounded by support cells
It also looks the same as the support cells so can’t be identified
In bone marrow, the cells are isolated and look different so easier to identify

457
Q

What is a gut crypt?

A

A stem cell niche
- The crypt is a tube of cells with stem-like cells in a niche at the
distal end and differentiating/ed cells at the proximal end
- 1000’s of them in the body as each villus has its own crypt

458
Q

What cells surround the the epithelial stem cells in the gut?

A

Support cells - Paneth cells

459
Q

Once epitheiial stem cells are ready to divide, what happens to them?

A

They are amplified by transit amplifying cells (TA)
- These are progenitor cells which go through a number of rapid rounds of cell cycle to amplify the progenitor pool before differentiation

460
Q

How are epithelial stem cells kept as stem cells in the crypt?

A

Wnt and notch are expressed highly by the panath cells
Stem cells express frizzled and other components of the wnt signalling pathway in order to respond to wnt
- It causes the transcription of genes such as Lgr5 and axin which promote stemness

461
Q

How does a stem cell in the gut undergo differentiation?

A

The stem cell is pushed up out of the crypt away from proliferating signals (Wnt) and towards differentiating signals (BMP) that are expressed in the villus
- When the cell encounters BMP, it causes the phosphorylation of SMAD and the inhibition of stemness causing differentiation

462
Q

How do you isolate the gut epithelial stem cells?

A

Stem cells and support cells look the same in the gut

  • Wnt (from support cells) binds to the promotor of Lgr5 in the stem cell
  • You would therefore make a Lgr5-EGFP transgenic mouse by taking the promotor of Lgr5 and fusing it upstream to GFP
  • Put it back into the mouse and normal development will occur but with the addition of the fluorescent gene
  • Wherever Lgr5 is being expressed will fluoresce when lit with a fluorescent light so will be able to recognise the stem cells in vivo
  • You can now dissociate epithelium and pass down a FACS ,machine which sorts out cells that show fluorescence from those that don’t
463
Q

What are the applications of being able to isolate a gut epithelial stem cell?

A

Cancer treatment
- Cut out the cancer leaving a wound bed which can be filled from the stem cells
Diagnostic tool
- Make mice have a disease and use to study
Experimental tool

464
Q

What are the three ways cell growth can occur?

A

Cell proliferation
- Increases the number of cells by mitotic cell division
Cell enlargement
- Individual cells increasing their mass and getting bigger
- Skeletal and cardiac muscle never divide once differentiated they just increase in size
Accretion
- Increase in the volume of extracellular space which is achieved by secretion of large quantities of extracellular matrix by cells

465
Q

What are the four phases in cell proliferation?

A

G1: Cells grow in size
S: DNA synthesise
G2: Gap Phase
M: Mitosis

466
Q

What regulates the cell cycle?

A

The timing of the events in the cell cycle are controlled by cyclins. Cyclins control the passage through key transition points in the cell cycle
They act by forming complexes with cyclin dependant kinases (Cdks), activating them. These kinases phosphorylate proteins that trigger the events of each phase, such as SNA replication in S phase or mitosis in M phase

467
Q

What controls the cell division patterns in the drosophila?

A

Intrinsic control

  • Drosophila initially develop as a syncytium, this is a single cell with multiple nuclei. These nuclei go through very rapid synchronous cell cycles consisting only of an S and an M phase
  • At the 14th cycle, the cycle slows and a G2 phase is introduced and undergo cellularisation
  • Now depending on is precise position in the A/P and D/V coordinate system, each cell will acquire its own cell division rate
  • Controlled by a protein called String, a phosphatase that activates cyclin dependent kinases
  • During the first 13 divisions, uniformly distributed maternally-supplied string, allows rapid and synchronous divisions. After the 13th division zygotically expressed string is produced under the direct control of the patterning genes that set up the A/P and D/V coordinates
468
Q

Why does the mesoderm not divide despite expressing string?

A

There is a protein call tribble, an inhibitor of string
- The mesoderm needs to invaginate and formation of this ventral furrow can be inhibited by cell division, thus tribble functions to promote invagination by preventing cell division at an inappropriate time

469
Q

What happens if you transplant a limb bud to an embryo of a different species of newt?

A

If you implant a limb bud from a larger species of newt to an embryo of a smaller species of newt, a larger limb develops.
This suggests that once the limb bud has formed, limb growth is controlled intrinsically – not by other factors from the body

470
Q

Give an example of how control go organ size is different depending on the organ

A

If additional thymus glands in an embryo are transplanted all organs maintain their size and multiple amounts of tissue will be present, suggesting intrinsic control. In the case of the spleen, this is not true and both spleen will only grow to half the size such that the total amount of tissue remains the same suggesting, systemic control

471
Q

What is thought to be responsible for controlling cell size?

A

May be determined by morphogens and the steepness of a morphogen gradient rather than by the cell size or number

472
Q

What pathways are involved in growth control?

A

TOR pathway
- Increases cell size
Hippo pathway
- Limits organ size

473
Q

What happens when the hippo pathway is inactive?

A

The transcription factor Yki is in the nucleus activating gene expression involved in stimulating growth and survival of cells

474
Q

What is the vertebrate homolog of Yki?

A

YAP and Taz are vertebrate homologs

475
Q

What happens when the hippo pathway is active?

A
  • Hippo, a kinase phosphorylates Yki stopping it from entering the nucleus
  • It therefore limits growth
  • Hippo integrates various signals to create a ‘stop growing’ signal. For example, overcrowding of cells
476
Q

What is the vertebrate homolog of hippo?

A
  • Vertebrate homolog of hippo is Mst1/2
477
Q

What occurs in a hippo mutant?

A
  • In a hippo mutant, there is less growth restriction
  • A knockout mice results in a large liver but not enlarged everywhere suggesting the hippo pathway is only important in some tissues
478
Q

What determines the size of a drosophila?

A

The size of the adult is determined by the size of the larva which is determined by insulin signalling which affects both duration and rate of larval growth

479
Q

What occurs an insulin ablated drosophila?

A

In a drosophila where insulin has been ablated, the larva and resultant adult is much smaller

480
Q

What is the role of IGF1 and IGF2 in mammals?

A

Insulin-like growth factors 1 and 2 (IGF1 and IGF2) are important for both embryonic and adult growth
Post embryonic growth is controlled by Growth Hormone. Many of the effects of GH are mediated via IGFs. The production of growth hormone in the pituitary is stimulated by growth hormone releasing hormone and inhibited by somatostatin both from the hypothalamus. GH feeds back on its own production, it promotes production of somatostatin and inhibits GHRH
IGF is mainly produced in the liver but can also be produced locally

481
Q

Give evidence for maternal influence on growth in later life

A

Barker and Clark 1997
- Found a correlation between low birth weight, due to mother’s malnutrition, and an increased risk of CHD
Dutch famine
- A short caloric restriction of pregnant women resulted in normal weight babies but still with an increased risk of obesity and diabetes in later life

482
Q

What tissues are cancer most common in?

A

The most common tissues to become cancerous are those that continue to divide throughout life as they are already proliferative and are constantly dividing so may lead to copying errors
85% of cancers occur in epithelia! (3% leukemia)

483
Q

How do proto oncogenes leaf to cancer?

A

Require activation to cause cancer

E.g. Ras, Raf, EGRF

484
Q

How do tumour suppressor genes lead to cancer?

A

If these genes become inactivated then it can lead to cancer
E.g. Retinoblastoma, p53, patched
If a person is heterozygous for a tumour suppressor gene, e.g. retinoblastoma, then if they lose the other functional copy during their life time, due to mutation, then it can lead to cancer

485
Q

How do mutations in tumor suppressors of oncogenes that lead to genome instability cause cancer?

A

It is thought that these lead to mutations that again interfere with normal growth control, often involving developmental pathways
eg. BRCA2

486
Q

Give examples of developmental pathways that can lead to cancer when mutated

A
  • Activated Wnt - Colon cancer, Hepatocellular cancer
  • Activated Hedgehog - Basal cell carcinoma Medulloblastoma
  • Activated Nodal - Melanoma
  • Activated Notch - Leukemia
  • Activated EGF - Lung cancer, Breast cancer
487
Q

Outline how arthropods molt in order to grow

A
  • Molting is initiated by activation of stretch receptors in the cuticle this leads to release of protothoracicotropic hormone which in turn leads to release of ecdyson from the protothoracic gland
  • Under the influence of ecdyson molting occurs
  • First the cuticle separates from the epidermis. While the original cuticle is still present the freed epidermal cells proliferate, secrete a fluid that forms a barrier, and start secreting new cuticle. Only after this stage the old cuticle will be shed
488
Q

What is the link between regeneration ability and complexity of organisms?

A

It was thought that regeneration ability was directly linked to the complexity of the organism where the lower the complexity, the better the regeneration. However, this is not correct as some very simple organisms have little or no ability to regenerate e.g. C. elegans

489
Q

What are the two types of regeneration?

A

Morphallaxis
- There is little new cell division and growth, and regeneration occurs mainly by re-patterning of existing tissue and the reestablishment of boundaries
Epimorphosis
- This type of regeneration is completely dependent on the growth of completely new, correctly patterned structures

490
Q

Give an example morphallaxis

A

Regeneration of the hydra

491
Q

What are the characteristics of Hydra?

A

Hydra are very simple organisms formed by two germ layers, the endoderm and ectoderm
It consists of simple body column and a mouth region, called the hypostome, surrounded by tentacles
They grow continuously but are a fixed size. Cells, therefore, must be lost to maintain its size. This occurs at the tip of the tentacles, at the basal disc and by asexual budding, leading to the formation a new individual

492
Q

How is head regeneration in hydra thought to be achieved?

A

Experiments have led to a model that states that two opposing morphogen gradients are responsible for this regeneration

  • The first gradient is one in positional value, meaning that the location of the cell determines the head inducing ability and level of resistance to the head inhibitor
  • The second gradient is produced in the head itself and is the head inhibitor
493
Q

Give evidence for how head regeneration of hydra occurs

A
  • Implantation of head tissue to the body of a different hydra doesn’t cause the formation of an ectopic head
    However, if the head of the hydra is removed before the implantation then an ectopic head does form
  • The head produces a head inhibitor stopping the formation of another head even when head tissue is implanted
  • If the original head of the hydra is removed then there is no inhibition stopping the formation of the ectopic head
  • If head tissue is implanted at the bottom of the hydra, even with the original head still present, an ectopic head still forms
  • Suggests that the head inhibitor forms a gradient with the top of the hydra receiving high levels of the inhibitor and the bottom of the hydra receiving low levels
494
Q

What is thought to control the head regeneration in hydra?

A

The Wnt signaling pathway is thought to be involved in head formation
Activation of the Wnt signaling pathway with lithium lead to all regions of the hydra acquiring characteristics of the head organiser

495
Q

Give an example of epimorphosis

A

Regeneration in urodele amphibians

496
Q

What are urodele amphibians able to regenerate?

A

They are capable of regeneration of almost anything, including their limbs, retina, lens, jaw and their dorsal crest

497
Q

Where does lens generation of the urodele amphibians occur?

A

In the iris

498
Q

How does limb regeneration in urodele amphibians occur?

A

After amputation, the epithelial cells migrate over wound surface, this is essential for regeneration to occur. This is known as epidermal cell migration
Once the epithelium has covered the wound, the cells below dedifferentiate and form a blastema
This then restores the damaged limb

499
Q

What does the blastema consist of?

A

The blastema is derived from the dermis but also from dedifferentiating muscle and cartilage

500
Q

How does the dedifferentiation of muscle occur?

A

The fact that the muscle can also participate is quite surprising since muscle cells are multinucleate. It has been found that multinucleate muscle cells can revert to mononucleate cells in cell culture under the influence of thrombin
Dedifferentiation of muscle cells involves expression of msx, a homeobox transcription factor, and inactivation of the Rb gene, which inhibits proliferation of muscle under normal circumstances
The presence of thrombin is crucial for dedifferentiation and may have wider significance, lens regeneration also requires local activation of thrombin

501
Q

Do these dedifferentiated cells become pluripotent?

A

No, it is thought that there is very little dedifferentiation occurring
Usually, the cells used in regeneration stay true to their fate and only dedifferentiate enough to allow the cells to enter the cell cycle

502
Q

Give evidence that usually cells are true to their fate during regeneration

A

This is shown in a GFP experiment. Different cell types were labelled before regeneration and their lineage was traced. This found that most cells stay true to their fate, e.g. muscle cells restore muscle with the exception of dermis, which has the ability to generate cartilage as well. This indicates the blastema provides only a limited differentiation environment

503
Q

What are the main rules of regeneration?

A

Limb regeneration always occurs distally to the wound
It occurs according to the positional value of the site of the cut
It does not just try and replace missing parts

504
Q

Give evidence that regeneration doesn’t just try to fill in the gaps

A

If the distal limb of a newt is amputated and the stump is inserted into the flank (to establish vascular connections) and the limb is subsequently cut again, the anterior limb will regenerate the missing distal parts. Importantly, the remaining stump will also regenerate a distal limb, and not a proximal humorous
The wound blastema “reads” the local positional value and generates more distal positional values, it does not determine what is missing. As a result of this, a limb with two radii and ulnae is formed

505
Q

Give evidence for the autonomy of a blastema

A

If a distal blastema is transplanted to a proximal wound an entire limb will form. This shows that the site of the wound can sense a discontinuity in positional values between the distal blastema and the cut site. The remaining tissue will be formed by intercalary growth

506
Q

What is differential adhesion in terms of regeneration?

A

If a distal is combined with a proximal blastema the proximal blastema will start to engulf the distal blastema this can be interpreted as a sign the distal cells stick more tightly to one another and that the proximal cells stick more to the distal cells than to themselves. Differential adhesive properties might also help to explain why distally transplanted cells do not mix with the proximal blastema cells that will form because of the intercalary regeneration

507
Q

What is retanoic acid capable of in regeneration?

A

Retinoic acid has been found to be capable of resetting this positional value to a more proximal value. The effect of retinoic acid is dose dependent. The higher the level the more proximal structures will be regenerated. Proximalisation by retinoic acid may occur via upregulation meis homeobox genes and/or prod 1. Prod1 is a protein that is expressed at the highest level in the proximal regenerating blastema, and is induced by Retanoic acid treatment

508
Q

What is the link between innervation and regeneration?

A

Regeneration is usually dependant on innervation. If before the limb is amputated it is denerved then no regeneration occurs. However, if limbs are produced that have never had nerves present, regeneration of the limb does occur after its amputation

509
Q

What is nAG?

A

Newt anterior gradient (nAG) was discovered which can rescue regeneration of a denerved limb. nAG binds to Prod1 but the mechanism is unknown

510
Q

Where is nAG expressed?

A

nAG becomes expressed in the nerve sheath in response to wounding, driving regeneration. nAG is also expressed in the embryonic epidermis of the limb but is switched off when the nerves form. This explains why regeneration can occur in a limb that has never had innervation: nAG will still be expressed in the epidermis

511
Q

Are mammals capable of regeneration?

A

Regeneration in mammals is very limited but does exist

  • Young children and mice have the ability to regenerate the tips of their digits
  • Regeneration of axons can occur in the peripheral nervous system. However, if the neurone is lost then no regeneration can occur
  • There is very little regeneration in the CNS. This is thought to be due to oligodendrocytes providing a non-permissive environment
  • The liver is able to regenerate fully after losing 2/3s of its tissue
  • As long as the membrane surrounding the ribs remain, they will also regenerate
512
Q

How does heart regeneration in a zebrafish occur?

A

After resection of the heart it will bleed but soon a blood clot will form preventing the circulation from coming to a complete standstill
Very soon after injury the endocard (inside lining of the heart) will be activated and start expressing certain genes
The epicardium (outside lining of the heart) will expand rapidly and start to cover the wound.
Newly forming muscle expresses FGF and epicardial cells respond to this signal by invading the regenerate and reform blood vessel that will help to restore a functional ventricle
Very recently it was reported that the epicard expresses an EGF like factor, Neuregulin, which can stimulate cardiomyocyte cell division

513
Q

Can regeneration of the mammalian heart occur?

A

No
The necrotic tissue that forms after infarction is replaced by scar tissue. In addition, there is a hypertophic response of the remaining muscle cells, which is thought to be maladaptive, and may in fact increase the risk of further infarction.

514
Q

Why is the ability of neonatal mass to regenerate their heart lost?

A

A recent paper correlated this loss of regeneration in mice with reduction in erbb2 expression which is required for Neuregulin signal transduction.
To put this to the test a transgenic mouse that had a doxycycline inducible- dominant active form of erbb2 was created. This transgene was then induced for some time after an infarct was created in these mice. They were able to induce cardiomyocyte proliferation a significant improvement in function, and could show a smaller scar area

515
Q

What is senescence?

A

The age-related decline in vital physiological functions

516
Q

What causes the decline in vital physiological functions?

A

Wear and tear
- In C. elegans, the muscles that are required for feeding degenerate over time because of their use
- In elephants, it is known that they die of starvation at old age as their teeth wear off
Genetics
- Salmon die soon after laying their eggs

517
Q

What is the disposable soma theory?

A

Natural selection tunes life history of the organism so that sufficient resources are invested in maintaining the repair mechanisms that prevent aging, at least until that organism has reproduced and cared for its young
As soon as an individual cannot increase number, or the chance of survival of its offspring any further, there is no natural selection against decline/aging in that individual. This theory was stated by Haldane

518
Q

What factors cause senescence?

A

Metabolism
Reactive oxygen species (ROS)
DNA damage

519
Q

How does metabolism cause senescence?

A

Rate of living theory - This theory explains the link between rate of metabolism and age. This is especially clear in cold blooded animals like drosophila where low temperatures slow metabolism and increase life span

520
Q

How are reactive oxygen species thought to cause senescence?

A

High metabolism leads to the formation of reactive oxygen species and oxidative damage.

  • Manipulation of ROS by various methods have produced contradictory results. In worms, paraquat or juglone treatment can increase lifespan, suggesting their are superoxide dependent
  • Glucose restriction extends C. elegans life span by inducing mitochondrial respiration and increasing oxidative stress
  • Resistance to oxidative stress is induced by longevity genes
521
Q

What are progeria syndromes?

A

Progeria syndromes cause premature aging and are caused by mutations in genes involved in maintenance of the genome

522
Q

How is DNA damage thought to cause senescence?

A

Progeria syndromes cause premature aging and are caused by mutations in genes involved in maintenance of the genome. This suggests that aging is related to DNA damage
However, it is also clear that it is DNA damage rather than mutations that will lead to aging. This is shown by the fact that there are mouse models that have an increased mutation rate but these animals do not age more rapidly

523
Q

What is the DNA damage theory?

A

The DNA damage theory of suggests that it is unrepaired damage in non-replicating cells that causes ageing.

  • In non-replicating cells unprepared/able DNA damage may accumulate and cause aging (in dividing cells it will lead to mutations)
  • It is suggested that NAD depletion by DNA damage induced PARP activation that might be to blame. PARP is an enzyme that is essential for certain DNA repair processes
524
Q

What are the factors that increase life span?

A

Signals from the somatic gonad
Environmental stresses
Dietary restriction

525
Q

How do dietary restriction increase life span?

A
  • Restricting the diet of the organisms leads to longer lifespans in all animal models
  • This is not due to a lower nutrient metabolism that causes damage
526
Q

How do environmental stresses increase life span?

A

E.g. Heat, ROS generators
ROS generators have also been shown to increase life span disagreeing with the ROS theory of aging
One explanation for this has been that a small insult can unleash a disproportionate protective response a process called Hormesis, reducing overall ROS impact. However, another theory says that ROS are simply not/barely relevant for aging, but that ROS are used as a molecular reporter for stress leading to activation of anti-ageing mechanisms

527
Q

How do signals from the somatic gonad increase life span?

A
  • There is strong evidence in flies and c elegans that the gonads produce factors that increase life span which come from the gonad not the germ line
  • Removing the entire gonad does not extend life span, but if only the germ cells are removed it does. It appears the germ cells inhibit a longevity signal that is produced by the soma. Daf12 and its ligand, dafachronic acid, are involved in this. However, giving dafachronic acid to normal worms does not lengthen their lifespan
528
Q

How can forward genetics be used to study genes involved in life span?

A

By finding a mutant that has a modified life span, cloning the gene and then see what it does
Identification of short lived mutants is likely to be very successful as many mutations can lead to the death of an organism by removing an esential gene, but this does not directly mean the gene is involved in aging
Long lived mutants are more relavent to this research. C Elegans and Drosophila are often used because they have appropriate genetic tools and a short life span

529
Q

How does the IGF pathway influence life span?

A

IGF signaling inhibits the transcription factor DAF16 aka FOXO. The FOXO transcription regulates genes that increase resistance to various stressors
This has also been seen in drosophila as mutations in the IGF Pathway have been found to double its lifespan and loss IGF signaling has been linked to resistance to oxidative stress

530
Q

How was the relationship between IGF pathway and life span discovered?

A

C. elegans have a normal life of 25 days but under adverse conditions it can enter a dauer state which can last up to 60 days. This will not affect the life span after the dauer stage so truly extends the lifespan
Genetic screens have led to the identification of mutants that promote longevity and many of these were found to be in components of the insulin signaling pathway, leading to a block in insulin signaling

531
Q

Is there a link between the IGF pathway and life span in mammals and humans?

A

This signaling pathway is also involved in extension of the mammalian lifespan. Female mice with a mutation in IGF1R (IGF1 and 2 receptor) live 33% longer
FOXO1 and FOXO3A, AKT and IGF1 receptor variants have been linked in Human longevity in multiple cohort studies

532
Q

What does FOXO do?

A
  • FOXO downregulates Insulin-like genes meaning that it can exert its action outside of that cell
  • Genes affected include antioxidant genes (oxidative damage is a potential cause of aging), metabolic genes, chaperones, and antibacterial genes.
533
Q

How does the TOR pathway affect life span?

A

The TOR kinase is a major amino-acid and nutrient sensor that stimulates growth and blocks salvage pathways such as autophagy when food is plentiful
Under stress this pathway is inactivated. It activates TSC, TSC blocks TOR, this then activates 4E-BP1 and blocks S6K1. This pathway inhibits protein synthesis and cell growth and activates a salvage pathway
Growth factor, however, blocks Tsc, causing TOR to be active. This blocks 4E-BP and activates S6K 1. This pathway activates protein synthesis and growth – ‘wasteful’ pathways

534
Q

Give evidence for the link between the TOR pathway and life span

A

Rapamycin, a blocker of TOR extends lifespan
In C elegans another Fox gene, FoxA is required for TOR dependent lifespan extension
Blockage of S6 kinase extends lifespan in yeast, worms, flies and mice along with overexpression of 4E-BP in drosophila

535
Q

What are sirtuins?

A

Sirtuins are NAD+ dependant protein deacetylases

536
Q

How do sirtuins affect life span?

A

They have been put forward as being able to prevent aging. They are thought to be the target of resveratrol, the presumed anti-aging compound from red wine. There are conflicting reports on their role in flies and c elegans.
Most recently SIRT6 was put forward as the true anti aging gene and it was shown that it downregulates IGF1 levels

537
Q

How have mitochondria shown to increase life span?

A

Through a protective mitochondrial response called the mitochondrial unfolded protein response which by an unknown mechanism protects against aging

538
Q

How is the mitochondrial unfolded protein response activated?

A

Sirtuins (which require NAD) lead to activation daf16 and a protective mitochondrial response called the mitochondrial unfolded protein response
Mitochondrial mutations have also been found to extend lifespand. A theory for this is that, similar to activation of sirtuin, this will lead to the mitochondrial unfolded protein response

539
Q

How has NAD+ been shown to protect against aging?

A

NAD+ can also protect against aging, and it is thought that supplementing this compound will boost Sirtuin activity and possibly production of mitochondria, leading to an imbalance between mitochondrially produced and nuclearly produced mitochodrial proteins thus again leading to the activation of UPR-mt and ROS
If NAD is central, it provides a potential link with DNA damage (which is thought to be at the basis of many human progeria syndromes) as DNA damage will lead to activation of PARP genes.
PARPs are NAD consuming enzymes and can reduce the level of NAD

540
Q

What are induced pluripotent stem cells?

A

Adult stem cells that have been reprogrammed back to a pluripotent state

541
Q

What can induced pluripotent stem cells be used for?

A

Can be used to grow human organoid that are being used to understand the development of organs and disease

542
Q

What is potency?

A

A measure of how many types pf specialised cells a stem cell can make

543
Q

How came up with the idea of reprogramming adult stem cells?

A

John Gurdon in 2012

544
Q

Who won the Nobel prize for medicine for the discovery that mature cells can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent ?

A

John Gurdon and Shinya Yamanaka

545
Q

How did John guidon discover adult stem cells can be reprogrammed?

A
  • He took a xenopus egg cell and eliminated the nucleus
  • He took a skin fibroblast, which are fully differentiated cells, and removed the nucleus and implanted it into the xenopus egg
  • This diploid status of the egg allows the first stages of mitotic division to occur
  • Found that a full new tadpole developed meaning that the fibroblast nucleus must be reprogrammed to a pluripotent state
  • This must be in response to a factor in the egg cytoplasm
  • Cloning
546
Q

Why did John Gurdon use the xenopus egg?

A

Because they are very large and easily manipulated

547
Q

What did Shinya Yamanaka hypothesise about induced pluripotent stem cells?

A

He hypothesised that they reprogrammed by activation of transcription factors in the differentiated cell that sit at the top of a hierarchy of de-differentiation programmes and return to pluripotency

548
Q

How did Shinya Yamanaka prove his hypothesis?

A
  • He guessed four transcription factors that induce pluripotency
    by taking an educated guess based on developmental biology studies which had identified transcription factors expressed in pluripotent cells which were then subsequently shut down when the pluripotent cells differentiate
  • When he transferred these transcription factors into cells taken from the skin, they were reprogrammed into pluripotent stem cells that could develop into all cell types of an adult mouse
  • He named these cells induced pluripotent stem cells
549
Q

What animals can induced pluripotent stem cells be formed from?

A

Any animal

550
Q

What are the two steps in producing induced pluripotent stem cells?

A

First step is genetic reprogramming of a differentiated cell

The second step is differentiation into a desired cell type using specific transcription factors

551
Q

What are the advantages of induced pluripotent stem cells?

A
  • There is no need for embryonic stem cell research (more ethical issues)
  • Can also get individual specific pluripotent cells which will stop the problems of rejection
  • An example of personalised medicine
552
Q

What are the clinical applications of induced pluripotent stem cells?

A
  • Ability to differentiate into many cell types
  • Vastly renewable
  • Easily renewable
  • Individual specific – personalised medicine
553
Q

What are the obstacles present when researching induced pluripotent stem cells?

A
  • One of the transcription factors was first described as an oncogene (cancer causing)
  • Viral vectors for gene delivery that carry the risk of insertional mutagenesis
  • Low efficiency and slow kinetics
554
Q

What new research are induced pluripotent stem cells being used for?

A
  • Lung cells are being cultured on sophisticated tissue engineered substrates ‘lung on chip’. Can see how lungs respond to mechanical ventilation in vivo
  • Brain organoids can be made from IPS cells and can help us understand the brain development and its response to diseases
555
Q

What are the three main types of animals?

A

Parazoa (simplest)
Diploblasts (two germ layers)
Bilaterians (three germ layers)

556
Q

What croup do vertebrates belong to?

A

Deuterostomes which are a branch of bilaterians

557
Q

Why is it thought that evolution made organisms larger?

A

Being larger has advantages – the predator rather than prey
Cells could sacrifice themselves to provide food for ultimately one last surviving cell, this could explain the evolution of an egg

558
Q

How was it thought that the evolution of gastrulation occurred?

A

The evolution of gastrulation could have resulted from the advantage of having a specialized surface/cavity that could aid in digesting large chunks of food
Primitive multicellular organism

559
Q

Give evidence for why gastrulation evolved

A

Trichoplax represents this. When it encounters a food source it forms a digestive cavity around the nutrient particle and digesting it externally

560
Q

How has the basic body plan evolved?

A

Has inverted over time
An idealised arthropod has the circulatory system on the dorsal side and the nerve chord on the ventral side
An idealised vertebrate has the circulatory system on ventral and nerve chord on the dorsal

561
Q

What is the molecular evolution that lead to the inversion of the body axis?

A

In drosophila, an arthropod, dpp patterns the dorsal side and is counteracted by the protein sog. Dpp is the drosophila homolog of the BMP proteins whereas sog is the homolog of chordin. BMP induces ventral fates and chordin counteracts BMP on the dorsal side
it seems that the body plan in metazoans has evolved and an inversion has occurred

562
Q

What is the phylotypic stage?

A

The stage where vertebrate embryos are most similar

563
Q

What parts of vertebrate development differs most?

A

There is a stage called the phylotypic stage. At this stage vertebrate embryos are most similar. The stages before that are changed by reproductive adaptation, e.g. egg size in mammals vs birds and reptiles, the stages afterwards show more and more species specific adaptation.

564
Q

Why can we use model organisms to study human disease?

A

The genome sequence, cell types and signalling pathways are all conserved throughout animals

565
Q

What is the main way that diversity between species occur?

A

Change in the promotors and enhancer of genes changing their expression
- Usually modification of existing mechanisms

566
Q

How have proteins evolved to have new functions?

A

Duplication and divergence
- Big driving force for evolution
- Genome duplications have led to knew functions of proteins
- These changes are rarer then promotor changes
Genome duplication
- There has been instances where the entire genome has been duplicated
- Leads to changes in function because there is still another function protein that will allow the organism to survive

567
Q

How have Hox genes evolved?

A

Through duplication and divergence

  • Drosophila have one set of Hox genes, mammals have 4 sets and fish have seven
  • Primitive chordates like amphioxus only have a single Hox cluster meaning that ancestral vertebrate underwent 2 rounds of genome duplication - This fits well with the fact that the fishes, the most species-rich group within the vertebrates probably duplicated their genome one further time
568
Q

How has the evolution of Hox genes changed the vertebrate body plan?

A

Different types of vertebrae are correlated with expression boundaries of Hox genes. For instance, the number of neck vertebrae can vary in vertebrates but it is always correlated with the Hoxc6 expression boundary

569
Q

How has the evolution of Hox genes changed the body plan of a snake?

A

They have completely lost their limbs which are usually formed at the anterior expression boundary of Hoxc6. In the python loss of limbs is correlated with an anterior expansion of both hoxc6 and hoxc8, expanding the non-limb bearing flank territory all the way anterior

570
Q

How has Hox gene evolution changed the formation of appendages?

A

In flies, 12 genes important for wing development and 6 are repressed by Ubx in the haltere
In the butterfly, due to changes in the upstream regions of some of these genes they are not repressed and can thus act to form a second wing

571
Q

How did Darwins finches show evidence for evolution?

A

Different finches have evolved to have different types of beaks depending on the diet they were specialising on

572
Q

What is the molecular explanation for Darwins finches?

A
  • The differences in beak size were shown to correlate with onset and level of BMP4 expression. Importantly, it was also shown that misexpression of BMP4 in similar staged chick embryos could change the shape of the beak of a chick embryo in a similar manner. This provides important indication that it is not just correlation but BMP4 may cause this change. Thus, changes in level and duration of bmp4 expression are at the basis of evolution of beak size and shape
573
Q

What is the relationship between the evolution of insect and vertebrate wings?

A

From the fossil record, insect and vertebrate wings do not derive from a common ancestor as wings have evolved twice in different lineages
However, many genes involved appear to be similar. This is because the patterning mechanism used to set up an axis is conserved

574
Q

What did limbs evolve from?

A

Fins

- Fins had humorous, radius and ulna but no digits

575
Q

How were the digits of the vertebrate limb developed?

A

There is a correlation between Hox expression and evolution of digits
In mice an enhancer drives distal expression of HoxA and HoxD clusters
When the same region from fish was tested in mice it only drove proximal expression
However, when the same region was tested in a coelacanth, an ancient lobe-finned fish and the closest living ancestor of the tetrapods, expression was driven more distally

576
Q

Give an example of a developmental constraint in evolution

A

Cave fish have lost their eyes as they are useless in the dark. However, the eyes are still present in the developing embryo because genes that drive eye expression in cave fish have other roles in the embryo so eyes still form as it is difficult to get rid of those genes

577
Q

What is heterochrony?

A

Heterochrony is the change in the duration of growth

578
Q

Give some examples of heterochrony in evolution

A

An example of this can be seen in dogs. The face of a bulldog is much smaller than the face of a dog meaning it stops growing sooner
Another example is the evolution of horses as the increased duration of growth of the central digit may have caused loss of contact of the lateral digits which in turn favored further reduction of their development. This has resulted in the single digit (hoof) which we can recognize in the present-day horse

579
Q

What is neoteny?

A

This describes a situation where the animal reaches sexual maturity in the larval stage

580
Q

Give an example of neoteny

A

An example of this is in the axolotl. It reaches sexual maturity and remains in its larval form
It can still be induced to undergo metamorphosis by injection of thyroxin, changing it to its lost adult form of the species

581
Q

What is the difference between short and long germ band insects?

A

Long germ band
- All segments are defined at once meaning embryogenesis is quick but segmentation process is complicated
- e.g. drosophila
Short germ band
- Segments are added progressively overtime
- eg. centipede

582
Q

How does the segmentation of the centipede occur?

A

Short germ band

  • Segments are formed progressively by the budding off of the proctodeum
  • Works through notch and delta signalling
  • Notch activates HER protein which is a negative regulator of delta, therefore decreasing notch signalling - negative feedback
  • Her protein is unstable so is degraded quickly allowing notch signalling to increase
  • This causes oscillations in a time dependant manner which allows for the formation of segments
583
Q

Give an example of an intermediate germ band insect

A

Beatle

- Head and thoracic segments are formed together and he abdominal segments form progressively

584
Q

What kind of segmentation do vertebrates use?

A

They use short germ band insects showing our evolutionary path