BM1 LQs Flashcards by SALI BABY

The total volume of amnionic fluid found intrauterine at 4 months is

a. 30ml
b. 60ml
c. 100ml
d. 200ml

d. 200ml

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What is the term used abnormally decreased fluid volume?
a. Anyhydramnios
b. Oligohydramnios
c. Hydramnios
d. polyhydramnios

b. Oligohydramnios

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Water transport across the fetal skin continues until keratinization occurs at what age of gestation?

a. 20 to 23 weeks
b. 22 to 25 weeks
c. 24 to 27 weeks
d. 26 to 29 weeks

b. 22 to 25 weeks

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What process is the primary source of amnionic fluid at 30 weeks AOG?

a. fetal respiration
b. fetal swallowing
c. fetal urination
d. transcutaneous flow

c. fetal urination

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The pregnancy outcome of oligohydramnios is:

a. APGAR score 8
b. Abortion
c. Macrosomia
d. fetal distress

d. fetal distress

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The amnionic volume of a patient was noted to be oligohydramnios at 41 weeks AOG which is at 460ml, what could be the patient’s amnionic fluid index at her expected date of delivery?

a. 440ml
b. 480
c. 500ml
d. 520ml

c. 500ml

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The category of moderate hydramnios in twin pregnancy refers to the amniotic fluid of which single deepest measurement?
a. 8cm
b. 10cm
c. 12cm
d. 14cm

b. 10cm

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Perception of fetal movement in primigravida can initially felt at what AOG?

a. 16 weeks
b. 18 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 22 weeks

c. 20 weeks

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The normal value for amniotic fluid index is:

a. 2cm
b. 4cm
c. 20cm
d. 26cm

c. 20cm

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One of the management of hydramnios is serial amnioreduction which is usually done starting at what age of gestation?

a. 27 weeks
b. 33 weeks
c. 31 weeks
d. 35 weeks

c. 31 weeks

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The FDA category which is characterized with animal reproduction studies that have been performed and have revealed no evidence of impaired fertility or harm to the fetus

a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D

b. Category B

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This medication can persists in extravascular compartments following therapy discontinuation and can cause palate abnormalities

a. Tamoxifen
b. Trastuzumab
c. Ribavirin
d. Efavirenz

c. Ribavirin

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The level of BHCG at 12 weeks AOG is 3000 IU/ml when is it expected to be at 12,000 IU/ml

a. 13 weeks age of gestation
b. 12 weeks and 2 days AOG
c. 14 weeks age of gestation
d. 12 weeks and 4 days

d. 12 weeks and 4 days

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This statement is true regarding the preimplantation period which is known as all or none:

a. occurs 3 weeks between fertilization and implantation
b. any insult during blastocyst cleavage can cause embryonic death
c. it is a dose-dependent diminution in body length
d. if cells are injured compensation may be possible

c. it is a dose-dependent diminution in body length

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What medication is known to produce diaphragmatic hernia in neonates?

a. Miconazole
b. Losartan
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Mafenide

d. Mafenide

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One of the criteria for Prenatal Alcohol Exposure, Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, and Alcohol-Related Birth Defects include:

a. 8 drinks per week every 2 weeks
b. 4 drinks per occasion for 4 occasion
c. Laboratory testing showing possible alcohol biomarker
d. Incidence of an spouse alcohol-related domestic violence

d. Incidence of an spouse alcohol-related domestic violence

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This is a fluid collection within the endometrial cavity which can occur in the setting of ectopic pregnancy

a. Pseudo sac
b. Gestational sac
c. Intradecidual sac
d. Decidual sac

a. Pseudo sac

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A woman who has been delivered only once of a fetus or fetuses born alive or dead with an estimated gestation duration of 20 or more weeks

a. Nulligravida
b. Primipara
c. Primigravida
d. Multigravida

b. Primipara

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This trimester has been recognized to emphasize the need for comprehensive postpartum care

a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. Fourth trimester

d. Fourth trimester

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Woman who uses illicit drugs during pregnancy especially methadone will be given which medication as part of the therapy

a. Cocaine
b. Buprenorphine
c. Ethanol
d. Naloxone

b. Buprenorphine

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A test cure for Chlamydia infection diagnosed at 32 weeks AOG should be done at which age of gestation?

a. 36 weeks
b. 37 weeks
c. 38 weeks
d. 39 weeks

a. 36 weeks

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This is the soft, blowing sound that is synchronous with the maternal pulse and is produce by:

a. Passage of blood through the enlarge umbilical vein
b. Rush of blood through the umbilical arteries
c. Passage of blood through the dilated uterine vessels
d. Rush of blood through the uterine vessels

c. Passage of blood through the dilated uterine vessels

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For woman who engage in behaviors that place them at high risk for hepatitis B virus infection should be again tested or screened at what age of gestation?

a. 25 weeks AOG
b. 26 weeks AOG
c. 27 weeks AOG
d. 28 weeks AOG

BONUS

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A woman whose weight prior to delivery is 76 kgs, is expected to have a postdelivery weight of:

a. 68 kgs
b. 69 kgs
c. 71 kgs
d. 72 kgs

c. 71 kgs

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Which nutrient when deficient to the m other can cause multiple severe neurologic defects? a. Iodine b. Calcium c. Zinc d. Magnesium

a. Iodine

This is the use the lowest possible exposure setting to gain necessary information a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. ALARA principle c. Ultrasonography d. Thermal index

b. ALARA principle

Likelihood of adverse effects related to rare fractional pressure is seen in which structures? a. Soft tissue b. Bones c. Cavities d. Fluid

c. Cavities

CRL is measure at what age of gestation? a. 11 weeks and 4 days b. 12 weeks and 3 days c. 13 weeks and 6 days d. 14 weeks and 5 days

c. 13 weeks and 6 days

How many days is the allowable threshold to revise the ultrasound if the findings at 15 weeks AOG is way larger than its AOG? a. More than 7 days b. More than 10 days c. More than 14 days d. More than 21 days

a. More than 7 days

What should be included as the expected ultrasound findings in the first trimester? a. Gestational sac at 5 weeks b. Embryo with FHT at 4 weeks c. Mean sac diameter of 15 mm should have a visible embryo d. Crown rump length of 3 mm with FHT

a. Gestational sac at 5 weeks

One of the components of aneuploidy screening is measurement of the nuchal cord translucency which should ideally be done at what AOG? A. 6 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 14 weeks D. 18 weeks

C. 14 weeks

This is usually included in the first trimester ultrasound examination: A. Amniotic fluid volume B. Placental localization C. Fetal number D. Crown rump length

D. Crown rump length

What color is elicited when blood directs towards the transducer during a doppler ultrasound? A. White B. Blue C. Red D. Black

C. Red

A suspected neural tube defect on ultrasound should warrant measurement of the alpha feto-protein which should be done at what age of gestation? A. 12 weeks B. 14 weeks C. 18 weeks D. 20 weeks

C. 18 weeks

This is a normal second trimester aneuploidy screening result: A. Increased dimeric inhibin B. Decreased conjugated estradiol C. Increased alpha feto-protein D. Decreased beta HCG

A. Increased dimeric inhibin

This is considered when an embryonic loss displays an embryo without cardiac activity during ultrasound evaluation? A. Blighted ovum B. Pre-embryonic loss C. Spontaneous abortion D. Embryonic miscarriage

D. Embryonic miscarriage

What is the genetic make-up of the single most frequent specific chromosomal abnormality? A. 45, XO B. 47, XX C. 46, X D. 47, XXY

A. 45, XO

38. A slowly rising beta HCG level is an indication that pregnancy is: A. An impending abortion B. A failed pregnancy C. An ectopic pregnancy D. A spontaneous abortion

C. An ectopic pregnancy

This refers to the process where a miscarriage is imminent and cannot be prevented. A. Imminent abortion B. Spontaneous abortion C. Induced abortion D. Inevitable abortion

D. Inevitable abortion

What is the most common abnormality in a recurrent miscarriage? A. Robertsonian translocations B. Trisomy 21 C. Residual translocations D. Trisomy 18

A. Robertsonian translocations

This condition is combination of various forms of reproductive loss and substantively increased venous thromboembolism: a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Polycystic ovary syndrome

b. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

Which one is a placental cause of mid-trimester spontaneous pregnancy loss? a. Vasculopathy b. Congenital c. Autoimmune d. Infection

a. Vasculopathy

When is cervical cerclage best performed? a. 13 weeks AOG b. 15 weeks AOG c. 17 weeks AOG d. 19 weeks AOG

a. 13 weeks AOG

Paracervical block is usually done with lidocaine injection at which site? a. 3 and 9 o’clock position b. 4 and 8 o’clock position c. 12 and 3 o’clock position d. 6 and 9 o’clock position

b. 4 and 8 o’clock position

This medication is used for medical abortion which acts to reverse progesterone-induce myometrium contraction quiescence a. Misoprostol b. Methotrexate c. Mifepristone d. Metoprolol

c. Mifepristone

What is the histopathologic findings in salpingitis isthmica nodosa? a. Epithelium-lined diverticula extend into a hypertrophied muscularis layer b. Localized endometrial invasion of the hypertrophied muscularis layer c. Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates with foamy histocytes in the muscularis layer d. Epithelium associated lymphocytic invasion of hypertrophied muscularis layer

a. Epithelium-lined diverticula extend into a hypertrophied muscularis layer

Which is a clinical criterion in the diagnosis of an ovarian pregnancy? a. The ipsilateral tube and the ovary are intact b. The ectopic pregnancy lies beyond the ovary and its capsule c. The ectopic pregnancy is connected by the infudibulo-pelvic ligament d. Ovarian tissue can be demonstrated histologically amid the placental tissue

d. Ovarian tissue can be demonstrated histologically amid the placental tissue

What is an indication that initial; medical management of ectopic pregnancy is not sufficient and needs additional treatment? a. Plateau of BHCG at day 4.7 b. Decline of 15% after 1 week of chemotherapy c. Less than 15% decline of BHCG after initial treatment d. Continued slow decline of BCHG at 15% weekly

b. Decline of 15% after 1 week of chemotherapy

When should the next serum beta HCG be request in multidose treatment? a. After 1 day b. At day 7 c. After 2 days d. At day 4

b. At day 7 ???

If interstitial pregnancy is undiagnosed it usually rupture at which AOG? a. 5 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 7 weeks d. 8 weeks

d. 8 weeks

Which one is a branch of femoral artery that can be seen traversing the femoral triangle? a. Superficial circumflex iliac a. b. Inferior epigastric a. c. Anterior superior iliac a. d. Genital branch of pudendal a.

a. Superficial circumflex iliac a.

Which nerve should be anesthetized or blocked to decrease postoperative pain? a. Lateral cutaneous nerve b. External oblique aponeurosis c. Ilioinguinal nerve d. Rectus sheath

c. Ilioinguinal nerve

Which vessel may be lacerated on lateral traction and transection of rectus abdominis muscle during Maylard incision? a. Inferior epigastric vessel b. External pudendal vessel c. Superficial epigastric vessel d. Lateral circumflex iliac vessel

a. Inferior epigastric vessel

Labia majora directly continuous superiorly with what structure? a. Round ligament b. Mons pubis c. Clitoris d. Labia minora

b. Mons pubis

The glans of the clitoris is covered with what epithelium?. a. Pseudostratified squamous epithelium b. Simple columnar epithelium c. Stratified squamous epithelium d. Simple squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

c. Stratified squamous epithelium

This statement is true regarding vagina a. A separated posteriorly by the vesicovaginal septum b. Lower portion of vagina is separated by pouch of douglas c. Nonkeratinized pseudostratified squamous epithelium lines the vagina d. The fibrous layer provides additional strength into vagina

Which structure does the pudendal nerve innervate? a. Urethrovaginal sphincter b. Middle third of vagina c. Urogenital triangle d. Perineal muscle

a. Urethrovaginal sphincter

Which muscle is usually severed in 4th degree laceration? a. Puborectal muscle b. Bulbocavernous muscle c. Bulbospongiosus muscle d. Transverse perineal muscle

a. Puborectal muscle

The right ovarian vein empties into which vessel a. Iliac vein b. Vena cava c. Renal vein d. Hypogastric vein

b. Vena cava

Which statement best describes the fallopian tube? a. The interstitium is 2-3 wide b. Parasympathetic innervation is more extensive c. Sensory afferent fibers ascend to T10 spinal cord level d. The mesothelial layer functioning as visceral peritoneum ????

c. Sensory afferent fibers ascend to T10 spinal cord level

A type of male genetic chromosomal abnormality with decreased in testosterone production with a female external genitalia and have a testes a. True hermaphroditism b. congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. female pseudohermaphroditism d. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency

d. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency

Which enzyme when deficient will create both absent or decreased production of aldosterone and cortisol a. 17-b dehydrogenase b. 5-alpha reductase c. 21-hydroxylase d. 18-hydroxyprogesterase

c. 21-hydroxylase

Which characteristic is included in Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome (MRKH) a. vaginal agenesis b. vaginal atresia` c. transverse vaginal septum d. clitoral agenesis

a. vaginal agenesis

How do we usually manage uterine anomalies? a. hormonal treatment b. expectant management c. surgical management d. medical treatment

b. expectant management

One of the complications of which uterine anomalies is recurrent 1st trimester pregnancy loss which type is present in 25% of woman with this anomaly a. uterine didelphys b. bicornuate uterus c. unicornuate uterus d. septate uterus

d. septate uterus

Which essential for differentiation of paramesonephric a. SRY gene b. testosterone determining factor c. anti Mullerian hormone d. Estrogen

c. anti Mullerian hormone

What is the complication or risk of patient with Klinefelter syndrome a. Teratoma b. Hyperthyroidism c. Brain cancer d. Pulmonary abnormalities

a. Teratoma

What type of cardiac anomalies is commonly associated with Turner syndrome a. ventricular septal defect b. coarctation of the aorta c. tetralogy of fallot d. patent ductus arteriosus

b. coarctation of the aorta

Which characteristic abnormality would indicated elevated gonadotropin levels a. gonadal dysgenesis b. ambigious genitalia c. presence of both male and female gonads d. ovotestis .

a. gonadal dysgenesis

Which embryonic urogenital structure is homologous to paraoophoron a. Gabernuculum b. Paramesonephric duct c. Genital tubercle d. Mesonephric tubule

d. Mesonephric tubule

Due to the enlarging uterus, the diaphragm usually rises how many inches? A.) 1.5 inch B.) 3 inch C.) 4 inch D.) 5.5 inch

A.) 1.5 inch

How much carbon is decreased during pregnancy which brings about a slight change in the acid base balance? A.) 2 B.) 4 C.) 6 D.) 8

B.) 4

Which inflammatory cytokines usually are increased with pre-eclamptic patients? A.) Tumor necrosis factor B.) Granulocyte macrophage C.) interferon something D.) Interleukin-1B

A.) Tumor necrosis factor

How much iron is needed a day to support the expanding maternal hemoglobin? A.) 30 mg/day B.) 7 g/day C.) 500 mg/day D.) 35 g/day

???

What is the agonist of the RAS which stimulates the release of nitric oxide? A.) Renin B.) Angiotensin C.) Erythropoietin D.) Prostaglandin

B.) Angiotensin

In the calcium metabolism, which substance is usually unchanged? A.) Total plasma calcium B.) Albumin C.) Free ionized calcium D.) 1,25-dihydroxycalciferol

C.) Free ionized calcium

During pregnancy, which hormone suppresses the ovulation? A.) Estrogen B.) Progesterone C.) Gonadotropin releasing hormone D.) Luteinizing hormone

B.) Progesterone

Which hormone acts like a growth hormone that provides more glucose to the fetus? A.) gonadotropin releasing hormone B.) Thyroid releasing hormone C.) Human chorionic somatotropin hormone d.) Adrenalcorticotropin hormone

C.) Human chorionic somatotropin hormone

Which ophthalmic characteristic is usually not changed during pregnancy? A.) Vitreous outflow B.) Corneal sensitivity C.) Visual function D.) Accommodation

C.) Visual function

How much weight is contributed by the fluid as included in the maternal weight gain? A.) 1.94-3.99 kg B.) 2.42-2.66 kg C.) 0.48-0.72 kg D.) 3.63-3.88 kg

A.) 1.94-3.99 kg

How many is the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? A. 10 days B. 12 days C. 14 days D. 16 days

C. 14 days

How many follicles are released in female reproductive life? A. 400,000 B. 100,000 C. 400 D. 2 million

C. 400

During the follicular phase, which event is responsible for the failure of follicles to reach pre ovulatory status? A. Increase in gonadotropin releasing hormone B. Decrease in FSH C. Increase in LH D. Decrease in estrogen

B. Decrease in FSH

When does ovulation occur? A. 10 hrs before LH surge B. 12 hrs after LH surge C. 24 hrs before LH surge D. 36 hrs after LH surge

A. 10 hrs before LH surge

This refers to the ability of macrophage to assume phenotypes that vary from proinflammatory and phagocytic to immunosuppressive and reparative states? A. Inflammatory crisis B. Cytokine storm C. Inflammatory tightrope D. Epithelial scaffolding

C. Inflammatory tightrope

This decidual structure that secretes the conceptus from the rest of uterine cavity A. Decidua basalis B. Decidua capsularis C. Decidua parietalis D. Decidua vera

B. Decidua capsularis

What is the process of decidual reaction The decidual reaction is completed only with considered completed? A. Blastocyst implantation B. When spiral arteries become tortuorous C. The morula formation D. When cytoplasm becomes clear

A. Blastocyst implantation

Which will provide immune tolerance to the fetus? A. Decidual macrophage B. Placental basophilic cells C. Trophoblast D. Syncytiotrophoblast

A. Decidual macrophage

When does a morula enter the uterine cavity? A. 7 days after zygote formation B. 5 days after cleavage of blastomeres C. 3 days after fertilization D. 1 day after blastocyst formation

C. 3 days after fertilization

This trophoblast migrate into the decidua and myometrium and penetrate maternal vasculature coming into contact with various maternal cell types A. Villous trophoblast B. Interstitial trophoblast C. Intravascular trophoblast D. Extravillous trophoblast

D. Extravillous trophoblast

Which is a maternal indication for placental pathologic examination? a. Thicker viscid meconium b. Infection or sepsis c. Multifetal gestation d. Placenta previa

a. Thicker viscid meconium

This condition is caused by congenital thinning of the vessel wall with diminished support from Wharton jelly. a. Umbilical vein varix b. Umbilical cord false knots c. Umbilical artery aneurysm d. Umbilical cord hematomas

c. Umbilical artery aneurysm

Incidence of occurence in nuchal cord among vaginal delivery with 2 loops? a. 2.5 - 5% b. 10 - 12% c. 0.2 - 0.5% d. 20 - 34%

a. 2.5 - 5%

What are the associated risk factors involved with the presence of a true knot? a. Hypertension b. Multifetal pregnancy c. Oligohydramnios d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus

Management recommendation for vasa previa? a. Bed rest starting 34 weeks AOG b. Antenatal corticosteroid at 27 weeks AOG c. Hospitalization at 30 weeks AOG d. Antenatal fetoscopic surgery at 32 weeks AOG

c. Hospitalization at 30 weeks AOG

Which complication of velamentous placenta insertion? a. Fetal growth restriction b. Recurrent, frequent losses c. Low Apgar score d. Neonatal sepsis

c. Low Apgar score

A type of umbilical insertion where umbilical vessels goes to protective Wharton jelly hence, are covered only by an amnion sheath. a. Eccentric b. Velamentous c. Furcate d. Marginal

c. Furcate

Measurement used as a predictive marker for fetal outcomes? a. Cord diameter b. Cord length c. Umbilical coil index d. Vessel number

a. Cord diameter

What fetal artery is used to evaluate fetal anemia? a. Posterior cerebral artery b. Umbilical artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Peripheral capillary beds

c. Middle cerebral artery

Placental classification which shows echogenic stippling at the basal plate. Large, echogenic comma shapes originate from an indented chorionic plate, but their curve falls short of the basal plate. a. Grade 0 b. Grade 1 c. Grade 2 d. Grade 3

c. Grade 2

Women who have GTN were advised to follow up. When should a repeat Beta HCG be measured? a. 2 weeks after discharge b. 1 month postpartum c. 4 weeks after discharge d. 1 ½ months postpartum

d. 1 ½ months postpartum

What is the possible caused of quiescent hCG? a. Presence of retained trophoblast b. Laboratory error c. Progressive disease d. Superimposed pregnancy

a. Presence of retained trophoblast ??

This drug is part of the salvage therapy most specifically BEP: a. Cisplatin b. Methotrexate c. Pembrolizumab d. cyclophosphamide

a. Cisplatin

The chemotherapy for high risk patients on day 2 include this agent: a. Etoposide 200mg/m2 IVF b. Methotrexate 400mg/m3 orally c. Folinic Acid 15mg IM d. Actinomycosis D 0.75mg IVTT

c. Folinic Acid 15mg IM

Which chemotherapeutic agent is considered less toxic than actinomycosis D? a. Methotrexate b. Folinic Acid c. Etoposide d. Actinomycosis D

a. Methotrexate

What is the primary treatment of Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor? a. Single agent chemotherapy b. Combination chemotherapy c. Hysterectomy d. Suction curretage

c. Hysterectomy

This statement true regarding Gestational Choriocarcinoma? a. most common type of trophoblastic neoplasia after a molar gestation (20%) b. metastases via blood often develop early c. composed of cells reminiscent of early cytotrophoblast d. rapidly growing tumor which invades only the myometrium

b. metastases via blood often develop early

The most common trophoblastic neoplasm which arise from partial moles: a. Gestational Choriocarcinoma b. Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor c. Epithelioid Trophoblastic Tumor d. Invasive Mole

d. Invasive Mole

In the WHO scaring system, what is the score for the 9 months interval from index pregnancy? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

c. 2

What is the FIGO staging and classification of Gestational trophoblastic tumors extending to the brain? a. FIGO I b. FIGO II c. FIGO III d. FIGO IV

d. FIGO IV

Which one is a risk factor for Gestational trophoblastic disease? a. Older maternal age b. Large uterine size c. Theca-lutein cysts >4cm d. Plateau in B-hCG levels

a. Older maternal age

When does beta HCG level expected to reach normal level after suction curettage for complete mole? a. 2 months and 3 weeks b. One month and 3 weeks c. 2 months and 1 week d. 3 months and 2 weeks

b. One month and 3 weeks

Which statement best describes post evacuation surveillance of molar pregnancy? a. Monthly determinations for another 3 months b. Initial BHCG level is obtained within 24 hours after evacuation c. It will take 12 months before pregnancy is allowed d. Monitoring is done every 3 weeks until level is undetectable

c. It will take 12 months before pregnancy is allowed

G4P3 (3013). 43 year old with complete mole and associated bilateral theca lutein cysts. What is the management of choice? a. Chemotherapy b. Total abdominal hysterectomy c. Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo oophorectomy d. Suction curettage

b. Total abdominal hysterectomy

What is the molecular genotype of a non-molar abortion? a. Biparental diploidy b. Diploid diandry c. Triploid monogyny d. Diploid biparental diandry

a. Biparental diploidy

This is an effective means to isolate complete mole from the diagnostic list a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Serum beta HCG c. Immunohistochemical staining d. Transvaginal ultrasound

c. Immunohistochemical staining

This is characterized by diffuse placental villous oedema, which produces villous enlargement and cistern formation in some villi a. Choriocarcinoma b. Complete mole c. Invasive mole d. Placental site trophoblastic tumor

b. Complete mole

When is the best time to do a histologic surveillance for a subsequent neoplasia after a complete mole? a. 6 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks

d. 12 weeks

An echogenic uterine mass with numerous anechoic cystic spaces seen on ultrasound is known as a. Sand storm b. Thyroid storm c. Snow storm d. Stormy weather

c. Snow storm

Which one is the differential diagnosis of complete mole a. Uterine leiomyoma with cystic degeneration b. Multifetal pregnancy c. Missed abortion d. Ectopic pregnancy

a. Uterine leiomyoma with cystic degeneration

This is the erroneous urine pregnancy test results due to hormone oversaturation. A. False negative B. Hook effect C. False positive D. Robin effect

B. Hook effect

Management of choice for an early age stage of gestational trophoblastic tumor A. Etoposide B. Cisplastin C. Methothrexate D. Vancomycin

C. Methothrexate

Which race is more at risk for having molar pregnancy? A. Indians B. Australians C. Americans D. Europeans

A. Indians

The incidence of having a repeat hydatidiform mole after a previous complete mole is A. 10% B. 0.9% C. 0.5% D. 20%

B. 0.9%

What is the probable diagnosis if there is associated presence of theca lutein cyst? A. Partial mole B. Hydatidiform mole C. Choriocarcinoma D. Complete mole

B. Hydatidiform mole

This is the last few hours of human pregnancy characterized by forceful and painful uterine contractions that effect cervical dilation and cause the fetus to descend through the birth canal A. Parturition B. Labor C. VAginal Birth D. Antepartum

B. Labor

Which one causes onset of labor? A. Uterine contractions B. Bloody show C. Mature placenta D. Pain

A. Uterine contractions or bloody show?

Which smooth muscle quality confers advantageous for uterine contraction efficiency and fetal delivery? A. Degree of smooth muscle cell lengthening with contractions B. Forces can be exerted in smooth muscle cells in one direction C. Circular arrangement of smooth muscle D. Multidirectional force generation in the uterine fundus

D. Multidirectional force generation in the uterine fundus

Which cervical change can exert pregnancy specific immune-protection A. Increase cervical and cross sectional area B. Expansion of stroma C. Mucus plug D. Orchestration of extracellular matrix

B. Expansion of stroma

This is a physiological, immunological, and metabolic shield to protect against untimely parturition initiation: A. Cervical changes B. Placenta C. Fetal membrane D. Decidual changes

C. Fetal membrane

What is the effect of RU-486? A. Cervical opening B. Cervical instability C. Uterotonin sensitivity D. Uterine contractions

C. Uterotonin sensitivity

Which one is a major source of prostaglandin? A. Amnion B. Placenta C. Chorion D. Decidua

A. Amnion

Which is a stimulant of prostaglandin? A. Lipase B. Dehydrogenase C. Synthase D. Isomerase

C. Synthase

Which corresponds to recovery in the phase of parturition? A. Activation B. Involution C. Stimulation D. Quiescence

B. Involution

Which one is the key factor that regulates the phases of human parturition? A. Adrenocorticotropin releasing hormone B. Gonadotrophs C. Prostaglandin H2 synth D. Surfactant protein A

D. Surfactant protein A

This statement best describe prelude of labor onset A. Increase actions of estrogen and progesterone B. Decrease in cyclic adenosine monophosphate C. Generation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate D. Modification of smooth muscle cell ion channels

C. Generation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate

Which hormone acts on the myometrium during the second phase of labor? A. Prostacyclin B. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Platelet activating factor D. Oxytocin

D. Oxytocin

Uterine relaxations is achieved in part by: A. Ion channel regulation of cell membrane potential B. Interactions between the actin and myosin proteins C. Excitability of individual myometrial cells D. Promotion of intracellular crosstalk

A. Ion channel regulation of cell membrane potential

What should actin do to allow tension to develop in the cell membrane? A. It should convert to fibrillar form B. It should attach to the cytoskeleton in focal proteins C. It should stimulate calcium entrance D. It should form complex with MLCK

B. It should attach to the cytoskeleton in focal proteins

One of which is a contraction associated proteins that is necessary at the end of pregnancy: A. Connexin 43 B. Inositol triphosphate C. Adenylyl cyclase D. Diacetylglycerol

A. Connexin 43

This hormone is synthesized in the placenta and hypothalamus and appears to promote myometrial quiescence during most of pregnancy but then aids myometrial contractions with parturition onset. a. Oxytocin b. Corticotropin-releasing hormone c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Relaxin

b. Corticotropin-releasing hormone

Cyclic guanosine monophosphate can be stimulated by which protein? a. Oxytocin b. Nitric oxide c. Guanylyl cyclase d. B-adrenergic receptors

b. Nitric oxide

What is the main structural protein in the cervix which undergoes conformational changes that alter tissue stiffness and flexibility? a. Cervix matrix b. Elastin c. Collagen d. Endocervical epithelium

c. Collagen

Which mechanism of progesterone withdrawal directly influence receptor function? a. Local inactivation of progesterone by steroid-metabolizing enzymes b. Differential interaction of PR-A and PR-B with enhancers c. microRNA regulation of progesterone-metabolizing enzymes d. Alterations in PR activity through changes in the expression of coactivators

d. Alterations in PR activity through changes in the expression of coactivators

What is the distinct characteristics of the fibrils that make up the collagen fibers during phase 2 of labor? a. They are less uniform and spacing is greater b. They are dense at the crosslinks c. They are uniform and well organized d. They have multiple triple-helical molecules

a. They are less uniform and spacing is greater

This is the process of cell signaling systems that influenced by stretch to regulate the myometrial cell. a. Ferguson reflex b. Mechano-transduction c. Stretch reflex d. Myometrial contractile complex

b. Mechano-transduction

This stage of labor begins immediately after delivery of the fetus and ends with the delivery of the placenta. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

c. Stage 3

What is the average uterine contraction intensity? a. 20 mmHg b. 40 mmHg c. 60 mmHg d. 80 mmHg

b. 40 mmHg

This cervical change is manifested by shortening of the cervical canal or obliteration of the cervix. a. Cervical dilatation b. Hegar’s sign c. Goodle sign d. Cervical effacement

d. Cervical effacement

This protein is expressed in smooth muscle which effects a rise in intracellular calcium when activated. a. Endothelin-1 b. Prostaglandin E2 c. Angiotensin B d. Oxytocin

a. Endothelin-1

Dermal fibers within the skin; arranged transversely

Langer lines

Deeper membranous layer continues inferiorly onto the perineum

Colles fascia

an abnormally wide separation of linea alba

Diastasis recti or hernia

Nerve supply of posterior vulva

pudendal nerve of the thigh

Hymen transforms into vestigial nodules of various sizes

hymeneal or myrtiform caruncle

Dense connective tissue layer which projects papillae into the overlying epithelium

elastic lamina propria

After birth-related epithelial trauma filled with keratin debris may form

epidermal inclusion cysts

The cervical branch of the uterine artery and the vaginal artery is a branch of what large vessel

internal iliac artery

Lymphatic section of vagina that drains to external iliac nodes

Superior third

An arbitrary line joining the ischial tuberosities and divides the perineum into an anterior triangle and a posterior triangle

urogenital triangle

Levator ani composed of

pubococcygeus (puborectailis, iliococcygeus)

Two fat filled wedge-shaped spaces found on either side of the anal canal that comprise the bulk of the posterior triangle

ischioanal fossae

The perineal body width

14mm

Degree of tear that involves vagina, perineal muscle and anal sphincter

third degree

Anterior rami of s2-4 lies in what structure

Alcock Canal