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advanced pharm > blueprint test 1 advanced pharm > Flashcards

blueprint test 1 advanced pharm Flashcards

1
Q

A___is a compound that is pharmacologically inactive as administered and then undergoes conversion to its active form via metabolism.

A

prodrug

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2
Q

The term ____ refers to the rapid hepatic inactivation of certain ORAL drugs.

A

first-pass effect

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3
Q

If the capacity of the liver to metabolize a drug is extremely____, that drug can be completely inactivated on its first pass thru the liver. As a result ___ therapeutic effect can occur

A

high

no

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4
Q

to circumvent the first pass effect a drug that goes thru rapid hepatic metabolism is often administered___

A

parenterally

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5
Q

____is defined as the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood

A

absorption

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6
Q

____is enhanced by rapid drug dissolution, high lipid solubility of the drug, a large surface area of absorption and high blood flow at the site of administration

A

absorption

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7
Q

__consists of 4 basic processes…absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion

A

pharmacokinetics

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8
Q

___ processes determine the concentration of a drug at its sites of action, and thereby determine the intensity and time course of responses.

A

pharmacokinetic

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9
Q

____ is defined as the movement of drugs thru out the body

A

distribution

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10
Q

____is defined as the enzymatic alteration of drug structure

A

drug metabolism (biotransformation)

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11
Q

The most importance consequence of ___ ___ is promotion of renal drug excretion by converting lipid soluable drugs into more hydrophillic forms

A

drug metabolism

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12
Q

___ excretion has 3 steps glomerular filtration, passive tubular reabsorption, and active tubular secretion

A

renal

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13
Q

Most drug metabolism takes place in the ___ and is catlyzed by the cytochrome P450 system of enzymes

A

liver

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14
Q

Most drugs are excreted by the ____

A

kidneys

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15
Q

____is the study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and the molecular mechanisms by which those effects are produced.

A

phamacodynamics

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16
Q

In 1906 the first american law to regulate drugs was the_______

A

federal pure food and drug act

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17
Q

The ___ regulates the safety of drugs prior to approving for use and their authority was expanded in 2007 to include rigorous oversight after a drug has been approved.

A

FDA

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18
Q

The ___ is responsible for protecting public health, effectiveness and quality of drugs, vaccines,medical devices, food supply, cosmetics, dietary supplements and products that give off radiation, tobacco, labeling, help speed products to market

A

FDA

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19
Q

_____is the study of drug movement thru out the body

A

pharmacokinetics

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20
Q

____is the study of what drugs do to the body and how they do it.

A

pharmacodynamics

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21
Q

_____are molecules that activate receptors.

A

agonists

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22
Q

When drugs act as _____ they simply bind to receptors and mimic the actions of the body’s own regulatory molecules

A

agonists

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23
Q

An ________is a drug that has high affinity and intrinsic activity

A

agonist

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24
Q

_____produce their effects by preventing receptor activation by endogenous regulatory molecules and drugs.

A

Antagonists

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25
Q

An ______ is a drug with an affinity for a receptor but with no intrinsic activity.

A

antagonist

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26
Q

____ produce their effects by preventing the activation of receptors by ______

A

antagonists

agonists

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27
Q

Because ____ act by preventing receptor activation if their is no ____ present the administration of an ____ will have no observable effect.

A

antagonist
agonist
antagonist

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28
Q

____have only a partial a moderate intrinsic activity. so their maximal efficacy is lower than a full agonist.

A

partial agonists

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29
Q

____can act as agonists(if there is NO full agonist present) and as antagonists( if a full agonist IS present.)

A

partial agonists

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30
Q

____is what the drug does to the body

A

pharmacodynamics

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31
Q

A___ is the components of a celll that interact with a drug.

A

receptor

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32
Q

drug + receptor is termed _____

A

coupling

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33
Q

Safer drugs have a ____ therapeutic index value.

A

higher

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34
Q

_______is any unintended and undesired effect that occurs at normal drug doses.

A

ADR adverse drug reaction

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35
Q

What population are ADR’s most common in____

A

elderly adults

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36
Q

A____as a nearly unavoidable secondary drug effect produced at therapeutic doses

A

side effect

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37
Q

_____is the degree of detrimental physiologic effects caused by excessive drug dosing.

A

toxicity

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38
Q

_____ is a decreased responsiveness to a drug as a result of repeated drug administration.

A

Tolerance

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39
Q

______ occurs due to chronic receptor occupation by a drug.

A

Tolerance

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40
Q

Which FDA pregnancy risk category” proven risk of fetal harm” with WARNINGS on drug label?

A

D

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41
Q

Which FDA pregnancy risk category “ remote risk of fetal harm”

A

A

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42
Q

Which FDA pregnancy risk category” proven risk of fetal harm” with CONTRAINDICATED on drug label?

A

X

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43
Q

Which FDA pregnancy risk category “slightly more risk”?

A

B

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44
Q

Which FDA pregnancy risk category “greater risk than?

A

C

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45
Q

Drug sensitivity in the very young results from______

A

organ system immaturity

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46
Q

How are drugs usually prescribed for pediatric patients (dosage) by ______

A

body surface area BSA x adult dosage divided 1.73 =dose

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47
Q

By what age ____ are most pharmacokinetic parameters similar to those in adults.

A

1

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48
Q

what population___ is the following from
drug responses may be prolonged and intense
absorption of IM drugs is more rapid than ____
limited protien binding capacity
blood brain barrier in not fully developed
drug metabolism and excretion is low

A

infants

adults

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49
Q

children 1 to 12 metabolize drugs ___ than adults

A

faster

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50
Q

_____have a decline in organ function

A

older adults

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51
Q

In older adults the proper index of renal function is

A

creatinine clearance

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52
Q

______ identifies drugs with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults.

A

Beers list

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53
Q

Drugs on Beers list to be avoided in older adults

A

some analgesics,TCA, antihistamines, antihypertensives_ alpha adrenergic blocking agents, sedative-hypnotics, drugs for urge incontinence and some muscle relaxants

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54
Q

what side effects from meds of beers list put elderly pts at risk?

A

gi bleeding

confusion,falls anticholinergic effects low bp and HR,

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55
Q

3 functions of the autonomic nervous system

A

regulation of heart, secretory glands and smooth muscle

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56
Q

the autonomic nervous system is divided into 2 parts

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

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57
Q 
functions of which nervous system??
slowing of HR
increased gastric secretion
emptying bowel/bladder
focusing eye for near vision
constricting the pupil
contracting bronchial smooth muscle
A

parasympathetic

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58
Q

functions of which nervous system??
regulating the CV system/body temperature
implementing the fight or flight response

A

sympathetic

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59
Q

_____to spinal cord then brain
brain to spinal cord to ______
entire process called_________

A

sensor
effector
feedback loop of the autonomic system

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60
Q

the most important feedback loop of the autonomic nervous system ______
it helps to regulate BP

A

baroreceptor reflex

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61
Q

In both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system there are 2 places where drugs can act________— ________

A

the synapses between pre and post ganglionic neurons

the junctions between post-ganglionic neurons and their effector organs

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62
Q

the adrenal gland is part of which nervous system?

A

autonomic/sympathetic

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63
Q

the adrenal gland releases____ into the bloodstream

A

epinephrine

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64
Q

the somatic motor system has only ___ neuron in the pathway from the spinal cord to the muscles innervated by somatic motor nerves

A

1

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65
Q

the somatic motor system has only 1 pathway and 1 site of action which is at _____

A

neuromuscular junction

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66
Q

the peripheral nervous system employs 3 neurotransmitters___ ___ ____

A

acetylcholine, norepinephrine and epinephrine

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67
Q

____ is the neurotransmitter used at most junctions of the PNS

A

acetylcholine

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68
Q

______is the transmitter released by practically all post ganglionic neurons of the syspathetic system

A

norepinephrine

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69
Q

_____is the major transmitter released by the adrenal medulla.

A

epinephrine

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70
Q

what are the primary receptor types of the PNS?

A

cholinergic and adrenergic

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71
Q

____receptors are defined as receptors that mediate responses to acetylcholine

A

cholinergic

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72
Q

_____receptors are defined as receptors that mediate responses to epinephrine(adrenaline) and norepinephrine

A

adrenergic

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73
Q

what are the 3 subtypes of cholinergic receptors??

A

nicotinic(n)
nicotinic(m)
muscarinic

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74
Q

what are the 4 subtypes of adrenergic receptors?

A

alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1 , beta 2

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75
Q

dopamine receptors are classified as ___receptors, dopamine receptors only respond to dopamine

A

adrenergic

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76
Q

which receptor type are located behind eyes, blood vessels, male sex organs, prostatic capsule and bladder?

A

alpha 1

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77
Q

____receptors are located on the cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. ___are also located on the cells of the adrenal medulla.

A

nicotinic (n)

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78
Q

___receptors are located on all organs regulated by the PNS and also on sweat glands

A

muscurinic

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79
Q

___ receptors are located on skeletal muscle and causes ____ of skeletal muscle

A

nicotinic (m)

contraction

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80
Q

activation of ____ receptors in blood vessels produces vasoconstriction

A

alpha 1

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81
Q

activation of ____ receptors in the sexual apparatus of men causes ejaculation,in smooth muscle of bladder /and prostatic capsule causes contraction

A

alpha 1

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82
Q

____receptors of the PNS are located on nerve terminals which one of the 4 adrenergic receptors

A

alpha 2

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83
Q

____ receptors are referred to as presynaptic or prejunctional and there function is to inhibit transmitter release.

A

alpha 2

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84
Q

___receptors are located in the heart and the kidney.

A

beta 1

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85
Q

Activation of what receptors cause increase in HR and force of contraction, and velocity of impulse conduction thru the atrioventricular node and promotes renin release in the kidneys

A

beta 1

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86
Q

activation of what receptor causes the kidneys to release renin into blood which promotes synthesis of angiotensin a powerful vasoconstrictor can help elevate BP

A

beta 1

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87
Q

which receptors activate the lungs to bronchiodilate

uterine relaxation, vasodilation, increases blood glucose for energy and contraction in skeletal muscle

A

beta 2

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88
Q

____ receptors are located in the kidney and dilates renal blood vessels, enhancing renal perfusion

A

dopamine

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89
Q

____ can activate all alpha and beta recptors except for dopamine

A

epinephrine

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90
Q

____ can activate alpha 1 and 2 and beta 1 but not beta 2 or dopamine receptors

A

norepinephrine

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91
Q

___ can activate alpha 1 and beta 1 and dopamine receptors only

A

dopamine

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92
Q

the neurotransmitter ____ degrades into ___ and ___ acetate eliminated and choline taken back up for reuse.

A

acetylcholine

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93
Q

termination of the life cycle process for ____ is done reuptake for use or inactivation by MAO

A

norepinephrine

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94
Q

termination for the life cycle process for ___is accomplished by hepatic metabolism and Not by uptake.

A

epinephrine

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95
Q

activation of _____ receptors increase glandular secretion, contracts smooth muscle in bronchi and gi tract, slows HR, contract the iris sphincter/ciliary muscle, dilates blood vessels,promotes bladder voiding by contracting detrusor and relaxing trigone and sphincter

A

muscurinic

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96
Q

Bethanechol is an example of a ____ ____

A

muscurinic agonist

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97
Q

____ is a direct acting muscurinic agonist. it binds reversibly to muscurinic cholinergic receptors to cause activation.

A

bethanechol

98
Q

____ is approved for urinary retention.

A

bethanechol

99
Q

____ is the best known muscurinic antagonist

( anticholinergic drug)

A

atropine

100
Q

___ produces its effects by complete blockade of receptor activation by acetylcholine or drugs that produce those effects.

A

atropine

101
Q

_____ is used as a preanethetic med, eye disorders/eye surgery, bradycardia(sometimes), hypermotility/intestinal hypertonicity and muscurinic agonist poisoning.

A

Atropine

102
Q

the most effective antidote to antimuscurinic poisoning is____

A

physostigmine

103
Q

Cholinergic drugs are agents that influence the activity of _____ receptors

A

cholinergic

104
Q

____ drugs act directly at the receptors where they mimic or block the actions of acetylcholine.

A

cholinergic

105
Q

cholinergic inhibitors influence cholinergic receptors indirectly by preventing the breakdown of ____

A

acetylcholine

106
Q

____ inhibitors are drugs that prevent the degradation of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase.

A

cholinesterase

107
Q

The major use of reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is in the tx of _____

A

myasthenia gravis

108
Q

secondary uses for reversible cholinesterase inhibitors are reversal of competitive (nondepolarizing) neuromuscular blockade and tx of _____

A

glaucoma

alzheimers, parkinsons dementia and poisoning muscurinic antagonists

109
Q

____ cause stimulation of parasympathetetic/sympathetic nerves and release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

A

nicotinic (n)

110
Q 
the muscurinic receptors produce effect on their target organ:
eye
heart
lung 
bladder
gi tract
 sweat glands
sex organs
blood vessels
A

contraction
decreased rate
constrict bronchi

contraction of detrusor muscle and relaxation of trigone causes voiding
increased secretions, increased tone and motility
defecation
sweating
erection
vasodilation

111
Q

muscurinic agonist drug example___

A

bethanechol

112
Q

muscurinic antagonists drug example_____

A

atropine

113
Q

ganglionic stimulating agents example_____

ganglionic blocking agents example _____

A

nicotine

mecamylamine

114
Q

neuromuscular blocking agents example_____

A

d-Tubocurarine, succinylcholine

115
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors example______

A

neostigmine, physostigmine

116
Q

name 5 catecholamine drugs ____

A 
epinephrine
norepinephrine
isoproterenol
dobutamine
dopamine
117
Q

name 3 non catecholamines drugs_____

A

ephedrine
phenylephrine
albuterol

118
Q

what are 3 therapeutic applications of beta blockers____

A

blocking these receptors will

  1. reduce HR
  2. reduce force of heart contraction
  3. reduced velocity of impulse conduction thru av node.
119
Q

what is the difference between a selective and non-selective beta blocker?______

A

1st generation- non selective/ propranolol
2nd generation cardio selective /metaprolol
3rd generation which are both

120
Q

propranolol is an example of what type/generation beta blocker_____

A

non -selective /1st gen

121
Q

metaprolol is an example of what type/generation beta blocker??_____

A

cardio-selective/2nd gen

122
Q

if you activate beta receptors what happens ?

A

increase HR,force of contaction,and av conduction velocity
release renin

dilation of arterioles-heart,lung, skeletal muscle,bronchi, relax uterus, liver glycogenolysis

123
Q

beta blockers are given to tx (4)______

A

hypertension,angina, heart failure and svt

124
Q

beta blockers produce most of their effects by blocking beta ____

A

1

125
Q

most beneficial effects from tx with alpha blockers are ____

A

reduction in bp

126
Q

_____reduce symptoms of bph by blocking ___ receptors in the bladder neck and prostatic capsule which causes the smooth muscle to relax

A

alpha blockers

alpha 1

127
Q

the major adverse effect in tx with alpha blockers is ___

A

orthostatic hypotension

128
Q

what does the term alpha adrenergic blockade mean?

A

drugs that produce selective blockade to alpha adrenergic agents

129
Q

2 types of adrenergic antagonists______

A

alpha adrenergic blockers

beta adrenergic blockers

130
Q

what does the term alpha 1 adrenergic blockade mean?____. what does the prescriber need to know about it____

A

cause direct blockade,usually reversible
to instruct pts about possible orthostatic hypotension*
reflex tachycardia,nasal congestion, inhibition of ejaculation

131
Q

what is a alpha antagonist?___

examples of medications that fall into this category___

A

produces a blocking effect on alpha receptors

prazosin, phentolamine, phenoxybenzamine

132
Q

what is anticholinergic activity?

what are the symptoms?

A 
blocks the activity of acetylcholine
atropine
increases HR
reduces secretions
relaxes intestinal/bronchial smooth muscle, causes urinary retention, cns excitation, eyes-mydriasis
133
Q

what are alpha agonists used for?

A

used for hemostatsis,nasal decongestion, elevation of bp.adjuncts to local anesthetics

134
Q

what are beta agonists?
indications?
adverse effects?

A

activate beta receptors(clinically relavent only beta 1)

increase HR.
force of contraction
and av node impulse conduction velocity

tachycardia, dysrrhythmias, and angina

135
Q

adrenergic agonists fall into 2 chemical categories___

A

catecholamines and non catecholamines

136
Q

major adverse effects from alpha activation?

A

hypertension and local necrosis

137
Q

____ is defined as the ability of a drug to injure a target cell or organisms that are in intimate contact with the target.

A

selective toxicity

138
Q

_____ is a chemical that is produced by one microbe and has the ability to harm other microbes

A

antibiotic/antimicrobial

139
Q

______ is defined as any agent , natural, or synthetic, that has the ability to kill or suppress microrganisms

A

antimicrobial/antibiotic

140
Q

_____ are toxic to their taget by disruption of the bacterial cell wall, inhibition of an enzyme unique to bacteria, and /or disruption of bacterial synthesis

A

antibiotics/antimicrobial

141
Q

____drugs are directly lethal to bacteria at clinically acheivable concentrations. ____ drugs can slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death

A

bactericidal

bacterial-static

142
Q

which ____ spectrum of antibiotics promote the emergence of resistance

A

Broad

143
Q

A____is a new infection that emerges while being treated during the primary infection

A

superinfection

144
Q

the first rule of antimicrobial therapy is to match the bug with the ___

A

drug

145
Q

pregnant women are at risk if they use antibiotics, fetal risk of hearing loss to fetus, shouldnt use if breastfeeding either.
PCN is ok in 2nd and 3 rd trimester category b

A

.

146
Q

____weaken the cell wall, causing bacteria to take up excessive amounts of water and rupture.

A

PCN(so they are bacterialcidal)

147
Q

____ has a beta lactam ring and is known as beta lactam antibiotics

A

PCN

148
Q

Since mammilian cells lack a cell wall and since ____ act specifically on enzymes that affect cell wall integrity, the ___ HAVE VIRTUALLY NO DIRECT AFFECT ON CELLS OF THE HOST. SO ____ ARE ONE OF ARE SAFEST DRUGS

A

PCN
PCN
PCN

149
Q

___ are enzymes that cleave the beta lactam ring and there by render pcns antibiotics inactive

A

beta lactamases

and other beta lactam antibiotics (cephalosporins)

150
Q

beta lactamases that act selectively on PCN are known as ______

A

penicillinases

151
Q

Gram ____ bacteria are resistant to pcn’s that cannot penetrate the the cell envelope

A

negative

152
Q

____ are the safest antibiotics available

A

pcn

153
Q

PCN’s shouldnt be combined with_____ in the same IV solution

A

aminogylcosides

154
Q

____are beta lactam antibiotics

A

cephalosporins

155
Q

in ____ antibiotics the nucleus contains a beta lactam ring fused to a second ring

A

cephalosporins

156
Q

_____ are bacterialcidal drugs that bind to PBPs which damages cell wall and causes cell death similar to pcns

A

cephalosporins

157
Q

most __ generation cephalosporins are destroyed by beta lactamases

A

1st highly active against gram positive

158
Q

___generation cephalosporins are less sensitive to destruction

A

2nd

159
Q

____generation cephalosporins are highly resistant

A

3rd, 4th, 5th(5th active against msra)

160
Q

The organism that most ofter causes a UTI ?

A

E coli

161
Q

what drug is the treatment of choice for a UTI?

A

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

162
Q

____, a urinary tract antiseptic, is a drug of choice for uncomplicated cystitis

A

nitrofurantoin

163
Q

_____and _____ act by inhibing bacterial synthesis of folic acid

A

trimethoprim sulfonamides both broad spectrum

164
Q

____ and ____are used primarily for UTI

A

sulfamides and trimethoprim

165
Q

sulfamides most serious adverse effects are ___and ___

A

stevens-johnson syndrome and kernicterus(infants)***

166
Q

The principal adverse effects of trimethoprim are ___and _____

A

hyperkalemia and birth defects

167
Q

aminogycosides are _____spectrum antibiotics used primarily against aerobic gram ____bacilli

A

narrow

negative

168
Q

____are polar do not absorb in gi tract, can cause damage to vestibular and hearing injury. it happens when trough levels are elevated

A

aminoglycosides

169
Q

_____ disrupt protein synthesis and are bactericidal

pregnancy d category

A

aminogylcosides

170
Q

____are broad spectrum, bacteriostatic and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

A

tetracyclines

171
Q

____ 1st choice drug for chlamydia ,rickettsia, peptic ulcer disease, anthrax, lyme disease

A

tetracycline

172
Q

____ cannot be taken with milk, antacids etc, binds to ca

A

tetracycline

173
Q

adverse effect- satain teeth, cant give to pregnant women harm fetal teeth

A

tetracycline

174
Q

tetracycline can cause ____ infection

A

c. diff, candidas

175
Q

erythromycin is a a ___ antibiotic

A

macrolide

176
Q

____is a macrolide antibiotic, bacteriostatic, inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

A

erythromycin

177
Q

Clindamycin causes a high incident of _____

A

c.diff

178
Q

____ is a macrolide and should be reserved for severe infections , can cause c diff in pts

A

clindamycin***

179
Q

_____ a urinary tract antiseptic is a drug of choice in uncomplicated cystitis

A

nitrofurantoin

180
Q

The principal cause of drug resistance in ___ is inadequate drug therapy, which kills sensitive bacteria while allowing resistant mutants to flourish.

A

TB

181
Q

must treat with 2 to 4 drugs for at least 6 months to 2 years_____ and use DOT

A

TB

direct observation therapy

182
Q

3 methods to evaluate tb therapy

A

sputum. cxr, clinical eval

183
Q

1st line drugs 4 for tx of TB

A

isoniazid. rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

184
Q

____ act by inhibiting bacterial dna gyrase, can cause tendon rupture (BLACK BOX), pt should be instructed to stop medication at the first sign of tendon pain

A

fluoroquinolones

185
Q

fluoroquinolones can exacerbate muscle weakeness in pts with _____. also cause photosensitivity, don’t take with milk (ca products)

A

myasthenia gravis

186
Q

_____ drugs have 4 classes

polyene antibiotics, azoles, echincandins, pyrimidine analogs

A

antifungals

187
Q

amphotericin B, nystatin are a type of ______

A

antifungal, polyene antibiotic

188
Q

1st drug of choice is ____ for mycoses, highly toxic only used in severe, infections, has to be IV

A

amphotericin B

189
Q

____ are broad spectrum antifungals, have a lower toxicity can give po

A

azoles– itraconazole

190
Q

_____are the newest class of antifungal drugs they disrupt the cell wall

A

echinocandins- caspofundin

191
Q

pyrimidine analog - flucytosine is usually always combined with ____ because resistance is common. narrow spectrum used for candidias and cryptococcosis

A

amphotericin b

192
Q 
superficial mycoses  either candidias or dermatophytes
class used for this \_\_\_\_
A

azole such as fluconazole, ( oral _diflucan)//// clotrimazole( used for skin mouth and vaginal fungus), nystatin is used for gi tract infections-fungal

193
Q

____is the first drug of choice for infections caused by HSV or VZV

A

acyclovir

194
Q

__ inhibits viral replication by suppressing synthesis of viral dna( name of drug)

A

acyclovir- SAFE DURING PREGNNCY

195
Q

cmv is the cause of ____

drug to tx is ganciclovir in the immunosuppressed host or for prevention in the same. serious side effects

A

mono

196
Q

chronic hepatitis is usually caused by___ or___

A

B C

197
Q

____ is treated with interferon alfa, ribavirin, and protease inhibitors (boceprevir and telaprevir)

A

Hep C

198
Q

Ribavirin always is used in combination with ___ for tx of HCV

A

interferon alfa

199
Q

Prinicipal adverse effects of _____ are flu like syndrome and severe depression

A

interferon alfa

200
Q

___ cause FETAL *** death/malformation and hemolytic anemia when used in tx of HCV

A

ribavirin

201
Q

____ can be treated with interferon alfa and lamivudine( nucleoside analog)

A

Hep B

202
Q

flu shot can be given to people age ___ an older

A

6 months

203
Q

oseltamivir is used to treat ____

A

flu

204
Q

___ is a retrovirus that has RNA as its genetic material.

A

HIV

205
Q

Principal targets of HIV are ____

A

CD4 T cells

206
Q

____ has 3 phases, initial ( flue like symptoms), middle ( asymptomatic ( can last for 10 yrs), late ( t cells under 200cells/ml) AIDS rendering pt at risk to all kinds of opportunistic infections

A

HIV

207
Q

5 classes of meds for tx of ______
NRTI- zidovudine
NNRTI-efavirenz
PI- lopinavir
HIV fusion inhibitors Work outside cell to block entry
CCR5 antagonists “ “

A

HIV

ART stands for antiretroviral therapy

208
Q

principal labs in HIV evaluation ____

A

viral load and t cell count, plasma RNA

209
Q

______ is the most common STD

preferred tx _____

A

chlamydia

doxycycline and azithromycin

210
Q

2nd most common STD______________
caused by______
treated with_____

A

gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrhea
gram -
ceftriaxone…. combined with either doxycycline or azithromycin

211
Q

Syphyllis is treated with _____

A

penicillin G

212
Q

genital herpes is treated with _____

A

acyclovir, famiclovir, or valacyclovir

213
Q

____is effective as anvirucide but wont kill c diff

A

ethanol

214
Q

_____ is lethal to all bacteria/spores/ viruses/fingi

A

aldehydes

215
Q

what is the bacteria that most often cause sinusitis? 2

A

streptococcus pnemoniae

haemophilus influenza

216
Q

drug tx of choice for sinusitis?

A

amoxillin- clavulanate _(augmentin)

217
Q

which type/area is the most dangerous type of sinusitis? requiring iv therapy

A

sphenoidal—- too close to important structures

218
Q

What are the 3 most common organisms of otitis media?

dx made by

A

streptococcus pneumonia
haemophilis influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
presence of fluid behind tympanic membrane and inflammation of membrane too

219
Q

drug tx of otitis media____

A

amoxicillin to start… follow with amoxicillin with clavulanate or cefuroxime if no response in 72 hrs

220
Q

clinical manifestations of sinusitis 4

A

persistent symptoms lasting 10 days without improvement, fever, purulent nasal discharge, facial pain or sudden worsening of a viral infection that was getting better

221
Q

____ is an infection of the skin with some extension to subq tissues

A

cellulitis

222
Q

predisposing factors of cellulitis 5

A

dm, alcoholism, eczema, wounds, venous/lymphatic insufficiency

223
Q

___ caused by 2 bacteria usually_____ menustration lets bacteria thru cervical canal, most at hisk, young women, sexally active multiple partners, past hx of ___

A

PID
chlamydia/gonnohrrea
PID

224
Q

Most common bacteria that cause UTI ____

A

E. coli

225
Q

drug for cystitis____

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

226
Q

drug for uncomplicated pyelonephritis not vomiting oral med _____
with fever vomiting____

A

fluoroquinolones

ceftriaxone iv

227
Q

S/S of PCN allergic reaction?

A

rash, itching, swelling, SOB, anaphylaxsis

228
Q

____is a joint action between 2 structures or drugs

A

synergism

229
Q

____ is the cumulative action or effect

A

summation

230
Q

an _____ enzyme is one that catalyses ___ reaction

A

oxidative

oxidation

231
Q

____ antibiotics you dont use in common infections or pregnancy

A

tetracycline

232
Q

Betalactamase inhibitor, such as_____ are combined with pcn’s to increase activity against beta lactamase producing bacteria

A

clavulonic acid

others sublactum, tazobactum

233
Q

if pneumonia is suspected a ____ should always be preformed

A

cxr

234
Q 
key points on hx of pneumonia
cough
chest pain,
sputum
travels/animal exposure, occupational exposure
A

.

235
Q

rusty colored sputum is a sign of which organism in pneumonia

tx with what drug____

A

streptococcus pneumoniae-

outpatient- macrolide- azithromycin or clarithromycin
inpatient- ceftriaxone

236
Q

most common form of acquired community pneumonia is by what organism?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

237
Q

sinusitis drug of choice for tx?

A

amoxicillin and clavulanate

238
Q

for community acquired mrsa drug tx of choice?

A

trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazoles or doxycycline

239
Q

for hospitial acquired mrsa drug of choice?

A

vancomycin, daptomycin

240
Q

____ means that 2 different preparations of a product are suppose to be the same

A

bioequivalent

advanced pharm (3 decks)

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