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NCLEX > Blue Book > Flashcards

Blue Book Flashcards

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1
Q

in abruptio placenta the placenta ____ from the uterine wall _____

A

Separates

prematurely

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2
Q

Abruptio placenta usually occurs in (prima/multi) gravida over the age of ____

A

Multigravida
35
(HTN, Trauma, Cocaine)

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3
Q

How is the bleeding of abruptio placenta different from that in placenta previa

A

usually painful; bleeding is more voluminous in placenta previa

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4
Q

If you are the nurse starting an IV on the client with abruptia placenta, what gauge needle should you use?

A

18 in preparation to give blood if necessary

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5
Q

how often should you measure the VS, vaginal bleeding, fetal HR during abruptio placenta?

A

q5-15 minutes for bleeding, maternal VS and continous fetal monitoring

deliver baby at earliest sign of fetal distress

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6
Q

how is an infant delivered when abruptio placenta is present?

A

C - section

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7
Q

Is there a higher or lower incidence of fetal death with abruptio placenta compares to placenta previa

A

higher

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8
Q

in what trimester does abruptio placenta most commonly occur?

A

third

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9
Q

at what age are accidental poisoning most common?

A

2 years old

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10
Q

if a child swallows potentially poisonous substance, what should be done first?

A

call for medical help

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11
Q

should vomiting be induced after ingestion of gasoline?

A

no - not for gas or other petroleum products

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12
Q

when taking a child to the ER after accidental poisoning has occurred what must accompany the child to the ER?

A

The suspected poison

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13
Q

An elderly client is (high/low) risk for accidental poisoning? what about a school age child?

A

high due to poor eyesight for elderly

also high for children

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14
Q

what types of chemicals cause burns to oral mucosa when ingested?

A

lye

caustic cleaners

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15
Q

children at highest risk for seizure activity after ingestion are those who have swallowed ___ and ____

A

drugs

insecticides

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16
Q

can impaired skin integrity ever be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when poisoning has occurred?

A

yes when lye or caustic agents have been ingested

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17
Q

what is the causative organism of acne?

A

P. acnes (propionibacterium acnes)

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18
Q

what structures are involved in acne vulgaris

A

the sebaceous glands

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19
Q

name 3 drugs for acne

A

Vitamin A
antibiotics
retinoids

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20
Q

Dietary and indiscretions and uncleanliness are causes of acne (true or false)

A

False

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21
Q

what are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris

A

Hereditary
bacterial
hormonal

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22
Q

What is the most common retinoid given to people with acne

A

Accutane

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23
Q

Accutane is an analog of which vitamin

A

Vit A

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24
Q

What is the most common side effect of accutane? and what is most important in health teaching in administration?

A

inflammation of the lips

causes birth defects

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25
Q

what is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne

A

tetracycline

26
Q

How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is being treated

A

4-6 weeks

27
Q

does stress make acne worse

A

yes

28
Q

how often should the client with acne wash their face each day

A

twice

29
Q

what instructions do you give to a client taking tetracycline

A

take on an empty stomach and avoid the sunlight (causes photosensitivity)

30
Q

What are comedones?

A

blackheads and white heads

31
Q

What virus causes AIDS

A

HIV

32
Q

The AIDS virus invades helper ____

A

T- lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)

33
Q

Aids is transmissible through what 4 routes?

A

Blood
sexual contact
breast feeding
across placenta in utero

34
Q

HIV is present in all body fluids (true or false)

A

True, but it is not transmitted by all, only blood, semen and breast milk

35
Q

Name 5 risk groups for AIDS

A 
homosexual/ bisexual men
IV drug users
hemophillacs
heterosexual partners of infected people
newborn children of infected women
36
Q

what is the first test for HIV antibodies

A

ELISA

37
Q

What test confirms ELISA

A

Western Blot

38
Q

Which test is the best indicator of the progress of HIV

A

CD4 count

39
Q

A CD4 count of under ____ is associated with the onset of AIDS related symptoms

A

500

40
Q

A CD4 count of under ____ is associated with the onset of opportunistic infections

A

200

41
Q

List the common symptoms of HIV

A 
anorexia
fatigue
weakness
diarrhea
night sweats
fever
42
Q

Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero-positivity

A

NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors) and PI (protease inhibitors)

these prevent viral replication

43
Q

NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

A

An antiviral drug used against HIV

it is incorporated into the DNA of the virus and stops the building process
Results in incomplete DNA that cannot create a new virus
often used in combination with other drugs

44
Q

PIs (Protease inhibitors)

A

most potent of antiviral meds
inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral replication
does not cure but slows progression of AIDS
prolongs life, used prophylactically and used in AIDS to decrease viral load and opportunistic infections

45
Q

What do NRTIs and PIs do

A

prevent viral replication

46
Q

What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTIs and PIs for HIV

A

A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15 years)

47
Q

What is the most common NRTI used?

A

AZT

48
Q

what is the most challenging aspect of combination of drug therapy for HIV disease

A

the number of pills that must be taken in 24 hours can be overwhelming. the frequency also makes it hard to remember an alarm wristwatch is used

49
Q

Patients with AIDS gain or lose weight?

A

lose weight

50
Q

The typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused by ____

A

pneumocystic carinli

51
Q

What type of oral/ esophageal infections do AIDS patients get

A

Candida

52
Q

What is the #1 cancer that AIDS patients get

A

Kaposi sarcoma

53
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is a cancer of the ____

A

skin

54
Q

T/F: Aids patients get lymphomas

A

True

55
Q

What lab findings are present in AIDS

A

decreased RBCs, WBC, platelets

56
Q

If the AIDS patient has leukopenia they will be on _____

A

reverse (protective) isolation

57
Q

Define leukopenia

A

decrease in WBC, indicates a viral infection

58
Q

Without leukopenia the AIDS patient will be on ____ precautions

A

standard precautions or blood and body fluid precautions

59
Q

When the AIDS pt has a low platelet count, what is indicated?

A

bleeding precautions; no IMs, no rectal temps, other bleeding precautions

60
Q

Does AIDS require a private room?

A

yes if WBC counts are low

NCLEX (1 decks)

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