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Blood Bank > Blood Products > Flashcards

Blood Products Flashcards

1
Q 
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
A. 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
B. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
C. 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
D. 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)
A

B- All donors, regardless of sex, require a minimum hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL.

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2
Q

A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
A. diabetes
B. residence in an endemic malaria region
C. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
D. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine

A

C- history of jaundice of uncertain cause.
Jaundice is a sign of liver impairment, which might be due to HBV or HCV. Infection with HBV or HCV is a cause for indefinite deferral.

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3
Q

Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
A. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously
B. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial meds 9 months previously
C. 22-year-old college student who has a temp of 99.2 *F and states that he feels well but nervous about donating
D. 45-year-old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics.

A

C- college student w/ temp of 99.2.
The requirement for temp is not over 99.5F (37.5C).
Recipient of blood product- 6 month deferral.
Travel to areas endemic for malaria- 12 month deferral regardless of antimalarial prophylaxis.
Person taking antibiotics may have bacteremia.

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4
Q

Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
A. a tattoo 5 months previously
B. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

A

D- a positive test for HBsAg at any time is an indefinite deferral.

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5
Q

According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be acceptable as a blood donor?
A. traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
B. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
C. resides with a known hepatitis patient
D. received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

A

B- a woman who had a spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously would be acceptable. A donor is acceptable if she has not been pregnant in the previous 6 weeks.

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6
Q

Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor.
age: 16
temp: 99.0 F (37.2C)
Hct: 36%
History: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously
How many of the results exclude this donor for a routine transfusion?
A. none B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

A

B- 1.
The Hct must be >38%.
A donor may be 16 unless state law differs. Temp must not exceed 99.5F/37.5C, blood pressure must be <180 mmHg systolic and <100 mmHg diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete (which can be lower). Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed sources have no deferral.

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7
Q 
For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:
A. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L)
B. 200 x 10^3/uL (200 x 10^9/L)
C. 250 x 10^3/uL (250 x 10^9/L)
D. 300 x 10^3/uL (300 x 10^9/L)
A

A- 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L).
A platelet count is not required prior to the first donation or if the interval between the donation is at least 4 weeks.

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8
Q 
Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:
A. hypochlorite
B. isopropyl alcohol
C. 10% acetone
D. PVP iodine complex
A

D- PVP iodine complex.
The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% isopropyl alcohol.

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9
Q 
All donor blood testing must include:
A. complete Rh phenotyping
B. anti-CMV testing
C. direct antiglobulin test
D. serological test for syphilis
A

D- serological test for syphilis.
Testing for syphilis was the first mandated donor screening test for infectious disease and is still part of donor screening.

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10
Q 
During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be:
A. cooled towards 6*C
B. cooled towards 20-24*C
C. warmed to 37*C
D. heated to 57*C
A

B- cooled towards 20-24*C.

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11
Q 
The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:
A. anti-HCV
B. HBsAg
C. anti-HAV IgM
D. anti-HBe
A

B- HBsAg.
The most common posttransfusion hepatitis is hepatitis B. The estimated risk of transmission is 1:220,000 units transfused. The risk of hepatitis C transmission is 1:1,800,000 units. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a required donor test for detection of acute or chronic HBV infection.

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12
Q 
The Western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
A. CMV antibody
B. anti-HIV-1
C. HBsAg
D. serum protein abnormalities
A

B- anti-HIV-1.

Western blot uses purified HIV proteins to confirm reactivity in samples whose screening test for anti-HIV is positive.

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13
Q 
The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:
A. anti-HBc
B. anti-HIV 1,2
C. HBsAg
D. ALT
A

B- The causative agent for AIDS is the human immunodeficiency virus types 1 and 2.

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14
Q

A commonly used screening test method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
A. latex agglutination
B. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
C. thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
D. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A

D-ELISA.

The ELISA method is a very sensitive method employed to screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted viruses.

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15
Q

Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:
A. remove antibody attached to RBCs
B. inactivate viruses and bacteria
C. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
D. filter blood clots and other debris

A

C- Rejuvenation of RBCs uses additives to restore or enhance 2,3-DPG and ATP levels.

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16
Q 
A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
A. 4 PM on the same day
B. 8 PM on the same day
C. 8 AM on the next morning
D. the original date of the unsplit unit
A

D- the original date of the unsplit unit.

Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

17
Q 
A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 5 days
D. 35 days
A

D- 35 days.

Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

18
Q 
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
A. once a day
B. twice a day
C. every 4 hours
D. every hour
A

C- If storage devices do not have automated temperature recording, temp must be manually monitored every 4 hours.

19
Q 
Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?
A. Cryoprecipitate AHF, 4*C
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20*C
C. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40*C
D. Platelets, 37*C
A

B- Fresh Frozen Plasma is stored at -18*C or below for 12 months.

20
Q

A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9 AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during the time span. The best course of action is to:
A. culture the unit for bacterial contamination
B. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
C. store the unit at room temperature
D. record the return and place the unit back into inventory.

A

D- Blood may be returned to the blood bank after issue provided that:
1. the container has not been entered
2. at least 1 sealed segment is attached to the container
3. visual inspection is satisfactory and documented
4. the unit has been maintained at the appropriate storage or transport temp.
Studies have shown that refrigerated components retain acceptable temp of <10*C for up to 30 minutes after removal from the refrigerator.

21
Q 
The optimum storage temp for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
A. -80*C
B. -20*C
C. -12*C
D. 4*C
A

A- Red Blood Cells, Frozen with 40% glycerol are stored at -65*C or lower.

22
Q 
The optimum storage temp for Red Blood Cells is:
A. -80*C
B. -20*C
C. -12*C
D. 4*C
A

D- Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6*C.

23
Q 
If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1*C to 6*C, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?
A. 6
B. 24
C. 48
D. 72
A

B- 24 hrs.
If the seal is broken during processing, components are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather than a closed system. The expiration time for RBCs in an open system is 24 hrs.

24
Q 
The optimum storage temp for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
A. -20*C
B. -12*C
C. 4*C
D. 22*C
A

A- -20*C.

Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at -18*C or lower.

25
Q 
Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
A

A- Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours of pooling.

26
Q 
Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24*C in 50mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 3 days
D. 5 days
A

D- 5 days.
Whole blood-derived platelets are stored at 20-24*C with continuous gentle agitation. Platelets prepared by the PRP method may be stored for up to 5 days.

27
Q 
The optimal storage temp for platelets is:
A. -20*C
B. -12*C
C. 4*C
D. 22*C
A

D- 22*C.

The required temp for platelet storage is 20-24*C.

28
Q 
Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18*C or below, has a shelf life of : 
A. 42 days
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 36 months
A

C- 12 months.

Cryoprecipitate has a shelf life of 12 months in the frozen state.

29
Q 
According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
A. 24 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
A

A- 24 hours.

Per AABB standards, thawed FFP should be stored at 1-6*C for no more than 24 hours.

30
Q 
Once thawed, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be transfused within:
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
A

D- Once thawed, FFP is stored at 1-6*C for up to 24 hours.

31
Q 
An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:
A. plasma potassium concentration
B. plasma pH
C. prothrombin time
D. activated partial thromboplastin time
A

B- plasma pH.

The pH of platelets should be maintained at 6.2 or above throughout the storage period.

32
Q 
In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
A. 1-6*C
B. 22*C
C. 37*C
D. 56*C
A

A- The required temp for storage of thawed plasma is 1-6*C.

33
Q 
During storage, the concentration of 2,3-DPG decreases in a unit of: 
A. Platelets
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
C. Red Blood Cells
D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
A

C- Red Blood Cells.
2,3-DPG declines during storage of RBCs, causing a “shift to the left” in the oxygen dissociation curve and an impaired ability to deliver oxygen to the tissues.

34
Q

Cryoprecipitated AHF:
A. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
B. should be stored at 4*C prior to administration
C. will not transmit hepatitis B virus
D. is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B

A

A.
Cryoprecipitate is used primarily for fibrinogen replacement. It is stored at room temp (20-24*C) after thawing and must be infused within 6 hours. If pooled with other cryo units, it must be infused within 4 hours.

Blood Bank (1 decks)

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