Blood Pressure & Hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

How does blood pressure change across the vascular tree (general terms) - Aorta to Vena Cava?

A

PP = Pulse pressure

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2
Q

What are the main short, medium and long term mechanisms that control blood pressure?

A

Short term - Neural reflexes - baro- and chemo-receptors
Medium term - Renin-angiotensin and capillary changes
Longer term - fluid retention blood pressure control – controlled by kidneys

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3
Q

What is the definition of hypertension? Why is it important?

A

Blood Pressure (BP) that is too high.

Blood pressure includes systolic (SBP) and diastolic (DBP) quoted as SBP/DBP and measured in mmHg e.g. 140/90

Why is it important?
- Link between high blood pressure and adverse cardiovascular outcomes - cerebrovascular disease, CHD, etc.
- Link with other health conditions - e.g. diabetes, Alzheimer’s, etc.

Note - that blood pressure fluctuates throughout the day - sleep (lower), recumbent (lower), white coat effect (higher), etc.

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4
Q

How should someone go about taking their blood pressure?

A
  1. Relax 5min
  2. Take at least three blood pressure readings over a few mins (first time measuring - use both arms)
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5
Q

What are the main arterial diseases of interest?

A
  1. Coronary heart disease (CHD) & Myocardial infarctions - also angina, sudden cardiac death, heart failure
  2. Cerebrovascular diseases & cerebrovascular accident - stroke, transient ischaemic attacks, multi-infarct dementia
  3. Also other arterial disease
    - Peripheral vascular disease
    - Renal impairment, renal artery stenosis
    - Abdominal aortic aneurysms
    - Retinopathy, papilloedema
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6
Q

What are the risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

Note - these risk factors are used in online risk calculators (QRisk3) in order to predict the likelihood of a cardiovascular event

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7
Q

How can we define hypertension? What do the NICE guidelines say?

A

BP level above which investigation and treatment do more good than harm

NICE (2019) Diagnosis of Hypertension requires: BOTH
1. Conventional (Clinic) BP ≥ 140/90
AND
2. ABPM/Home BP ≥ 135/85

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8
Q

What are the different gradings for hypertension?

A

Grade 1 - more than 140/90 - less than 160/100
Grade 2 - more than 160/100 - less than 180/120
Grade 3 (severe) - more than 180/120

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9
Q

What is white coat hypertension?

A

White coat effect - People’s blood pressure being higher in clinic by more than 20/10 when compared to the home BP measurments

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10
Q

What organs are typically damaged by hypertension?

A

Signs of hypertensive tissue damage:
1. Kidneys - Kidney disease
2. Heart - hypertrophy + blood vessel damage/lesions
3. Retina - hypertensive retinopathy

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11
Q

Who receives treatment for hypertension?

A
  1. Target people with Highest Sustained BP
    - Grade II HT +/or Target organ damage
    - Basically below grade II - treatment only if really needed - nuance
  2. People with a high absolute risk, e.g.
    a) Already with CVD – previous MI, CVA, with angina
    b) With diabetes, chronic kidney disease (CKD)
    c) With 10-yr CVD risk >10% (age, lipids, smoking, etc.)

Best to prioritise treatment to high risk groups – as here is where most lives saved

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12
Q

What is the treatment pathway for hypertension? What are the exceptions to blood pressure targets?

A
  1. Everyone with hypertension
    a) Lifestyle advise - ideal weight range, limit salt intake, regular exercise etc.
    b) BP kept under review (may be just x1-2/year if mild)
    c) May require drug treatment if the patient remains hypertensive
    d) Aim to reduce blood pressure below 140/90 - no longer hypertensive
  2. High-risk groups quickly start anti-hypertensive drug treatment aiming for target BP no longer hypertensive
    - Grade 2-3 hypertension
    - Grade 1 hypertension+Risk - CVD, organ damage, vulnerbale (diabetes, kidney disease), high CVD risk

Note - Blood pressure exception targets
- Target less than 130/80 – Chronic kidney disease+ diabetes +/or alb/creat >70:Group (iv)[above]
- Target less than 150/90 - if lowering may pose a higher risk - above the age of 80
- Relax BP goals – if frailty/multimorbidity making higher risk to BP lowering - e.g. falls

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13
Q

What types of investigations are used to diagnose/investigate hypertension?

A
  1. History & examination
    Past BP levels
    CVD and CVD risk factors
  2. Blood pressure – GP/clinic/hospital
    AND  home or ambulatory
  3. Blood tests: urea, electrolyte, eGFR, lipids, HbA1c/glucose, liver function test with GGT, urate
  4. Urinalysis – protein, glucose, blood..
  5. ECG - when available
  6. Target organ damage: if BP particularly high (eg new grade II HT)
    review urinalysis (+eGFR), ECG, fundoscopy, symptoms
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14
Q

What are examples of common anti-hypertensive drugs?

A

Class A, B, C and D drugs

ACE inhibitors - enalapril, lisinopril, ramipril
ANG-II receptor blockers - losartan, candesartan

Calcium channel blockers - nifedipine, amlodipine [+ rate limiting: verapamil, diltiazem]

Diuretics - bendroflumethiazide, [chlortalidone/indapamide]

Beta-blockers - atenolol, metoprolol, bisoprolol

Used in resistant hypertension

  • Mineralocorticoid-Blockers - spironolactone, eplerenone
  • Alpha-Blockers - doxazosin
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15
Q

What does the treatment timeline for hypertension look like?

A
  1. BP diagnosis
  2. Lifestyle management
  3. Begin anti-HT treatment
  4. Adjsut anti-HT treatment if needed
  5. Resistant HT - Poor BP despite 3 Drug
    treatments (stacking) - specialist referral, futher treatment?, secondary causes?
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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects of ACE inhibitors and AngII receptor blockers? What are the contra-indications/cautions?

A

ACE inhibitors - inhibit ACE, block RAAS, increase bradykinin - dilate arteries (and veins),

AngII receptor blockers- similar (no BK effect)

Side effects
- ACE inhibitors - cough, rise in/high K+, renal dysfunction
- Angiotensin receptor blockers – few, rise in/high K+, renal dysfunction

Cautions
- Pregnancy

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects of calcium channel blockers? What are the contra-indications/cautions?

A

Calcium channel blockers - typically used in older patients

Block voltage-operated calcium channels, dilate arteries (± heart rate reduction)

Side effects:
Headaches, flushing, ankle swelling and tachycardia

Contra-indications
- Heart block
- Heart failure

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects for thiazides (diuretics)? What are the contra-indications/cautions?

A

Thiazides - typically used in older patients

Inhibit Na+-Cl- symport, distal tubular natriuresis, dilate arteries and veins

Side effects of diuretic use:
Impotence, rashes, biochemical – low Na+, low K+, raised glucose (risk of diabetes), high urate (risk of gout)

Contradincations:
1. Gout
2. Low K+

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects for beta-blockers? What are the contra-indications/cautions?

A

MOA - Block beta-adrenoceptors, reduce cardiac rate and output, block RAAS, initial vasoconstriction (ultimately vasodilate)

Side effects:
Wheeze [caution with asthma/COPD], cold peripheries, lassitude, exercise intolerance, impotence, bradycardia, heart block, raised glucose

Contradindications
1. Heart block
2. Asthma/COPD

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects for mineralocorticoid blockers? What are the contra-indications/cautions?

A

Mineralocorticoid blockers (diuretic blocking aldosterone action) – block mineralocorticoid receptors, distal nephron natriuresis/limit potassium loss

Mineralocorticoid blockers - rise in/high K+, gynaecomastia (just spironolactone)

Contraindications
1. High K+
2. Low mineralocorticoid (aldosterone)

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects for alpha-blockers? What are the contraindications/cautions?

A

Alpha-blockers – block alpha1-adrenoceptors, dilate arteries and veins.

Side effects:
Dizziness (especially on standing), urinary symptoms, tachycardia, oedema [caution with heart failure]

Contraindications
1. Impaired urine continence
2. Postural hypotension
3. Heart failure

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22
Q

What are the main reasons for hypertension treatment failure?

A
  1. Poor adherence (extremely common)
  2. Ineffective combinations (common)
  3. Other drugs (e.g. NSAIDs; common)
  4. Inappropriately low doses (common)
  5. Secondary causes (uncommon: less than 5%)
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23
Q

What are the two main groups of hypertension (based on cause)?

A
  1. Primary hypertension - 95% - no known cause
  2. Secondary hypertension - 5% - cause can be identified

Note - One of the suspect reason for primary hypertension – long term malfunction of corrective measures - kidney failure to control blood volume

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24
Q

What are the environmental and genetic factors that predipose someone to hypertension?

A

Underlying problem (thought) - Impairment in the kidney regulation of body salt balance in all Hypertension

Environmental
1. Body weight – obesity
2. Physical inactivity
3. Excess calorie intake
4. Salt – high salt/sodium, low potassium low, magnesium
5. Excess Alcohol Stress

Genes (30-50% contribution)
- Recently, large GWAS study found >1000 genetic loci of modest/small effect together just explaining ~5.7% genetic variance in blood pressure.

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25
Q

What are some endocrine, medical and renal/vascular causes of hypertension?

A

Endocrine - primary Aldosteronism, phaeochromocytoma /paraganglioma (nerve cells regulating blood pressure)

Medical - Oestrogen oral contraceptives, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and Alcohol

Renal/vascular - Renal artery stenosis (atheroma/fibromuscular) and Glomerulonephritis/pyelonephritis/vasculitis (inflammation of the kidney)

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26
Q

What forces dictate the movement of fluid in capillaries/capillary fluid equilibrium?

A

Blood pressure gradients

a) Oncotic pressure - moves fluid into capillaries
b) Hydrostatic pressure - moves fluid out into the tissue

Balance of these forces dictate whether fluid moves in/out of the capillaries

Arterial end - fluid moves out of the capillaries
Venous end - fluid moves back into the capillaries

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27
Q

What two main variables does the cradiovascular system need to control? What challenges does the system need to adapt to?

A

Blood pressure - must be maintained to provide perfusion of all the body organs
Blood volume- must be maintained to provide the venous return necessary for adequate cardiac output and blood pressure generation

Challenges
1. Fluid deprivation
2. Fluid overload
3. Fluid depletion
4. Meals
5. Exercise
6. Temperature changes
7. Postural changes
8. Zero gravity/acceleration

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28
Q

What mechanisms exist to regulate blood pressure? (sensors, effectors, effector organs and response time)

A

Sensing - arterial baroreceptors

Effectors
NS - Symapthetic & parasympathetic
Hormones - RAAS, adrenaline and vasopressin
Local factors - NO, endothelin, kinins, prostaglandins, renin-angiotensin

Effector organs
1. heart
2. arterioles

Response time - seconds/minutes

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29
Q

What mechanisms exist to regulate blood volume? (sensors, effectors, effector organs and response time)

A
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30
Q

How can you calculate arterial blood pressure using cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance?

A

ARTERIAL BLOOD PRESSURE (ABP) measured in mmHg - typical brachial ABP in a young adult ~ 120/80 mmHg

ABP = CO x SVR

CARDIAC OUTPUT (CO) - output from ventricle in 1 minute
CO = stroke volume (~70 mL) x heart rate (60-80/min)
cardiac output ~ 5 L/min

SYSTEMIC VASCULAR RESISTANCE (SVR) - majority of vascular resistance is provided by arterioles - note significantly effected by blood vessel radius

Conclusion: arterial blood pressure will be dependent on heart rate, cardiac contractility and arteriolar tone

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31
Q

What factors increase and decrease heart rate? What factors increase cardiac contractility?

A
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32
Q

What neural, circulating, and local factors influence blood vessel tone?

A

More research

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33
Q

What is the Baroreceptor reflex?

A

Baroreceptor reflex - defense of blood pressure and cerebral blood flow

Blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors – carotid arteries and in aortic arch – stretch allows the body to gain information of the blood pressure state

Signal send to vasomotor centre of the brain

If blood pressure drops…
1. Sympathetic NS activation (Alpha 1 and beta 1) - effects on the heart, blood vessels, adrenals and kidney
- Note both the arteriolar and venous system constrict upon sympathetic NS activaion, to ensure that blood doesn’t pool in one system
2. Parasympathetic NS activation - heart - bradycardia (muscarinic receptr)

Note - as we age we tend to lose our baroreflex

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34
Q

What are the three major compartments that store fluid in the body? What is the major determinant of blood volume?

A

70kg man:
Blood (intravascular) volume - 4 L
Extracellular (interstitial) fluid - 12 L
Intracellular fluid - 32 L

Blood volume is dependent on the overall hydration of the body which is regulated by the kidney (level of reabsorption/excretion)

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35
Q

Why is blood volume important to regulate? How is it regulated?

A

Blood volume is required to maintain venous return to the heart to enable it to produce an adequate cardiac output

Sensors
1. Kidneys - juxtaglomerular cells sense low Na+ delivery and urine flow
2. Heart - low pressure stretch receptors in atria

Efferent signals
1. Renin-angiotensin system
2. Sympathetic nerves
3. Other mechanisms

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36
Q

Outline how the renin-angiotensin system works to regulate blood volume.

A
  1. Blood volume sensed by juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney
  2. Release renin
  3. Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
  4. Angiotensin converting enzymes converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
  5. Angiotensin II - wide range of impacts
    a) Increases efferent arteriolar constriction - increasing GF
    b) Arteriole vasoconstriction - increasing blood pressure
    c) Stimulate posterior pituatary - thirst and vasopressin (increase H20 reabsoprtion)
    d) Aldosterone release - increase Na+ reasborption - increase H20 absorption
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37
Q

What are the immediate consequences/responses to acute haemorrhage?

A
  1. Decrease in intravascular volume
  2. Decreased return to heart
  3. Decreased ventricular filling
  4. Cardiac output decreases
  5. Blood pressure decreases
  6. Renal perfusion decreases
  7. Decrease capillary hydrostatic pressure
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38
Q

What are the sensors that would be activated in response to acute haemorrhage?

A

Blood volume and blood pressure receptors

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39
Q

What are the sympathetic responses that arise in response to acute haemorrhage?

A
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40
Q

What symptoms do we see when someone goes into hypovolaemic shock?

A

Treatment - Intravenous fluid infusion and blood transfusion

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41
Q

What are the risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A
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42
Q

What damaging cycle do we see in chronic heart failure?

A

Basically the systems that normally correct for decrease blood pressure/volume are activated during heart failure leading to extra stress that can overwhelm the heart

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43
Q

What are the key problems identified in cardiovascular disease? What are drugs that can be used to counteract these issues?

A
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44
Q

What are the different systems/variables that can be manipulated in order to changes stroke volume and heart rates, thus influencing arterial blood pressure?

A
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45
Q

What are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A
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46
Q

What are angiotensin receptor antagonists
inhibitors? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A

Work further down on the angiotensin system – blocking at the receptor level – actions and indications are similar

Usually used for people on ACE inhibitors that develop and dry cough

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47
Q

What are calcium channel blockers? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A
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48
Q

What are thiazide diuretics? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A

Reducing the reabsorption of sodium and chloride

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49
Q

What are potassium sparing diuretics? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A

Aldosterone receptor antagonists - decrease in Na+/K+ exchanger - less re-absorption

Sodium channel blockers - block sodium channels in luminal membrane

50
Q

What are beta-blockers? How do they work? What are their indications and contra-indications?

A

Decreased activation of B1 - inhibits cAMP formation and PKA activation - leading to a variety of downstream effects - decreased contractility of muscle cell, decreased calcium availability, etc.

  1. Vasodilation
  2. Decrease ventricular response rate
  3. Decrease excitability of the conduction system
  4. Decreased ventricular contractility
51
Q

What are the two main types of lipids that we are interested in when looking at CVD?

A
52
Q

How are lipids, like cholesterol and triglycerides transported in the blood?

A

Cholesterol and triglycerides transported in lipoprotein

53
Q

What are the different types of lipoproteins?

A

Lipoproteins - Transport cholesterol & triglycerides around the body via the circulation

Main types:
1. Chylomicrons
2. Very Low Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)
3. Intermediate Density Lipoprotein (IDL)
4. Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
5. High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

Classification by size and density - decreasing size and increasing density

54
Q

Outline the creation/transport of lipoproteins in the body.

A

Sources - Lipids absorbed from the gut (exogenous lipid pathway) or created in the liver (endogenous lipid pathway)

Lipids are transported across the body to different tissues

Lipids can also be returned to the liver - reverse cholesterol transport - where they can be excreted

55
Q

Outline what happens in the exogenous lipid pathway.

A

Dietary lipids – taken up in the small intestine – packaged in a chylomicron

Chylomircons are transported to the liver but on their way there they are broken down by Lipoprotein lipase (releasing glycerol and non-essential fatty acids), which are absorbed by targets (muscle and adipose)

Chylomircon remanent - left behind - absorbed by the liver

56
Q

Outline what happens in the endogenous lipid pathway.

A

No dietary source of lipids – can be obtained from the liver

  1. Liver produces VLDL (very triglyceride rich – low cholesterol)
  2. Progressively broken down by LPL into glycerol and NEFA - taken up by tissues (muscle and adipose)
  3. Also forms Intermediate density lipoproteins - can be taken up by the liver and converted into LDL by the liver (transports cholesterol around the body)
  4. LDL has Apoe-B on it’s surface allowing it to interact with LDL receptors, which is needed for transport of LDL into tissues
57
Q

Outline what happens during reverse cholesterol transport (via HDL).

A

Reverse cholesterol transport system

  1. HDL created both in the liver and gut – collects cholesterol
  2. Free cholesterol is transported out via ABC-A1 transported and taken up by HDL using LCAT
  3. HDL normally taken up by liver or sometimes taken up by VLDL
58
Q

What are the different types of chylomircorns? What are their defining features? What type of receptors to they have on their surface?

A

Chylomicrons - ApoB48

VLDL, IDL and LDL - ApoB100

HDL - ApoA1

Lipoprotein behaviour determine by proteins on their surface

59
Q

Summary of lipid metabolism - Triglycerides and cholesterol.

A
60
Q

What are the associations between LDL and HDL with CVD?

A

LDL-Cholesterol is associated with increase rates of CV disease

HDL-cholesterol is associated with decreased rates of CV disease

Supported by the impact of statins (LDL lowering drugs) on reducing CV risk

61
Q

What is the link between LDL and CV disease?

A

Excessive LDL (not cleared by the liver) and damage to arterial walls (mechanical or chemical) leads to the accumulation of LDL in arterial walls - leading to the formation of fatty streaks

Note - that any of the ApoB carrying lipoproteins (chylomicron remnants, VLDL, IDL, LDL can be taken up by arterial walls)

LDLs are relatively long-lived (~9x lifetime of a VLDL)

62
Q

Outline the steps that result in lipid driven CV disease/atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Formation of fatty streaks: LDL + monocytes + O-free radicals - accumulation of lipids in the arterial wall - reacts with oxygen free-radiacals - consumed by macrophages to form foam cells - collection of foam cells = fatty streak - Inflammatory process
  2. Atheromatous plaque formation - smooth muscles cells stimulated by macrophages to migrate, proliferate, differentiate (fibroblasts) - producing collagen cap - Foam cells undergo necrosis or apoptosis to leave a pool of extracellular cholesterol - pool of cholesterol = atheroma
  3. Plaque rupture
    - Occludes blood flow – plaque remains stable – stable angina
    - Unstable/clot formation/thrombosis – full blockage - unstable angina/MI
63
Q

What monogenic genetic condition prediposes someone to lipid-driven CV disease?

A

Inherited disorders of lipoprotein metabolism
e.g. Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH)

  • Autosomal dominant - monogenic
  • Mutation in LDL receptor (or ApoB, PCSK9)
  • Common ~1:500 to 1:200 (heterozygotes)
  • High LDL-C levels (typically >4.9 mmol/L)
  • Untreated leads to premature CHD onset
  • Statin treatment shown to reduce CVD risk to that of general population

Be suspicious if…
- Family history of hyperlipidaemia / prem CVD
- Unusually high LDL-C despite v. healthy lifestyle
- History of hyperlipidaemia from young age

Cholesterol in FH can deposit in other areas of the body – builds up at tendons and in eyes

64
Q

What are the normal lipids measures in a routine lab?

A

Routine laboratory measurements of lipids:
- Total cholesterol
- HDL cholesterol (HDL-C)
- Triglycerides

LDL cholesterol (LDL-C) is calculated, not measured: Friedewald equation

Specialist labs – more specific measures are also possible

65
Q

What emergency treatments are used for an acute myocardial infarction?

A

Myocardial infarction: acute treatment

Re-perfusion – opening up with a balloon like device (Percutaneous coronary intervention - PCI) and then introducing a stent to maintain the artery open longer term

66
Q

What is the the difference between primary and secondary CV prevention?

A
67
Q

What is the main form of primary prevention? If someone needs extra treatment, how do we decide?

A

Mainstay of primary prevention is lifestyle change

Consensus: treat those at highest absolute risk - based on high risk (Diabetes over 40, Fam. hyperchol., Chronic kidney disease) or risk of CV event over 10 years - Use a risk calculator e.g. ASSIGN, QRISK etc.

UK national guidelines say:
Scotland - SIGN 149 (2017) - treat if >20% CV risk
England - NICE CG181 (2014) treat if >10% CV risk

Easy to predict for extreme risk-factors e.g. very high LDL-C in Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, or in severe hypertension…

However, usually… CV risk = product of several risk-factors

68
Q

What is the treatment of choice for lipid-driven CV disease?

A

Lifestyle advise + statins!

69
Q

What are the effects of the lipid lowering drugs - statins, ezetimibe and fibrates?

A
70
Q

What are the MOAs for the following lipid lowering drugs - statins, ezetimibe and fibrates?

A

Statins - block cholesterol synthesis in the liver, resulting in increase uptake form the circulation to compensate (upregulate LDL receptors)

Fibrates - increased LPL activity and hepatic fatty acid oxidation - reducing triglycerides & enhanced IDL, LDL uptake by liver as well as reduce VLDL synthesis

71
Q

What is an example of an next generation lipid lowering drug?

A

PCSK9-inhibitors
- Monoclonal antibodies, delivered by fortnightly s/c injection
- Alirocumab, Evolocumab
- Capable of ~60% reduction of LDL-C (as adjunct to statin)
- Increase LDL receptor levels in hepatocytes by suppresing activity of PCSK9 (drives degradation of receptor) - increasing uptake
- PCSK9 have also been targetted by SI-RNA - 6 monthly injection

72
Q

How do the sites of haematopoiesis change as we age?

A

Fetus
- Yolk sac - blood isalnds
- Taken over by AGM
- AGM turns into fetal liver - haematopoetic centre

Infant
- Cells move into the bone marrow - cells produced in all bone marrow

Adult
- Haematopoiesis focuses on adult centralized skeleton

73
Q

How many cells are produced by haematopoeitic stem cells (HSC) in the bone each day?

A

~ 1 billion cells produced each day in healthy adult

74
Q

What are the two main lineages produced by the HSC?

A

Two main lineages
1. Common myleiod progenitor - RBCs and cells of the innate immune system
2. Common lymphoid progenitor - NK cells and cells of the adaptive immune system

75
Q

What are the extrinsic and intrinsic signalling factors that control adult haematopoiesis?

A

Extrinsic signalling
a) Growth Factors - influnece…
- Cell survival/ proliferation
- Differentiation
- Maturation
- Activation
b) Adhesion molecules - Interact with extracellular matrix

Intrinsic signalling - Transcription factors

76
Q

What are examples of growth factors that influnece erythropoiesis, myelopoiesis and thrombopoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis
Regulated by renal erythropoietin which is stimulated by tissue oxygen

Myelopoiesis
G-CSF – granulocytes
M-CSF – macrophages
IL-5 – eosinophils

Thrombopoiesis
Thrombopoietin from liver
Feedback mechanism controls platelet count

77
Q

What are the main different blood cells circulating?

A

White cells are in order of abundance in the blood – Neutrophils to Basophils

78
Q

How are the blood cell count references ranges decided?

A

95% range (ref interval) = mean +/- 2sd

Reference ranges for each parameter shown in the attached image – differ by age

79
Q

When looking at blood counts, what can go wrong in general terms?

A

Too much ( - cytosis) - too many
* Erythrocytosis (or ‘polycythaemia’)
* Leucocytosis - level of white blood cells
* Thrombocytosis (or ‘thrombocythaemia)

Too little (- cytopenia)
* Anaemia (red)
* Leucopenia (white)
* Thrombocytopenia (platelets)
* Pancytopenia (red, white & platelets)

Are these changes malignant vs non-malignant

80
Q

What is the most common red blood cell disorder? What are the associated symtpoms?

A

Anaemia

Different symptoms but there are commonalities:
1. Lethargy
2. Breathlessness
3. Chest pain
4. Headache, dizziness
5. Pallor - pale

Symptoms depend on degree of anaemia, speed and comorbidities

81
Q

What are three main broad causes of anaemia?

A
  1. Blood loss
  2. Reduced RBC production
    Deficiency - Iron, B12/folate
    Malignancy
    Chronic disease, kidney disease – low EPO
    Thalassaemia
    Bone marrow failure
  3. Increase RBC destruction
    Haemolysis e.g. autoimmune
    Sickle cell disease
82
Q

What are four causes of iron deficiency?

A
  1. Chronic blood loss
    Menstruation
    Gastrointestinal bleeding
  2. Dietary
    Vegetarian, vegan, toddlers
  3. Malabsorption
    Coeliac disease, gastric surgery
  4. Increased requirements
    Pregnancy, growth
83
Q

What does iron deficiency anaemia look like (on a cellular level)?

A

Smaller, large central white areas, pale, pencil cells

Microcytic hypochromic anaemia
MCV < 80fl, MCH < 27 pg

84
Q

What is megaloblastic anaemia? What is the normal cause?

A

Occurs when there is fefective DNA synthesis during RBC production causing cell growth without division

Macrocytic anaemia - increased MCV

Usually due to B12/folate deficiency
Test levels of B12/folate in blood & replace (+ remove cause of deficiency)

Example - RBCs as big as WBCs

85
Q

What are the dietary sources of folate? What are four causes of folate deficiency?

A

Dietary sources
Green vegetables
Folate free diet causes deficiency in weeks

Deficiency
Inadequate intake
Malabsorption – coeliac disease
Excess consumption – pregnancy
Drugs eg anticonvulsants

86
Q

What are the dietary sources of vitamin B12? What are three causes of B12 deficiency?

A

Dietary - Meat, dairy, fish

Deficiency
- Vegan diet
- Autoimmune – pernicious anaemia - immune system attacks stomach cells that produce intrinsic factor
- Malabsorption - gastric or ileal surgery

87
Q

What is haemolytic anaemia? What are the causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Normal: Old RBC (120 day lifespan)
RES removal and recycling

Haemolytic anaemia = Excessive/ premature RBC breakdown

Results in:
Spherocytes (RBCs that are more likely to get destroyed by the spleen) or fragments
Anaemia and reticulocytosis
Raised bilirubin and Lactate dehydrogenase

Causes can be extravascular and intravascular

Can be…
1. Inherited - e.g. Hereditary spherocytosis
2. Acquired - e.g. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

88
Q

What is polycythaemia/ erythrocytosis? What are the common causes of it?

A

Too many red blood cells - elevated haematocrit (HCT) and haemoglobin

Absolute (increased red cell mass)
- Primary – Polycythaemia Rubra Vera
- Secondary – Increased EPO – Chronic hypoxia (COPD, altitude) and renal tumours

Relative/apparent Polycythaemia
- Caused by reduced plasma volume
- Acute dehydration, alcohol, diuretics

89
Q

What do you call it when you have too few or too many white blood cells?

A

Leucocytosis (too many) vs Leucopenia (too few)

Possible to have one cell type effected and also a combination

Can be benign vs malignant
Malignant cause of leucocytosis
- Lymphoid – lymphoma/ leukaemia
- Myeloid – myeloproliferative disorders/ leukaemia

90
Q

What are some benign causes of elevated neutrophils, macrophages and eosinophiles?

A
91
Q

What are some common causes of leucopaenia?

A

Mainly neutropenia

Causes = Infections
1. Recurrent bacterial skin infections
2. Mouth ulcers
3. Overwhelming sepsis
4. Unusual infections

Common complication of chemotherapy

92
Q

What are the common causes of Neutropenia?

A
93
Q

What is thrombocytosis defined as? What are some primary and secondary causes?

A

Thrombocytosis - Sustained rise in platelets levels - platelets > 450 x 10^9/L

Primary (arising from bone marrow) - Essential thrombocytosis (ET) or another myeloproliferative disorder (MPD)

Secondary
Infection/ inflammation/ surgery
Post-splenectomy
Iron deficiency
Malignancy

94
Q

What is thrombocytopenia defined as? What are the associated symptoms?

A

Platelets < 150 x 10^9/l

Symptoms < 20x10^9/l
1. Bruising
2. Gum bleeding
3. Nose bleeds
4. Petechiae (skin rash)
5. Prolonged bleeding from cuts

95
Q

Causes of thrombocytopenia?

A

Increased destruction/consumption
*Immune - Immune thrombocytopenia purpura, drugs (e.g. heparin), autoimmune, infection
*Non-immune - Hypersplenism, MAHA (e.g. DIC/ TTP/ HUS)

Decreased production
Bone marrow failure
B12/folate deficiency
Drugs/ alcohol
Infection
Liver disease

96
Q

What is pancytopenia? What are the causes?

A

Pancytopenia - deficiency of all three cellular components of the blood (red cells, white cells, and platelets).

  1. Severe infection
  2. Hypersplenism
  3. Megaloblastic anaemia
  4. Myelosuppressive drugs
  5. Bone marrow failure
97
Q

When looking at a blood panel, what questions should you be asking?

A
  1. Red cells, white cells, platelets or combination?
  2. Too little or too much?
  3. What is the context?
  4. Benign condition or malignant?
  5. Urgent attention required or ongoing monitoring?
98
Q

What is the definition of haemostasis?

A

Hemostasis is the mechanism that leads to cessation of bleeding from a blood vessel.

99
Q

What are the three requirements for haemostasis?

A
  1. Platelets - normal number, normal function
  2. Functional coagulation cascade
  3. Normal vascular endothelium
100
Q

What is this blood film showing?

A
101
Q

What are the 3 distinct stages involved in the formation of a platelet rich thrombus?

A
  1. PLATELET ADHESION
  2. PLATELET ACTIVATION / SECRETION
  3. PLATELET AGGREGATION

Known as the primary hemostatic pathway

102
Q

What is the secondary hemostatic pathway?

A

Secondary hemostatic pathway - formation of a fibrin mesh

Secondary hemostatic process involving the clotting factors – thrombin – causes cross-linking of fibrin meshes around aggregated platelet

103
Q

What are the different causes of platelet-vessel wall defects?

A

All defects - All give rise to a “prolonged bleeding time”

  1. REDUCED NUMBER OF PLATELETS - Thrombocytopenia (TP): long list of causes
    - bone marrow failure
    - peripheral consumption (e.g. immune TP, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), drug- induced)
  2. ABNORMAL PLATELET FUNCTION
    - Most commonly drugs such as aspirin (interfers with prostaglandin function), clopidogrel
    - Renal failure: uraemia causes platelet
    dysfunction
  3. ABNORMAL VESSEL WALL
    - Scurvy
    - Ehlers Danlos syndrome
    - Henoch Schӧnlein purpura
    - Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
  4. ABNORMAL INTERACTION BETWEEN PLATELETS & VESSEL WALL
    - Von Willebrand disease
104
Q

What are examples of drugs that inhibit platelet function?

A
  • Aspirin and COX inhibitors
  • Reversible COX inhibitors eg. NSAIDs
  • Dipyridamole - inhibits phosphodiesterase
  • Thienopyridines - inhibit ADP-mediated activation, eg clopidogrel
  • Integrin GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonists
    abciximab, tirofaban, prevent Fgn binding
105
Q

What are purpuric rashes, how can they be classified?

A

Purpuric Rashes - Bleeding into the skin

106
Q

What are the two pathways that form part of the coagulation cascade?

A

Intrinsic pathway responds to spontaneous, internal damage of the vascular endothelium,

Extrinsic pathway becomes activated secondary to external trauma.

Both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways meet at a shared point to continue coagulation, the common pathway

107
Q

Outline the different steps in the coagulation cascade - intrinsic and extrinsic.

A

Waterfall theory

Things to note…

  1. there is a competing pathway that breaks clots via fibrinolysis
  2. Reactions are catalysed by macromolecular complexes that sit on the surface of membranes - e.g. extrinsic tenase (VIIa + TF) and intrinsic tenase (VIIIa + IXa) convert factor X into Xa
108
Q

What are the natural inhibitors of the coagulation cascade?

A

Prevention of over-activity of the coag cascade by natural inhibitors

  1. TF-VIIa complex/fXa inhibited by TFPI, tissue factor pathway inhibitor - extrinsic tenase
  2. Thrombin, fXa and fIXa activity inhibited by
    Antithrombin
  3. Protein C pathway inhibits fVa (required by Xa to convert prothrombin into thrombin) and fVIIIa
109
Q

What are the different laboratory measurements used to assess the coagulation cascade?

A
110
Q

What are the different hereditary coagulation deficiences?

A

Commonest Hemophilia – A
Willebrand – sex-linked to males

111
Q

What is Haemophilia A?

A
112
Q

What does the clinical severity of haemophilia A depend on?

A

Haemarthrosis - a condition of articular bleeding, that is into the joint cavity - can cause athropathy of the joint

113
Q

What are the traditional forms of haemophilia management?

A
114
Q

How do congential and acquired haemophilia compare?

A
115
Q

What is Von Willebrand disease?

A

Most common hereditary condition for both men and women

Autosomal dominant inheritance!

Arises from a deficiency in the quality or quantity of von Willebrand factor (VWF), a multimeric protein that is required for platelet adhesion.

116
Q

How is Von Willebrand Disease managed?

A
117
Q

What are some common causes of acquired coagulation disorders?

A
118
Q

How can liver disease cause coagulation disorders?

A

Liver disease

  1. Reduced hepatic synthesis of clotting factors
  2. Thrombocytopenia secondary to hypersplenism
  3. Reduced vitamin K absorption due to cholestatic jaundice causing deficiencies of factors II, VII, IX & X

Treat with plasma products and platelets to cover procedures, and vitamin K

119
Q

WHat new antibody is being used to treat haemophilia?

A

EMICIZUMAB (ACE910)

A humanised bi-specific antibody that binds to and bridges fIXa and fX

Acts as a FVIII-mimetic agent

120
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

An acquired syndrome of systemic intravascular activation of coagulation – “thrombin explosion” - leading to widespread deposition of fibrin in circulation

Associated with tissue ischaemia and multi-organ failure

Furthermore, consumption of platelets and coagulation factors to generate thrombin, may induce severe bleeding (lack of them)

To maintain vascular patency, plasmin generated in excess, leads to fibrinogenolysis

Wide range of causes - infection (sepsis), tumours, etc.

121
Q

What four measures indicate the presence of DIC?

A