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Blood Group Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the genes for the Jka and Jkb antigens?

A

SLC14A1
transport protein
14 designates the family of the solute carrier-in this case a urea transporter
A is the subfamily
1 represents the individual family member

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2
Q

Which blood group antigens serve as a receptor for chemokines?

A

Duffy

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3
Q

What is ACKR1?

A

Atypical Chemokine Receptor
-binds a variety of chemokines rather than specific chemokines of a single class

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4
Q

True or false: Duffy antibodies are primarily IgG4 subclass

A

False—IgG1

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5
Q

True or False: Fy3 in blacks reacts poorly with cord blood cells

A

True

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6
Q

True or False: patients with the GATA-1 binding site do not form anti-Fyb

A

True

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7
Q

The gene that encodes the Kidd antigens is located on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 18 on the long *q) arm
Gene contains 11 exons

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8
Q

True or False: The Kidd antigens are a result of two recessive alleles

A

False: to co-dominant alleles

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9
Q

What is the Jk(a-b-) Null Phenotype-Dominant?

A

-In (Jk) does not reside on the Jk locus
-the red cells can adsorb/elute anti-Jka and/or anti-Jkb (depending on which genes were inherited)

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10
Q

What percentage of whites/blacks respectively are Jk(a+)?

A

77% & 92%

Asians=73%

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11
Q

What percentage of whites/blacks respectively are Jk(b+)?

A

74% and 49%

Asians=76%

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12
Q

Which phenotype is not hemolyzed by 2M urea and thus serves as a useful screening tool?

A

Jk(a-b-) cells

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13
Q

The gene that codes for the Duffy antigens is located on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 1 (along with the __antigens) on the long arm (q)
Contains two exons

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14
Q

True or False: Whenever a gene encodes for Fya or Fyb, Fy3 and Fy5 are also produced.

A

True

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15
Q

What is the prevalence of Fy (a+) in whites/blacks respectively?

A

66% and 10%

Asians=99%

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16
Q

What is the prevalence of Fy (b+) in whites/blacks respectively?

A

83% and 23%

Asians=18.5%

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17
Q

The formation of anti-Jk3 occurs in null phenotype from which inheritance pattern?

A

Recessive

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18
Q

The urea transporter housing the Kidd antigens is known as______?

A

UT-B

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19
Q

True or False: The Duffy antigen is expressed on a carbohydrate.

A

False: A glycoprotein

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20
Q

Jk(a-b-) due to In(Jk) is the result of which inheritance pattern?

A

Domimant

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21
Q

What antigens crossing over represent linkage disequilibrium?

A

M s is an example

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22
Q

What is a glycophorin?

A

Sialoglycoproteins basis for the MNS blood group system

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23
Q

GPA and GPB are found on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 4 on the long arm

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24
Q

What are the most common gene complexes in the MNS system?

A

Ns, Ms, MS, NS

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25
Q

Which blood group antigens have been detected on renal capillary endothelium?

A

MN

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26
Q

True or false: MN antigens are variably depressed by sialidase.

A

True

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27
Q

Lutheran antigens are located on:

A. Glycoproteins
B. Polypeptides
C. Glycolipids
D. Carbohydrates

A

A.

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28
Q

Lutheran antigens are destroyed by
A. Ficin
B. Papain
C. Trypsin/Chymotripsin
D. AET/DTT

A

C/D

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29
Q

True or False: LU antigens are encoded by the BCAM allele located on chromosome 19

A

true

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30
Q

True or False: Kel antigens are located on a red cell membrane glycoprotein CD238.

A

True

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31
Q

Which antigens reside on the glycoprotein known as the atypical chemokine receptor (ACKR1)?

A

FY system antigens

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32
Q

Which blood group antigens are located on the urea transporter glycoprotein?

A

JK (Kidd) antigens

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33
Q

What is the gene that produces the JK antigens?

A

SLC14A1

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34
Q

What is the common name for the red cell ion exchanger or solute carrier family 4A1 (SLC4A1)?

A

Band 3

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35
Q

Antigens in the DI system are located on
1. Glycolipid
2. Glycocarbohydrate
3. Glycoprotein
4. Polypeptides

A

3-Glycoprotein

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36
Q

Wra and Wrb are a part of which blood group system?

A

DI

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37
Q

What is the gene that encodes for the YT system antigens?

A

ACHE

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38
Q

What are the two antigens of the XG blood group system?

A
  1. Xg (XG1)
  2. CD99(XG2)
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39
Q

Name five antigens in the DO (Dombrock) blood group system.

A
  1. DOa
  2. Dob
  3. Hy
  4. Gy
  5. Joa
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40
Q

Which blood group antigens are located on the red cell membranes water transporter, aquaphorin-1, encoded by the AQP1gene on chromosome 7p14?

A

CO (Colton) system antigens-Coa, Cob, Co:-3 (Co null) & Co4

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41
Q

True or False:LW antigens have a weaker expression on cord blood cells.

A

False

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42
Q

Which blood group antigen glycoprotein is intercellular adhesion molecule-4, an IgSF adhesion molecule encoded by ICAM4 on chromosome 19p13.2?

A

LW

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43
Q

Which blood group antigens are located on GPC, GPD or both, two glycoproteins that are produced by the same gene, GYPC, located on chromosome 2q14-2q21?

A

GE (Gerbich)—-Ge2, Ge3, Ge4, GEPL, GEAT and GETI

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44
Q

What is the true null phenotype in the GE system?

A

Ge:-2, -3, -4. (Both GPC and GPD are absent from the red cells)

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45
Q

Which antigens are located on the complement regulatory glycoprotein called the decay-accelerating factor (DAF or CD55)?

A

CROM (Cromer)

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46
Q

Name four antigens in the Cromer system

A

Tca, Tcb, Tcc, Cra, Dra

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47
Q

Name four antigens in the KN (Knopf) System

A

Kna, McCa, Sla, Yka

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48
Q

Why is it recommended that transfusion of male patients with chronic granulomatous disease and McLeod syndrome be avoided?

A

Because these patients will usually produce anti-Km and anti-Kx

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49
Q

Which antibody do people with the McLeod phenotype without chronic granulomatous disease produce?

A

Anti-Km

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50
Q

HLA genes are located within multiple highly polymorphic loci on the ____arm of chromosome_____.

A

Short
6

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51
Q

HLA genes encode multiple Class I and Class II cell-surface proteins including:

A

Class I (HLA-A,-B, and -C)
Class II (HLA-DR, -DQ, and -DP)

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52
Q

The A antigen is expressed when which sugar is added to the H substance?

A

N-ACETYL-GALACTOSAMINE

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53
Q

The B antigen is expressed when____________is added to the H substance?

A

Galactose

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54
Q

Which blood group has the least amount of H?

A

A1B

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55
Q

True or False: Le (a-b+) individuals are highly likely to form Lea antibodies upon alloexposure.

A

False

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56
Q

True or False: Para-Bombay individuals have a functioning FUT2 gene.

A

True

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57
Q

True or False: P2 phenotype individuals produce Pk, but not P or P1 antigens

A

False

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58
Q

Inactivating A4GALT gene mutations result in the loss of expressions of which antigens?
A. P1
B. P
C. Pk
D. All of the above

A

D

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59
Q

ABO genotyping that shows homozygosity for common O alleles, but serologically reacts with some examples of anti-A, most likely is caused by:

A. ABO subgroup
B. B(A)
C. FORS1
D. CisAB

A

C

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60
Q

Del antigen is found most frequently in which population?

A

East Asian (25-30% of D neg)

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61
Q

True: The trans position of Ce (Dce/dCe) is the normal expression

62
Q

True or False: Each blood group system is controlled by a single gene or by >/= 2 very closely linked homologous genes

63
Q

Which blood group system antigen specificities are determined by carbohydrate epitopes?

A

ABO
H
LE
P1PK
I
GLOB

64
Q

Which blood group system antigen specificities are determined by amino acid sequencese?

A

MNS
KEL
FY
JK

65
Q

What is the chromosome location for the following blood group systems?e
ABO
H
MNS
Rh
P1PK
KEL
LU
LE
FY
JK

A

ABO-9
H-19
MNS-4
Rh-1
P1PK-22
KEL-7
LU-19
LE-19
FY-1
JK-18

66
Q

True or False: blood group system genes code for blood group antigens.

A

False
The genes code for the enzyme that produces the antigen.

67
Q

The Bombay phenotype arises from the inheritance of a nonfunctional _____gene and a non-functional ______gene or inheriting two_____genes.

A

FUT1
FUT2
hh

68
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: NORMAL A AND B GENES MAY BE INHERITED IN THE BOMBAY PHENOTYPE

69
Q

The anti-H lectin is ___________.

A

Ulex europaeus

70
Q

Para-Bombay individuals are H-deficient, but have a functional ______gene.

71
Q

Alleles of the Secretor locus are _____ and ______.

A

Se (FUT2)
se

72
Q

Secretors are found in ____% of the population.

73
Q

Alleles of the LE locus include_______ and _______.

A

Le (FUT3)
le

74
Q

The P1 antigen is a part of which blood group system

A

The P1Pk (formerly the P system)

75
Q

The P antigen is a part of which blood group system?

76
Q

What is the relative order of frequency of the common Rh haplotypes in Whites and Blacks?

A

Whites-R1>r>R2>R0
Blacks-R0>r>R1>R2

77
Q

List the 5 amino acids on the glycophorin A chain that make up the M antigen and the N antigen

A

Serine
Serine
Threonine
Threonine
Glycine

Leucine
Serine
Threonine
Threonine
Glutamic acid

78
Q

Rosenfield Nomenclature

A

Numerical-Rh:-1-2-3,4,5

79
Q

Which of the following statements about the Vel antigen is false?

  1. Vel has >99% frequency in all populations
  2. Vel is not part of a blood group system
  3. The antibodies may be a mix of IgM/IgG
  4. May cause severe HTR or HDFN
80
Q

List an example of a dominant “inhibitor” gene that codes for null phenotype.

81
Q

Give an example of a dominant suppressor gene that codes for a null phenotype.

82
Q

Which blood group’s gene product is Band 3 (Anion Exchanger) whose function is Anion Transport?

83
Q

Which blood group system’s gene product is Acetylcholineserase (AChE)?

84
Q

Which blood group’s gene product is the HERMAP (Human Erythroid Membrane Associated Protein) and functions in adhesion?

A

Scianna (SC)

85
Q

Which blood group’s gene product is GPC and GPD and functions as a structural RBC protein & membrane integrity?

86
Q

Which blood group system’s gene products are DAF and CD55 and are involved in complement regulation?

87
Q

Which blood group system’s gene products is CD44 and functions in adhesion (lymphocytes, monocytes and tumor cells)?

A

Indian (In)

88
Q

What is the function of the DO glycoprotein of the Dombrock Blood Group system?

A

ADP ribosyltransferase

89
Q

Which blood group system’s gene products is CD108 and functions in Semaphoring-7A?

90
Q

Which blood group system antigens are located on complement receptor 1?

91
Q

Which blood group antigens are located on C4?

A

Chido/Rogers

92
Q

Which blood group system’s gene product is B-Cam and the ________Glycoprotein?

93
Q

Which blood group system’s gene products function in metalloendopeptidase that processes endothelial-3?

94
Q

What percentage of A2B individuals will have anti-A1 in their plasma?

95
Q

What blood types will react strongest with anti-H?

A

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B

96
Q

What percentage of A2 individuals will present with anti-A1 in their serum?

97
Q

Some examples of anti-Leb react preferentially with Le (b+) red cells that express the greatest levels of H antigen (group O); these antibodies are identified as anti-____________

98
Q

What percentage of D negative recipients will produce anti-D when >200 ml of D-positive rbcs are transfused?

99
Q

Type 1 oligosaccharide changes have a beta one to three linkage between galactose and N-acetlyglucosamine and are found on/in _______________.

A

In secretions

100
Q

Type 2 oligosaccharide chains have a beta one to four linkage between the galactose and n-acetylglucosamine and are found in/on ___________.

A

On red blood cells

101
Q

True or False: The product of the FUT3 gene is an alpha fucosyltransferase that adds fucose to soluble type 2 oligosaccharide chains.

A

False—soluble type 1 chains; type 2 chains are not soluble and are found on the red cell; Le antigens are soluble proteins

102
Q

Non-secretors are-

  1. Le (a+b-)
  2. Le (a+b+)
  3. Le (a-b+)
  4. Le (a-b-)
103
Q

The causative antibody in CAD and may be associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections

A

Autoanti-I

104
Q

Antibody that may be a causative antibody in CAD and secondary to infectious mononucleosis

A

Autoanti-i

105
Q

What antigens are on the red blood cell of a P1 individual? What antibodies are in the serum?

A

P1, P, Pk (trace amount)
None

106
Q

What antigens are on the RBCs of a P2 individual? What antibodies are in the serum?

A

P, Pk (trace amount)
Anti-P1 (25% will have)

107
Q

What antigens will be on the RBC of a p individual? What antibodies will be in the serum?

A

None
Anti-PP1Pk

108
Q

Rh antibodies are mostly of which IgG subclass(es)?

A

IgG1 and IgG3

109
Q

True or false: Antibodies to G appear as anti-D plus anti-C but cannot be separated.

110
Q

What are two genetic causes of the Rh null phenotype

A

Regulator type—RHD and RHCE genes that are inherited are unable to make their respective antigens because of an absent or mutated Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG).

Amorph type-Arises from the inheritance of mutated RHCE gene and deleted RHD gene

111
Q

Which of the following statements are true about Rh null RBCs?
1. Rh null cells express decreased levels of glycophorin B and lack FY5, LWa and LWb antigens.
2. Persons who are Rh null experience a type of anemia with hereditary stomacytosis.
3. Rh null individuals must be transfused with Rh null red cells if immunized.
4. All of the above

112
Q

Individuals that lack all or part of GPA also lack a high prevalence antigen called_______

113
Q

2% of blacks lack GPB and the high prevalence antigen________.

114
Q

A rare gene in the MNS system that produces neither GPA or GPB and lacks all MNS antigens?

115
Q

Some examples of anti-M may be enhanced by ________the pH.

A

lowering to 6.5

116
Q

McLeod red cells express diminished amounts of ______antigens and lack the high-prevalence antigens______ and ______.

117
Q

HLA MHC Class I products are:

A

HLA-A
HLA-B
HLA-C
Expressed on all uncleared cells

118
Q

HLA MHC Class II products are:

A

HLA-DP
HLA-DQ
HLA-DR
Expressed on antigen-presenting cells including B lymphocytes, dendritic cells and macrophages

119
Q

HLA MHC Class III products are:

A

Complement proteins
Tumor necrosis factor

120
Q

Posttransfusion purpura characteristics—

A

Occurs 5-10 days after a red cell transfusion in patients with HPA antibodies
Produces profound thrombocytopenia and destruction of the patient’s own platelets
Anti-HPA-1a is most frequently implicated
Treatment includes the administration of IVIG

121
Q

FNAIT (Fetal and Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia—-

A

Maternal IgG HPA abs cross the placenta and destroy fetal platelets
Anti-HPA-1a is most frequently implicated
Treatment includes administration of IVIG w/ or w/o antigen negative platelets that can include maternal washed platelets

122
Q

True or false: Platelet transfusion refractoriness is caused mostly by HPA antibodies.

A

False

Is cause by HLA antibodies and HPA antibodies, but most frequently HLA

123
Q

What is rhi?

A

Ce. Or DCe, Ce

124
Q

How to differentiate anti-G, from anti-C,-D?

A

Adsorb plasma with r’r cells; r’r (Cce) will adsorb only anti-C and anti-G, leaving behind the anti-D (if present) in the adsorbed plasma.

125
Q

What are some characteristics of Rh null?

A

-RBC morphology: spherocytic, stomatocytic and osmotically fragile
-Compensated anemia
-No LW or Fy5 antigens; altered Glycophorin B
-2 types
—-regulator type
—amorph type

126
Q

True or False: Kpa can depress other KEL system antigens?

127
Q

What are the Gerbich negative phenotypes

A

Ge:-2, 3, 4—-YUS—-Normal Kell antigen
Ge:-2, -3, 4—Gerbich—-weakened Kell antigen
Ge:-2, -3, -4–Leach (true null)—Depressed Kell antigen

128
Q

Describe Fyx (Fymod)

A

Fyx is a phenotype, not an antigen
SNP mutation FY*B gene
Fyx have weak Fyb, Fy3, Fy5 and Fy6
Reduced binding of chemokines

129
Q

What are two types of JK Null phenotype?

A

JK Null Amorphic
—Jk/Jk homozygous
—totally lacks Jka, Jkb, Jk3
—found in 0.9% Polynesians
—Finnish descent
—readily make anti-Jk3, often with-Jka, -Jkb

JK Null In (JK) Surpressor
—dominant inhibitor like In(Lu)
—Not as common as the amorphic type
—Reported in Japanese families
—Cells are Jk(a-b-)
—Do not make Jk3

130
Q

What is the amino acid sequence for the M antigen?

A

Serine
Serine
Threonine
Threonine
Glycine

131
Q

What is the amino acid sequence for the N antigen?

A

Leucine
Serine
Threonine
Threonine
Glutamic Acid

132
Q

What’s the amino acid sequence for GPB?

A

Leucine
Serine
Threonine
Threonine
Glutamic Acid

Methionine
Threonine

133
Q

What are the three different types of Lu(a-b-) inheritance?

A
  1. Lu(a-b-) Recessive
    — Recessive amorph Lu
    —LuLu cells are Lu (a-b-)
    —Can make anti-Lu3 and/or -Lua, -Lub
  2. Lu(a-b-) Dominant Inhibitor
    —In (Lu)
    —Cells are Lu(a-b-) but can adsorb/elute
    __No antibody production
    __Also some depression of P1, AnWj, In antigens
  3. Lu (a-b-) X-Borne Suppressor
    —X-borne suppressor, recessive X52
    —No antibody production
134
Q

What are some characteristics of Lutheran antibodies?

A

-May give mixed-field appearance
-Naturally occurring IgM and Iga
-Immune IgG
-both anti-Lua and -Lub have caused mild DHTR
-do not cause HDN
-antigens not fully developed at birth
-anti-Lu8 can cause AHTRs

135
Q

Which gene produces Band 3?

A

Diego (DI)

136
Q

What are some characteristics of the DIego system?

A

=Maintains the structural integrity of the red cell
-Allows anion (HCO3- and Cl-) exchange across red cell membrane
-22 antigens including Dia, Dib, Wra, Wrb
-Resistant to BB chemicals: ficin, DTT and trypsin

137
Q

Which blood group system is associated with acetlycholinesterase?

138
Q

What are some characteristics of YT?

A

-2 antigens on acetlycholinesterase
-DTT and chymotrypsin sensitive
-50% of anti-Yta are clinically significant
-no HDFN

139
Q

What are the antithetical alleles for Xg?

A

-Xga-66% males and 89% females
-CD99 (high prevalence)
-sensitive to ficin, trypsin and chymotrypsin
-DTT resistant
-anti-Xga IgG, but not usually clinically significant
-weakly expressed on cord blood cells

140
Q

Which blood group antigens are located on aqua-Orin-1 (AQP1)?

A

Colton (CO)

141
Q

What are some characteristics of Colton antigens/antibodies?

A

-Coa is the high
-Cob is the low
-Resistant to ficin and DTT
-Co(a-b-) makes anti-CO3
-both abs have caused HTRs and HDFN

142
Q

What are some characteristics of Gerbich (GE)?

A

-carried on GPC and GPD
-interact directly with protein band 4.1, which is integral in maintaining RBC shape
—4.1 deficient rbcs can be associated with elliptocytosis
-RBC receptor for Influenza A and B
-50-90% of Melanesians
-mostly IgG (may have an IgM component)
-do not bind complement
-generally not clinically significant , but anti-Ge3 reported in HDFN cases
-Autoanti-Ge2, -3 reported in AIHA
-ficin treatment differentiates anti-Ge3

143
Q

What antigens are located on the complement regulatory glycoprotein (DAF or CD55)?

144
Q

What are some characteristics of Cromer (CR)?

A

-DAF (Decay accelerating factor) is associated with Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemaglobinuria (PNH)
-All high prevalence except Tcb, Tcc and Wes a
-antithetical pairs
—Tca/Tcb/Tcc
—WESa/WESb
-Null phenotype = Inab phenotype; can make anti-IFC
-antigens depressed during pregnancy
-ags poorly expressed on cord cells
-ficin/trypsin resistant
-DTT-weakened

145
Q

What are some characteristics of Indian (IN)?

A

-glycoprotein is CD44
-sensitive to ficin, DTT, trypsin, chymotrypsin
-Weak on cord cells, pregnant women and In(Lu) RBCs
-no HDFN
-no to severe HTR for Inb

146
Q

What antigens are destroyed by Ficin and DTT?

147
Q

Which antigen is the receptor for Heliobacter pylori in the gastric mucosal endothelium?

148
Q

Which null phenotype is associated with cataracts in individuals of Asian descent due to a silencing nucleotide change that affects tissues?

149
Q

What are the GPI-linked proteins and what is their significance?

A

Cromer
YT
Dombrock
JMH
Emm
CD59
KANNO

Patients with PNH type III lack GPI-linked proteins, these ags are not expressed.

150
Q

Duffy glycoprotein has been identified as an erythrocyte receptor for:
1. Interleukin-8
2. Interleukin-2
3. Interleukin-4
4. Interleukin-6

A
  1. Interleukin-8
151
Q

Which of the following categories of partial D would be Goa positive?
1. DAU
2. DIII
3. DIVa
4. DVII

152
Q

True or false: The LW antigen is often depressed in the presence of anti-LW

Blood Groups (2 decks)

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