Blood Disorders (Exam III)- Corndog Flashcards

1
Q

What are the S/S of vWF disorder?

A
  • Easy bruising
  • epistaxis
  • menorrhagia
  • Patients usually unaware until surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder?

A

vWF disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of vWF is the mildest and most common type?
What medication does it respond best to?

A
  • Type I inherited vWF disease.
  • Responds best to DDAVP out of all 6 types.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of vWF is the most severe and rarest type?
What medication does it respond best to?

A
  • Type 3 inherited vWF disease.
  • Responds best to factor concentrates such as Factor VIII. Does not respond well to DDAVP.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would lab values be for someone with vWF deficiency?

A
  • Normal PT & aPTT
  • Bleeding time is prolonged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the treatments for vWF deficiency?

A
  • Desmopressin
  • Cryoprecipitate
  • Factor VIII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does DDAVP work in regards to treatment of vWF?

A
  • A synthetic analogue of vasopressin
  • Stimulates vWF release from endothelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the dose for DDAVP?

A

0.3 mcg/kg-0.8mcg/kg in 50 mL over 15-20 mins (Do not bolus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the onset & duration of DDAVP?

A
  • Onset: 30mins
  • Duration: 6-8hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are side effects of DDAVP?

A
  • HA
  • Stupor
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • hyponatremia
  • water intoxication (excessive water retention)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most major side effect of DDAVP?

A

Hyponatremia through water retention
And subsequent seizures from severe hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Someone that gets DDAVP needs to be on what?

A

Fluid restriction (oral and IV) 4-6hrs before & after DDAVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the CNS and EKG changes seen with a serum sodium of 120mEq/L?

A
  • CNS - Confusion and restlessness
  • EKG - slight widening of QRS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the CNS and EKG changes seen with a serum sodium of 115mEq/L?

A
  • CNS - Somnolence and Nausea
  • EKG - Elevated ST segment and widening of QRS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the CNS and EKG changes seen with a serum sodium of 110mEq/L?

A
  • CNS - Seizures and Coma
  • EKG - Vtach or Vfib.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What blood product can be utilized for vWF disease if the patient is unresponsive to DDAVP?

A

Cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1 unit of Cryo raises the ____ level by ___?

A

Fibrinogen by 50 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a potential risk factor with cryoprecipitate?

A

Increased risk of infection (not submitted to viral attenuation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many units are typically in a bag of cryoprecipitate?

A

2-10 units, from multiple donors which can increase risk of infection and reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Factor VIII concentrate made of?

A
  • Prepared from pool of plasma from a large number of donors
  • Contains Factor VIII and vWF
  • Undergoes viral attenuation, which gives you less risk for infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is Factor VIII given?

A

Preop or intraop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When should DDAVP be given prior to surgery?

A

60mins before Sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What blood product poses an increase risk for infection? Why?

A
  • Cryoprecipitate
  • Not sent for viral attenuation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the anesthesia considerations for patient’s with blood disorders?

A
  • Needs a hematologist evaluation prior to surgery.
  • Normalization of bleeding time and improved levels of Factor VIII should be confirmed before surgery.
  • If indicated, DDAVP should be given 60 minutes prior to surgery.
  • General anesthesia may be more appropriate due to increased risk of hemorrhage and developing hematomas with blocks and spinals.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pts with coagulopathies undergoing neuraxial anesthesia are at increased risk for what?

A
  • Spinal and epidural hematoma
  • Nerve compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What four things to avoid?

What are the anesthesia considerations (in terms of bleeding) for someone with vWF deficiency?

A
  • Avoid trauma (particularly airway)
  • avoid IM sticks
  • avoid arterial lines (if feasible)
  • avoid spinals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is acquired bleeding?

A

Bleeding that comes from medication such as heparin, warfarin, fibrinolytics, and antiplatelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most common medication that causes acquired bleeding?

A

Heparin; Traditional heparin as well as LMWH (Lovenox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does heparin work?

A
  • Thrombin inhibition
  • Antithrombin III activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What kind of patients does heparin not work for?

A
  • Patients with antithrombin III deficiency.
  • When you give them heparin, nothing happens.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with antithrombin III deficiency?

A
  • Give them 2 units of FFP to provide the patient with antithrombin III to get the heparin to work. This is what is done most often.
  • You can also switch to a different medication besides heparin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What labs are monitored with heparin?

A

PTT &/or ACT

33
Q

What is an ACT?

A
  • Stands for activated clotting time.
  • Is a rapid blood test that measures how long it takes for blood to clot, how many seconds.
  • 70-150 seconds is a normal value.
  • Below 70 seconds means your blood is clotting too quickly.
  • Above 120 seconds means your blood is taking longer to clot and you are at increased risk for bleeding.
34
Q

What is the ACT range if you are trying to anticoagulate someone for a systemic procedure like cardiac bypass?

A

350-400 seconds

35
Q

What is a PTT?

A
  • Stands for partial thromboplastin time.
  • A blood test that measures how long it takes your blood to clot.
  • A normal value is between 25-35 seconds.
  • Below 25 seconds means your blood is clotting faster than normal.
  • Above 35 seconds means your blood is taking longer to clot and you are at increased risk for bleeding.
36
Q

What is an INR?

A
  • Stands for international normalized ratio.
  • A blood test that measures how long it takes your blood to clot.
  • A normal value is between 0.8 and 1.1.
  • Below 0.8 means your blood is clotting faster than normal.
  • Above 1.1 means your blood is taking longer to clot and you are at increased risk for bleeding.
37
Q

What are heparins anticoagulant effects rapidly reversed by?

38
Q

When do you do continuous lab draws/monitoring for patients on heparin?

A
  • You do it of they are on a continuous heparin drip infusion. Frequency = q6-q8 hours.
  • You do not need continuous lab draws for patients getting subq heparin or loveno TID.
39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Coumadin?

A

Inhibition of vitamin K-dependent factors.

40
Q

Which factors are vitamin-K dependent?

A

II, VII, IX & X

41
Q

What is the antidote for Coumadin?
What is the downside of this?

A
  • Vitamin K
  • It takes a really long time to work. 6-8 hours. Your patient will be dead by then.
42
Q

What is the onset for Vitamin K administration?

A

Takes 6-8hrs to reverse Coumadin. Quicker methods are preferred.

43
Q

3

What drugs/products can be given to reverse coumadin faster than Vit K?

A
  • Prothrombin complex concentrates
  • Factor VIIa
  • FFP
44
Q

What is the main problem with using prothrombin complex concentrates?

A
  • They are very expensive
  • Smaller facilities may not have it available.
  • These are mixed/given using weight based doses that have to be prepared by the pharmacy which could prolong your time in giving it.
45
Q

What are 3 examples of fibrinolytic agents?

A
  • Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
  • streptokinase (SK)
  • urokinase (UK)
46
Q

What are fibrinolytic agents used for?

A
  • To break up intracerebral and/or intracardiac clotting.
47
Q

What is the mechanism of action for fibrinolytics (UK, streptokinase & tPA)?

A

Convert plasminogen to plasmin, which cleaves fibrin —> causing clot lysis
* Fibrinolytics work on existing clots.

48
Q

What are 3 examples of antifibrinolytics?

A
  • TXA - tranexamic acid
  • Amicar - ε–aminocaproic acid
  • aprotinin
49
Q

What are antifibrinolytics used for?

A
  • Menorrhagia, Women who have extreme period bleeding. This was the first indication.
  • Epistaxis and oral bleeding/surgery came next.
  • To control bleeding on trauma patients.
50
Q

What was TXA (antifibrinolytic) originally designed for?

A

Menorrhagia, Women who have extreme period bleeding.

51
Q

What is the indication for oral TXA as a home med?

A
  • Menorrhagia
  • Peridontal disease
  • Recurrent epistaxis
52
Q

How do tranexamic acid (TXA) and aminocaproic acid work?

A
  • Inhibit conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
  • Antifibrinolytics don’t cause clot formation, they just keep the existing clots together and from being broken down.
53
Q

What is the dosage for antifibrinolytics?

A
  • Adult dose is 1-2 grams as a slow IV push.
  • The pediatric dose is 15mg/kg.
54
Q

How do you figure out if someone has TXA toxicity?

A

They will become color-blind after the dose.

55
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for antiplatelet therapy?

A
  • Be mindful of when the patient had their last dose.
  • Consider getting a platelet function panel pre-op to assess where they are at.
  • If need be you can always give the patient platelets prior to surgery.
56
Q

What is DIC?
What is its mechanism of action?

A
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy.
  • MOA: The systemic activation of the coagulation system that simultaneously leads to thrombus formation and exhaustion of platelets and coagulation factors.
  • Initially the patient burns through all their clotting factors and have widespread thrombus
    After they brun through all their clotting factors, then they start hemorrhaging from everywhere.
57
Q

What are the initial S/S of DIC?

A
  • Petechiae is the biggest sign.
  • loss of peripheral perfusion.
58
Q

What underlying disorders can cause DIC?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Amniotic fluid embolus.
  • Trauma
  • Malignancy/tumors
  • incompatible blood transfusions
59
Q

What will labs show for someone in DIC?

A
  • ↓Platelet count
  • Prolonged PT, PTT & TT.
  • ↑ fibrin degradation products (FDP)
60
Q

What lab work will show fibrin degraproducts (FDP)?

A
  • DIC panels
61
Q

What is the best way to treat DIC?

A

Treat the underlying cause precipitating hemostatic activation.

62
Q

What is another treatment for DIC after treating the underlying condition?

A
  • Normalize clotting status by giving blood component transfusions to replete coagulation factors and platelets consumed in the process.
  • Plasmapheresis can also be done to normalize clotting status.
63
Q

When is antifibrinolytic therapy given to someone in DIC?

A

Trick question, it shouldn’t. Antifibrinolytics are contraindicated in DIC be ause they can lead to catastrophic thrombotic complications

64
Q

What is an APACHE score?

A

A test used to evaluate and grade patients with sepsis and DIC.

65
Q

What are the 2 most common prothrombotic disorders?

A
  • Factor V Leidon disease
  • HIT - Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
66
Q

What is factor V?

A
  • Protein for normal clotting.
  • When enough fibrin has been made, activated protein C inactivates factor V thus stopping clot growth*.
67
Q

What is Factor V Leiden disease?

A
  • Genetic mutation in factor V
  • Abnormal version of factor V that is resistant to activated protein C —> excessive fibrin and clotting
68
Q

In what type of patients is factor V Leiden disease most often seen?

A
  • Pregnant patients who have had a lot of previous miscarriages.
  • They usually only find out because after so many miscarriages your doctor will do hematologic and genetic testing.
69
Q

What anesthesia considerations are there for patients with Factor V Leiden disease?

A
  • Factor V Leiden is associated with an increased risk of developing an episode of DVT (with or without a PE)
  • Because of high risks of DVT and PE, patients are on anticoagulants
70
Q

Factor V Leiden is usually silent until?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • First presention of DVT, repeated late-stage abortions/fetal losses occurs
  • Prophylactic anticoagulation may be indicated in some cases to prevent venous or placental thrombosis, because improved placental blood flow is likely to lead to better pregnancy outcomes
71
Q

What anticoagulant medications could someone with Factor V Leiden be put on?

A
  • The most common is LMWH (lovenox) as a home med
  • Warfarin
  • Unfractionated heparin
72
Q

What kind of anesthesia will we use for a patient with Factor V Leiden who is delivering a baby?

A
  • General anesthesia over an epidural because the patient is on at home lovenox and we are concerned with doing neuraxial anesthesia on these patients.
  • There is a greater risk of bleeding and spinal hematoma with daily lovenox and neuraxial anesthesia.
73
Q

What is the hallmark sign of HIT?

A

Plt count <100,000

thrombocytopenia

74
Q

What is HIT?

A
  • An autoimmune-mediated drug reaction that occurs in as many as 5% of patients after exposure to unfractioned heparin.
  • HIT activates platelets –> causes clotting –> depletes platelet count
75
Q

When does thrombocytopenia occur in HIT patients?

A

5-14 days after initial therapy.

76
Q

Non-heparin anticoagulants used after HIT?

A

Direct-thrombin inhibitors
* Argratroban
* Bivalirudin

Factor Xa Inhibitor
* Fondaparinaux in place of lovenox

77
Q

Diagnosis of HIT should be entertained when?

A
  • For any patient experiencing thrombosis or thrombocytopenia during/after heparin administration
  • D/C heparin immediately.
78
Q

What should be done if HIT is suspected?

A
  • Check a second PTT or ACT to make sure
  • D/C heparin immediately.
  • Administer non-heparin anticoagulation such as bivalirudin, lepirudin, or argatroban. (Direct thrombin inhibitors)