Blood Bank Boc Flashcards by Aseel Halase

18 When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature

must be recorded:

a once a day

b twice a day

every 4 hours

every hour

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46 Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?

a light spin followed by a hard spin

5 light spin followed by 2 hard spins

c 2 light spins

d hard spin followed by a light spin

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46 Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?

a light spin followed by a hard spin

5 light spin followed by 2 hard spins

c 2 light spins

d hard spin followed by a light spin

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51 Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate.

MLS ONLY What is the best way to prepare this product?

a crossmatch only CMV-seronegative units

b irradiate the unit with 1,500 rads

wash the unit with saline prior to infusion

transfuse through a Log³ leukocyte-removing filter

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51 Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate.

MLS ONLY What is the best way to prepare this product?

a crossmatch only CMV-seronegative units

b irradiate the unit with 1,500 rads

wash the unit with saline prior to infusion

transfuse through a Log³ leukocyte-removing filter

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52 Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization MLS

of the recipient?

ONLY

a Red Blood Cells

b Granulocytes

Irradiated Red Blood Cells

Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells

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59 The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

a allele

b trait

phenotype

a) haplotype

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59 The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

a allele

b trait

phenotype

a) haplotype

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92 Which of the following antibodies is neutralizable by pooled human plasma?

MLS

ONLY

anti-Kn

anti-Ch

anti-Yka

d anti-Csa

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93 Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if:

a the patient has been previously transfused

b) the agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile

the patient is group A or B

d only a small number of panel cells are reactive

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95 Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC):

a code for HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only

b are linked to genes in the ABO system

are the primary genetic sex-determinants

dcontribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity

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125 Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?

MLS

ONLY

father

b mother

pooled platelet-rich plasma

d polycythemic donor

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142 When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant’s antibody-sensitized red blood cells and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible:

Fresh Whole Blood

b Red Blood Cells (RBC) washed

RBC suspended in Fresh Frozen Plasma

a heparinized Red Blood Cells

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160 Mixed leukocyte culture (MLC) is a biological assay for detecting which of the following?

MLS

ONLY a HLA-A antigens

bHLA-B antigens

HLA-D antigens

d immunoglobulins

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160 Mixed leukocyte culture (MLC) is a biological assay for detecting which of the following?

MLS

ONLY a HLA-A antigens

bHLA-B antigens

HLA-D antigens

d immunoglobulins

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162 A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. The red cell product of choice for this patient would be:

a packed

b saline washed

microaggregate filtered

airradiated

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163 HLA antigen typing is important in screening for:

ABO incompatibility

5a kidney donor

Rh incompatibility

d a blood donor

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173 A group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?

all major crossmatches would be incompatible

b the weak D test and control would be positive

cthe antibody screening test would be positive

d the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree

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177 Which of the following is characteristic of Tn polyagglutinable red cells?

a f group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen

b they show strong reactions when the cells are enzyme-treated

cthey react with Arachis hypogaea lectin

d the polyagglutination is a transient condition

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179 Which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells?

can be classified by reactivity with Uex europaeus

are agglutinated by most adult sera

are always an acquired condition

d autocontrol is always positive

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183 Which of the following explains an ABO discrepancy caused by problems with the patient’s red

MLS blood cells? ONLY

a an unexpected antibody b rouleaux

agammaglobulinemi

dTn activation

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193 A patient received 2 units of Red Blood Cells and had a delayed transfusion reaction. Pretransfusion antibody screening records indicate no agglutination except after the addition of IgG sensitized cells. Repeat testing of the pretransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. What is the most likely explanation for the original results?

a red cells were overwashed

centrifugation time was prolonged

patient’s serum was omitted from the original testing

antiglobulin reagent was neutralized

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208 A patient’s serum reacted weakly positive (1+”) with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at the AHG MLS test phase. The autocontrol was negative. Tests with ficin-treated panel cells demonstrated no ONLY reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results?

anti-Ch

b anti-k

c anti-e

d anti-Jsb

212 In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel after the immediate spin phase. There was no reactivity after incubation at 37°C and after the anti-human globulin test phase. The antibody most likely is:

a anti-P

b anti-Lea

c anti-C

d anti-Fy

228 The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is: MLS ONLY a drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of drug c drug-independent with autoantibody production d nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT

230 Which of the following medications is most likely to cause production of autoantibodies? a penicillin b cephalothin methyldopa tetracycline

232 The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test with hemolysis by which of the following mechanisms? drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of a drug c drug-independent with autoantibody production d nonimmunologic protein adsorption with posit DAT

236 What is the most appropriate diluent for preparing a solution of 8% bovine albumin for a red cell control reagent? a deionized water bdistilled water cnormal saline dAlsever solution

Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination? a RBCs typing as weak D+ b presence of red cell autoantibody decreased serum bilirubin dagglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera

251 Which of the following is useful for removing IgG from red blood cells with a positive DAT to perform a phenotype? bromelin bchloroquine CLISS d DTT

253 A sample gives the following results: Cells with: Serum with: anti-A 3+ A cells 2 anti-B 44 B cells Which lectin should be used first to resolve this discrepancy? a Ulex europaeus b Arachis hypogaea Dolichos biflorus d Vicia graminea

256 A patient's serum was reactive 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine MLS ONLY panel including their own. Transfusion was performed 6 months previously. The optimal adsorption method to remove the autoantibody is: autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells autoadsorption using the patient's LISS-treated red cells c adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a normal donor d adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells

257 In a cold autoadsorption procedure, pretreatment of the patient's red cells with which of the ONLY following reagents is helpful? Ficin b phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0 c low ionic strength saline (LISS) d albumin

260 One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes: a 10% sucrose b LISS change in pH distilled water

262 After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only." Which of the following should be placed on this shelf? a 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups b units of group O, Rh-positive Whole Blood units of group O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells d any units that are expiring at midnight

266 For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most ONLY likely indicated? a renal dialysis patients b sickle cell patient bone marrow and hematopoietic cell transplant recipients d CMV-seropositive patients

273 Platelet transfusions are of most value in treating: MLS ONLY functional platelet abnormalities immune thrombocytopenic purpura a hemolytic transfusion reaction posttransfusion purpura

275 A patient received about 15 mL of compatible blood and developed severe shock, but no fever. If the patient needs another transfusion, what kind of red blood cell component should be given? Red Blood Cells Red Blood Cells, Washed Red Blood Cells, Irradiated d Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced

281 A patient has become refractory to platelet transfusion. Which of the following are MLS BNLY probable causes? a transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets b decreased pH of the platelets development of an alloantibody with anti-D specificity development of antibodies to HLA antigen

290 A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develop: a anemia b polycythemia leukocytosis thrombocytopenia

294 Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure? bacterial contamination b circulatory overload c febrile d anaphylactic

305 Leukocyte-Poor Red Blood Cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of: a febrile transfusion reaction iron deficiency anemia c hemophilia A d von Willebrand disease

313 Use of only male donors as a source of plasma intended for transfusion is advocated to reduce MLS which type of reaction? ONLY a allergic TRALI hemolytic d TACO (circulatory overload)

318 During the issue of an autologous unit of Whole Blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action? a the unit may be issued only for autologous use b remove the plasmand issue the unit as Red Blood Cells issue the unit only as washed Red Blood Cells quarantine the unit for further testing

319 Coughing, cyanosis and difficult breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a/febrile allergic circulatory overload hemolytic

320 Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion? a hemolytic reaction b febrile nonhemolytic reaction ccongestive heart failure urticaria

321 Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction? a hemolytic b febrile anaphylactic circulatory overload

If a patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test, should you perform a weak D test on the cells? A. No, the cells are already coated with antibody B. No, the cells are Rhnull C. Yes, the immunoglobulin will not interfere with the test D. Yes, Rh reagents are enhanced in protein media

Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified? A. Rh-positive B. Rh-negative, Du positive C. Rh-negative D. Rh-positive, Du positive

How long must a recipient sample be kept in the blood bank following compatibility testing? A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 10 days

What is the crossmatching protocol for platelets and/or plasma? A. Perform a reverse grouping on donor plasma B. No testing is required C. Perform a reverse grouping on recipient plasma D. Platelets must be HLA compatible

20. What percentage of red cells must be retained in leukocyte-reduced red cells? A. 75% B. 80% C. 85% D. 100%

Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected? A. 33 minutes B. 25 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 13 minutes

Which blood type may be transfused to an AB-positive baby who has HDN caused by anti-D? A. AB negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative; irradiated or O negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative B. AB positive, CMV negative; irradiated or O positive, CMV negative C. AB negative only D. O negative only