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Blood Antibodies > Blood Bank 4 > Flashcards

Blood Bank 4 Flashcards

1
Q

S and s code for the production of which siaglycoprotein?

A

Glycophorein B

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2
Q

All cells that are positive for either S or s are also positive for what antigen?

A

U

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3
Q

What temp doe anti-M most commonly react at?

A

Room temp or below

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4
Q

Anti-M and anti-N characteristics

A

Exhibit dosage

Inhibited by enzymes

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5
Q

Anti-S and anti-s react at what temp

A

37C and AHG

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6
Q

Does enzyme treatment effect reactivity of anti-S or -s

A

Variable effect

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7
Q

Is P1 or P2 more common

A

P1

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8
Q

What antigens do P1 individuals have

A

P1
P
Pk

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9
Q

What antigens do P2 individuals have

A

P

Pk

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10
Q

Which alloantibody, -P or -P1 is more significant for transfusion purposes

A

Anti-P

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11
Q

What autoantibody is known as Donath-Landsteiner antibody

A

Autoanti-P

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12
Q

How does Donath-Landsteiner Ab cause intravascular hemolysis

A

-P binds to RBCs at lower temps in peripheral circulation, activates complement which causes intravascular hemolysis when warmed back to 37C in body core

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13
Q

What disease is Donath-Landsteiner Ab associated with

A

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

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14
Q

From what is P1 substance made and what does it do

A

Pigeon egg whites

Inhibits P1 antibody reactions

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15
Q

What what temp does anti-LuA and what type of reactivity is seen

A

IS/room temp

Mf pattern of small agglutinates in background of free cells

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16
Q

At what phase does anti-LuB react

A

AHG and 37C

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17
Q

Is LuA high or low frequency

A

Low

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18
Q

Is LuB antigen high or low frequency

A

High

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19
Q

Most significant high frequency Kell antigen

A

k
KpB
JsB

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20
Q

What are the most significant low frequency Kell antigens

A

K
KpA
JsA

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21
Q

McLeod phenotype characteristics

A

Absence of normal XK1 gene
Kx Ag not produced
Kell antigens decreased in amount

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22
Q

McLeod syndrome sometimes associated with what immunodeficiency

A

Type 2 chronic granulomatous disease

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23
Q

K0 phenotype have what antigens

A

High level Kx

Lack all other Kell antigens

24
Q

Antigen second to D in immunogenicity

25
Q

At what phase do K system antigen show up

26
Q

What genes influence Lewis phenotype

27
Q

Effect of pregnancy on Lewis antigens

A

Can cause transient decline

28
Q

Lewis phenotype of leleSese individual

A

Le(a-b-)

No expression

29
Q

Lewis phenotype of Lelesese individual

A

Le (a+b+)

LeA only

30
Q

Lewis phenotype of LeleSese individual

A

Le (a-b+)

LeB only

31
Q

Most common Lewis phenotype

32
Q

Are Lewis antibodies commonly NRCS

33
Q

Why do Lewis antibodies not commonly cause HDFN?

A

Usually IgM
Rarely IgG
Antigens not well developed at birth

34
Q

What Duffy phenotype are most whites

A

FyAB (a+b+)

35
Q

What Duffy phenotype are most blacks

36
Q

Cells with Fy (a-b-) phenotype are resistant to what

A

Plasmodium vivax infection

37
Q

At what phase do Duffy system antibodies show up

38
Q

What does enzyme treatment of cells do to reactivity of Fy antibodies

A

Terminated reactivity

39
Q

At what phase do Kidd antibodies show up

40
Q

What activity of Kidd allows for detection

A

Complement binding activity

Causes hemolysis

41
Q

Most common Kidd phenotype in whites

42
Q

Most common Kidd phenotype in blacks

43
Q

What trait of Kidd antibodies make them likely to cause HTR

A

Disappearing act, levels quickly fall to undetectable levels

44
Q

Is I activity stronger in adult or newborn

45
Q

Is i activity stronger in adult or newborn

46
Q

What type of adult has weak expression of I activity and strong expression of i activity and may develop a potent alloanti-I

A

ii phenotype seen in Japanese individuals

47
Q

Potent autoanti-i capable of causing transient hemolytic anemia is often associated with what disease

A

Infectious mono

48
Q

What precautions should be taken when transfusing a patient with a potent anti-I or -i

A

Blood warmer
Slower transfusion
Keep patient warm

49
Q

What cold reactive alloantibody can group A individuals make which will cause serum to react with all group O cells, but not with group A cells

A

Anti-IH
Must use pre warmed technique
Characteristically clumps at IS then goes away

50
Q

What antibodies are inactivated by enzyme treatment

A

XgA
Duffy (Fy)
M
N

51
Q

Characteristics of anti-XgA

A 
Doesn't usually cause HDFN 
66% of males 
89% of females 
Usually immune stimulated IgG 
Detected at AHG 
Binds complement 
Doesn't cause in vitro hemolysis
52
Q

Type of reactivity seen with anti-SdA

A

Mixed field pattern of small tightly agglutinated refractile clumps in background of free cells at AHG

53
Q

What can be used to neutralize anti-SdA

A

SdA substance found in urine

54
Q

Which blood group shows a relationship with the HLA antigens found on young nucleated RBCs

55
Q

HTLA stands for what

A

High titer low avidity

56
Q

Chief features of HTLA antibodies

A

Typically demonstrate weak reactivity that persists even when sera is significantly diluted,
Pattern of reactivity at AHG often not reproducible,
IgG antibodies may be immune or naturally occurring

57
Q

M and N code for production of which sialoglycoprotein?

A

Glycophorin A

Blood Antibodies (1 decks)

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