Blood Bank Flashcards by Elsie Soltura

With the addition of sample tabes, donors who weigh 50kg may donate the following maximum amount of whole blood
A. 450 ml
B. 475 m
C. 500 mL
D. 525 mL

d. 525 mL

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Which of the following tests is not required with routine donor unit processing?
A. Hbsag
B. Serologic test for syphilis
C. CMV
D. ABO / Rh

C. CMV h

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Which of the following blood pressures is unacceptable for donation?
A. 120/70
B. 145/90
C. 190/60
D. 110/80

C. 190/60

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Most apheresis equipment uses which of the following methods for separation?
A. Separation by centrifugation
B. Separation by membrane filtration
C. Separation by adsorption
D. Separation by osmosis

A. Separation by centrifugation

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Which of the following is not an action of the chemicals contained in common whole blood anticoagulants
A. Chelates the calcium to prevent blood from clotting
B. Maintains the pH level at optimal levels
C. Provides a substance for ATP generation
D. Prevents ATP production to increase viability of red cells

D. Prevents ATP production to increase viability of red cells

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Finished red blood cells may be transported at what temperature range?
A. 1-10°C
B. 2-12°C
C. 35-37°C
D. 20-24°C

A. 1-10°C

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Which of the following is not a step in platelet production?
A. Soft spin to sediment red blood cells
B. Hard spin to separate platelets from platelet-rich plasma
C. Separate of all but 40-70mL of plasma from platelet
D. Resting phase at 1-6°C

D. Resting phase at 16°C

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A red blood cell component prepared in an open system unit has what outdated?
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 35 days

C. 24 hours

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If the frequency of gene Y is 0.4 and the frequency of gene Z is 0.5, one would expect they should occur together 0.2 (20%) of the time. In actuality, they are found together 32% of the time. This is an example of
A. Crossing-over
B. Linkage disequilibrium
C. Polymorphism
D. Linkage equilibrium

B. Linkage disequilibrium

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Alternate forms of a gene that can occur at a single chromosome locus are referred to as
A. Traits
B. Alleles
C. Chromosomes
D. Phenotypes

B. Alleles

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Alternate forms of a gene that can occur at a single chromosome locus are referred to as
A. Traits
B. Alleles
C. Chromosomes
D. Phenotypes

B. Alleles

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A gene found only in a few individuals, usually in a particular race of family, is referred to as:
A. An amorphic gen
B. A public gene
C. A private gene
D. a genetic aberration

C. A private gene

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The following does not influence immunogenicity:
A. Shape and change of the antigen molecule
B. Sterility
C. Cute of administration
D. Size of molecule

B. Sterility

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Which of the following statement is true about antigen testing in a recently multiply-transfused patient?
A. Antigen typing by routine hemaaglutination methods gives accurate results
B. The transfused donor RBCs can be easily distinguished from patients own RBCs
C. DNA analysis is an effective tool for antigen prediction
D. Antigen typing is not required to manage these patients

C. DNA analysis is an effective tool for antigen prediction

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A blood sample is received for type and screen, but the sample is labeled with the patient’s last and first names only. What additional information is necessary for the sample to be acceptable for use?
A. A patient identification number or second patient identifier
B. Nothing else is required, the label is acceptable
C. Physician’s name
D. Patient location

A. A patient identification number or second patient identifier

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A review of previous records indicates a patient is group O. The current sample testing indicates the patient is group A.blood is needed urgently. What red blood cells should be selected for transfusion?
A. Group AB
B. Group B
C. Group o
D. Group A

C. Group O

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The criteria required for a “ computer” crossmatch include:
A. Two individuals comparing previous and past records
B. The optional use of a computer
C. Two concurrent determinations of the recipients ABO group, one of which is done on a current sample
D. The use ofa computer validated by the manufacturer

C. Two concurrent determinations of the recipients ABO group, one of which is done on a current sample

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A patient has an anti-E. What crossmatch should be performed?
A. A “computer” crossmatch
B. An immediate- spin crossmatch
C. A crossmatch that includes an incubation phase and testing with an antihuman globulin reagent
D. A crossmatch is not required

C. A crossmatch that includes an incubation phase and testing with an antihuman globulin reagent

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The final check for unit acceptability for transfusion is performed:
A. Before the unit is labeled
B. Just before issuing the unit
C.at the time a unit is selected for crossmatch
D. When the unit is labeled after pretransfusion testing

B. Just before issuing the unit

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The lectin used for detection of the H antigen is called:
A. Arches hypogaea
B. Dolichos biflorus
C. Alex europaeus
D. Salvia sclarea

C. Alex Europaeus

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Common sources of ABO discrepancies due to technical error include all the following except
A. Clerical mix-ups
B. Contaminated reagents
C. Warming of the fest
D. Patients with agammaglobulinemia

D. Patients with agammaglobulinemia

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Group A2 constitutes approximately what percentage of group A individuals?
A. 2%
B. 20%
C. 60%
D. 80%

B. 20%

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Which of the following is a carbohydrate antigen?
A. Jkª
B. Le b
C. AnWj
D. GIL.

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B. Leb

Select the correct numerical terminology to describe an individual with leach phenotype
A. GE: -2, -3,-4
B. GE: - 2, -3,4
C. GE: - 2, 3,4
D. GE: 2,3,4

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A. GE: - 2, -3,-4

Anti-U may be found in individuals with which of the following phenotype? A. M-N-S-s+ B. M+N-S-s+ C. S-s- D. S+s-

C. S-s-

Which of the following antigens are destroyed by fiction? A. M B. JKb C. Lea D. Doa

A. M

Which of the following blood system antibodies are notorious for weakening over time? A. Rh B. Duffy C. Diego D. Kidd

D. Kidd

Most immunologic refractoriness to platelets results from antibodiesto; A. HLA class I antigens B. HLA class II antigens C. HLA class III antigens D. ABO antigens

A. HLA class I antigens

Administration of multiple units of red cells and FFP to a patient with cardiac insufficiency would most likely results in which of the following? A. Extravascular hemolysis B. Allergic C. Anaphylactic D. Circulatory overload

D. Circulatory overload

Allergic reactions may be prevented or reduced by: A. Washing B. Filtration C. Irradiation D. A and B

A. Washing

Which combination of the following can be seen if a patient is experiencing an intrayascular transfusion reaction? A. Hemoglobinuria, increased haptoglobin, decreased bilirubin, hemoglobinemia B. Decreased haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria, hemoglobinemia, increased bilirubin C. Decreased haptoglobin, hemoglobinaria, hemoglobinemia, decrease bilirubin D. None of the above

B. Decreased haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria, hemoglobinemia, increased bilirubin

Which of the following is most effective at reducing the risk of transfusion related graft-versus host disease? A. Irradiate components at 25 Gy for susceptible patients B. Universal leukoreduction C. Provision of fresh units for immunosuppressed patients D. Use of an approved irradiator on red cell components for newborn babies

A. Irradiate components at 25 Gy for susceptible patients

The red cell component storage lesion may show changes with all of the following except: A. Changes in the shape of the red cell B. Decrease in extracellular potassium C. Changes in oxygen-carrying capacity D. Possible changes in clinical outcome in some patients

B. Decrease in extracellular potassium

What is the first step when a transfusion reaction is suspected ? A. Contact the blood bank and attending physician B. Assess for symptoms of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Immediately collect a blood sample for crossmatch verification D. Stop the transfusion

D. Stop the transfusion

Which of the following products does not transmit hepatitis? A. Packed red cell B. Fresh frozen plasma C. Platelets D. Plasma protein fraction

D. Plasma protein fraction

Individuals who have received injections of human growth hormone are permanently deferred from blood donation because of the possible transmission of an agent responsible for which of the following diseases? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis C. Creutzfeidt-Jakob disease D. Infectious mononucleosis

C. Creutzfeidt-Jakob disease

Donor history is the primary way many blood exclude units that may be infected with which of the following? A. HIV B. HTLV-1 C. Syphilis D. Malaria

D. Malaria

The most common type of HDFN is due to antibodies of the A. Kell system B. Kidd system C. Lewis system D. Rh system

D. Rh system

In HDFN, the greatest rick to the fetus prior to birth is due to A. Anemia B. Hyperbilirubinemia C. An enlarged head D. Bleeding

A. Anemia

After birth, the infant with severe HDFN is at risk for which of the following? A. Bleeding B. Brain damage C. Anemia D. Enlarged head

B. Brain damage

Since mapping of the human genome, the theory of Rh inheritance is based on. A. One gene-rh B. Three genes- D, C/c, and E/e C. Two genes-RHD and RHCE D. Five genes -D, C, c, E, and e

C. Two genes-RHD and RHCE

The rosette test is used to A. Screen for fetal lung maturity B. Screen for massive FMH C. Screen for IgG antibodies D. Quantitate massive FMH

B. Screen for massive FMH

The principle of the K-B test is resistance A. Of fetal hemoglobin to acid solutions B. Of fetal hemoglobin to alkaline solution C. Adult hemoglobin to alkaline solution D. Adult hemoglobin to acid solution

A. Of fetal hemoglobin to acid solutions

Cellular blood components for infants who have had an intrauterine transfusion are irradiated to prevent A. Sickle cell formation B. CMV transmission C. GVHD D. High potassium in the product

C. GVHD

The test that may not be positive in ABO HDFN is A. DAT B. Rosette test C. Kleihauer-Betke D. Crossmatch

A. DAT

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is characterized most frequently by which of the following serologic patterns ? A. DAT positive (IgG and C3) and a reactive eluate B. DAT positive (IgG only) and a nonreactive eluate C. DAT positive ( C3 only) and a reactive eluate D DAT positive (IgG and C3) and a nonreactive eluate

A. DAT positive (IgG and C3) and a reactive eluate

Which of the following is characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? A. The autoantibody is usually IgM B. The antibody is biphasic C. The antibody is usually detected in pretransfusion tests D. The antibody has a high liter at 4°C

B. The antibody is biphasic

In cold agglutinin syndrome, the DAT is usually positive for: A. C3 only B. IgM only C. IgG only D. IgG plus C3

A. C3 only

Screening cell, major crossmatch, and patient autocontrol are positive in 4 all phases. Identify the problem. A. Specific cold alloantibody B. Specific cold auto antibody C. Mixture of cold and warm all antibodies D. Nonspecific autoantibody or excess protein

D. Nonspecific autoantibody or excess protein

What is the most important consideration in patients suffering from life threatening anemia and whose serum contains warm autoantibodies? A. Determine the specificity of the autoantibody B. Determine the immunoglobulin class of the autoantibody C. Exclude the presence of alloantibody D. Avoid transfusion

C. Exclude the presence of alloantibody

The specificity of the antibody in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) is most often associated with which of the following blood group system ? A. ABO B. Kell C. Kidd D. Rh

D. Rh

A D- negative woman who received antepartum RhIG gave birth to a D-positive infant and received one vial of RhIG . The same day. Because of postpartum hemorrhage, her physician ordered two units of ABCs for her 2 days later. The antibody screening test was positive. But the cross matches was both compatible. The most likely cause for the positive antibody screening test was the presence of a (an): A. Clinically significant anti-K B. Actively acquired anti-D C. Passively acquired anti-D D. Rh antibody other than anti-D

C. Passively acquired anti-D

Which of the following antibodies present in an obstetric patient who has received multiple transfusions would be most likely to cause HDN in her infant? A. Anti- Lea B. Anti-c C. Anti-P1 D. Anti-k

B. Anti-c

The most conclusive way to demonstrate the antibody that is causing a positive DAT in a newborn is to perform an antibody: A. Titration using the mother's serum B. Panel using the mother’s serum C. Panel using an elaute from the mother's RBCs D. Panel using an eluate from the baby's RBCs

D. Panel using an eluate from the baby's RBCs.

A newborn is a group O, D-positive and has 3+ DAT. The mother’s antibody screening test is negative. Assuming the antibody detection is negative.

Blood Bank Flashcards

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