Blood and Immune B4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the average blood volume of a human?

A

5L. 14,000L circulates the heart every 24hrs

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2
Q

How much blood loss could be fatal to a human?

A

Any more than 20% flow is impaired and tissue is starved of oxygen

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3
Q

Oxygen, proteins glucose, lipids and essential ions are carried around the body by what connective tissue?

A

Blood

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4
Q

What system is responsible for the transportation of oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissue?

A

Arteries

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5
Q

What system is responsible for the transportation of deoxygenated blood from the tissue to the heart?

A

Veins

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6
Q

What system exchanges nutrients and waste between the tissue and blood?

A

Capillaries

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7
Q

What pressure is maintained by the elastic vessel wall (abundance of smooth muscle)?

A

Arterial Pressure

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8
Q

What pressure is lower due to the absence of elasticity in veins and one way valves are thus required for the prevention of back flow?

A

Venous pressure

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9
Q

How much of the total blood volume is made up from Red Blood Cells?

A

45%

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10
Q

How much does haemoglobin constitute of RBCs dry weight?

A

96%

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11
Q

If Fe2+ can bond to 1 Oxygen, how many can a haemoglobin carry?

A

4 Oxygens

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12
Q

This compound fatally targetes the Fe2+ containing cytochrome C Oxidase in the mitochondria (essential for respiration). Thus, stopping heart activity immediately.

A

Cyanide

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13
Q

Albumin, phosphate, bicarbonate, creatinine are all what in regards to blood?

A

All buffers blood

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14
Q

What disorder?
- Most inherited genetically. Impairs the bodies ability to make blood clots resulting int longer bleeding after injury, easy bruising, increased risk of bleeding internally.

A

Haemophilia

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15
Q

What is the viscous liquid fraction of uncoagulated blood?

A

Plasma

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16
Q

What is the straw liquid that remains after coagulation.. Which is normally yellow but after a fatty meal is cream coloured?

A

Serum

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17
Q

What technique is useful for detecting abnormal growth of plasma cells?

A

Blood seperation by Electrophoresis

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18
Q

Cells, Proteins, Lipids, Electrolytes, salts, minerals, vitamins, hormones and glucose all are major components of ?

A

Blood

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19
Q

What makes up 50% of total blood protein, is responsible for colloidal osmotic pressure, binds and transports many small molecules and proteins and affects drugs bioavailability?

A

Albumin

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20
Q

What is the 2nd most abundant of total blood protein, cleaved by the enzyme thrombin which forms cross linked fibrin which forms a blood clot?

A

Fibrinogen

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21
Q

What makes up 10% of total blood protein, is found in the y fraction, responsible for immunity, produced by plasma cells and is elevated in disease

A

Ig - Immunoglobulins

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22
Q

What is essential for the proteolytic activation cascade and is essential for innate immunity?

A

Complement - C’

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23
Q

What is a groups of zymogens (inactive until cleaved), essential for phagocytosis and innate immunity?

A

Complement - C’

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24
Q

What initiates the cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Coagulation

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25
Q

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils and monocytes are all what kind of cells?

A

Myeloid Cells

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26
Q

B and T lymphocytes are all what kind of cells?

A

Lymphocyte cells

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27
Q

G - CSF, GM-CSF and EPO are all factors of what process?

A

Haematopoiesis

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28
Q

Which pathway of the complement system is initiated by antibodies binding to the surface of the microbe. C1, C2, C3 and C4condense on the antibody to from a bound C3 convertase .

A

Classical Activation

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29
Q

Which pathway of the complement system activates C3 by simply being near the surface of the microbe which then activates another type of C3 convertase?

A

Alternative Pathway

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30
Q

Which pathway of the complement system involves lectins (a carbohydrate) binding to proteins in blood that then bind to unusual carbohydrates found only on microbes. Complement condenses on the bound lectins

A

Lectin Pathway

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31
Q

What are small polypeptides, generated by the cleavage of the larger complement proteins, are powerful chemoattractants that recruit and activate phagocytes to the site of infection?

A

Anaphylatoxins

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32
Q

The coagulation cascades activates what major blood protein?

A

Fibrinogen

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33
Q

Tissue damage and surface contact are 2 main pathways for what to activate?

A

Blood Coagulation

34
Q

Which pathway involves factors XII, XI, IX and VIII leading to the cleavage of factor X that converts prothrombin to thrombin ( which is caused by the contact of surfaces)?

A

Intrinsic Pathway

35
Q

Which pathway involves factors VII and tissue factors that combine to activate factor X which then activates thrombin ( which is caused by tissue damage?

A

Extrinsic Pathway

36
Q

What describes? A protease that is activated by tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) or streptokinase. Plasmin cleaves the fibrin clot resulting in thrombolysis?

A

Plasminogen

37
Q

What element is important within the coagulation cascade and if lacked then this can lead to no cascade occuring/clotting forms.

A

Calcium

38
Q

Which type of immunity has no memory, is your first line defence against infection and immediate?

A

Innate Immunity

39
Q

Which type of immunity has memory, slower, uses a vast array of receptors, recognises traits specific to particular pathogens?

A

Adaptive immunity

40
Q

Complement, phagocytosis and Pattern Recognition receptors are all factors of what?

A

Innate immunity

41
Q

What infection? Intracellular pathogens and uses host machinery for replication.

A

Viruses

42
Q

What infection? Predominately extracellular pathogens that are engulfed and destructed by phagocytic cells?

A

Bacteria, yeast and fungi

43
Q

What infection? Often multicellular, highly developed, can live in or out of cells, too big to be engulfed by macrophages so basophils, eosinophils and mast cells secrete inflammatory mediators and cytotoxic chemicals that kill.

A

Protozoa and other parasites

44
Q

Which step in recruiting a neutrophil? Chemokines from tissue injury activate the endothelial cells lining the insides of adjacent capillaries. Needs to be told when there is an infection.

A

Activation

45
Q

Which step in recruiting a neutrophil? Neutrophils slow and tether to the activated endothelial cells inside the capillary wall. Immediately selects, upregulated on endothelial cells + carbohydrate antigen surface on neutrophils.

A

Tethering

46
Q

Which step in recruiting a neutrophil? Strong binding between neutrophil integrins and ICAM-1 on the endothelium. Neutrophils flatten out.

A

Adhesion

47
Q

Which step in recruiting a neutrophil? Neutrophil squeezes between endothelial cells and out of the capillary into the tissue.

A

Diapedesis

48
Q

Which step in recruiting a neutrophil? Neutrophil migrates along a chemokine gradient to the site of infection.

A

Chemotaxis

49
Q

Which process involves coating microbes with complement proteins to form complex complement convertase ready for phagocytosis? If not … neutrophils and macrophages will not engulf.

A

Opsonisation

50
Q

What is the most important and main neutrophil receptor?

A

CR1

51
Q

These 5 steps are of what?

Ingestion, Fusion, Acidification, Digestion and Exocytosis

A

Phagocytosis

52
Q

Gram -ve or +ve?
Thick peptidoglycan cell wall (defence), requires phagocytosis, not killed directly by complement.
e.g S. pyogenes

A

Gram +ve

53
Q

Gram -ve or +ve
Thin peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane, bacteria can often be lysed directly by complement Membrane Attack Complex.
E.g E.Coli, LPS is released that could lead to septic shock

A

Gram -ve

54
Q

What kind of lymphatic vessel?

Flows into a lymph node and carries unfiltered lymph fluid

A

Afferent lymphatic vessel

55
Q

What kind of lymphatic vessel?

Flows out of a lymph node and carries filtered lymph fluid

A

Efferent lymphatic vessel

56
Q

Are the bone marrow and thymus primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

Primary

57
Q

Are the lymph node and spleen primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

Secondary

58
Q

B or T cell? Begins in the bone marrow and matures in secondary lymphatic organs. Produces antibodies and form the humoral (soluble) arm of the adaptive response.

A

B Cell

59
Q

B or T cell? Begins as immature in the thymus gland where they mature into function cells. Provides cellular adaptive immunity.

A

T Cell

60
Q

B or T receptor? Antigen receptor is membrane bound IgM molecule, associated with intracellular molecules that transmit an activation signal via phosphorylation

A

B Cell receptor

61
Q

B or T receptor? Antigen receptor is .. Cell receptor, associated with a number of surface molecules. 2 important ones are CD4 and CD8.

A

T Cell receptor

62
Q

What Ig is the default antibody made by all immature B cells?

A

IgM

63
Q

What is the rarest Ig? causes atopic allergy

A

IgE

64
Q

What Ig have the highest affinity anitbodies and is most important for adaptive immunity?

A

IgG

65
Q

What Ig involves a serum and membrane?

A

IgD

66
Q

What Ig involves serum and mucosa and is important for nasal immunity? Found in breast milk and is thus most abundant for infants and foetuses.

A

IgA

67
Q

What occurs to introduce random mutations into the rearranged V-D-J genes?

A

Somatic hypermutation

68
Q

What Ig is made high affinity during vaccination?

A

IgG

69
Q

When T lymphocytes respond to MHC II, they become…

A

CD4, helper T cells by secreting cytokines, 80% of bloods T cells

70
Q

When T lymphocytes respond to MHC I, they become..

A

CD8, cytotoxic T cells, kill other infected cells, 20% of bloods T cells

71
Q

TcR only recognises one antigen which is?

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

72
Q

MHC Class I or II?

Picks up peptide antigens from inside the cell and presents them to CD8 which then kills the presenting cell.

A

MHC I

73
Q

MHC Class I or II?

Picks up digested antigens from the phagolysosome and presents them to CD4.

A

MHC II

74
Q

What CD does the HIV virus and AIDS use?

A

CD4

75
Q

What is the most common form of immune disorder with 30% having some form. Limited to mucosal surfaces of the eyes, nose, throat and upper respiratory tract.

A

Allergy

76
Q

Asthma, skin allergies and anaphylaxis is an example of what type of allergy?

A

Type I Allergies

77
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity?
Atopic, Immediate, IgE mediated. Mast cells offer protection against complex organisms as they cant be engulfed by phagocytosis.

A

Type I

78
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity?

Complement mediated, medium and phagocytes

A

Type II

79
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity?

Serum sickness, immune complexes, medium (less common)

A

Type III

80
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity?

Delayed, deflection of TB, slow response

A

Type IV

81
Q

The scratch test takes advantage of what type of allergic response?

A

Type IV as it is the slow response