Blood and Bleeding Flashcards

1
Q

what are the structural features of a red blood cell and how do these assist its function? (2)

A
  • biconcave disc - increase surface area and provide flexibility in capillaries with smaller diameter than that of the cell
  • no nucleus - more space for Hb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 requirements of a red blood cell?

A
  • pass repeatedly through micro circulation where diameter may be smaller than that of RBC
  • maintain Hb in a reduced (ferrous) state
  • maintain osmotic equilibrium despite high protein concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the main cytoskeleton proteins in RBCs?

A

actin and spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the structure of a RBC? (3)

A
  • protein with quaternary structure - 4 polypeptide chains: 2 alpha and 2 beta
  • each chain has its own haem group
  • each haem ring has a ferrous (Fe 2+) atom at its centre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe how the confirmation of Hb changes (3)

A
  • Hb can bind to a max of 4 O2 atoms - shape changes as more O2 atoms bind
  • no O2 - taut with fewer binding sites available
  • 1 O2 binds - more relaxed shape, therefore increased O2 affinity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the Bohr shift using P50 (4)

A
  • P50 is the ppO2 at which 50% of Hb is saturated
  • during high energy usage (eg. exercise), increased CO2 conc. lowers blood pH
  • blood lowers O2 affinity to increase unloading to supply respiring tissues
  • O2 dissociation curve shifts to right (decreased O2 saturation at a given ppO2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is normal blood distributed when a sample is centrifuged?

A
  • largest top layer of plasma (~55%)
  • very think buffs coat containing leukocytes
  • bottom haematocrit layer containing RBCs and platelets (~45%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the difference between plasma and serum?

A
  • plasma contains fibrinogen + components in preparation coagulation
  • serum is what remains after components are used in coagulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

from what cell are platelets derived and how are they formed? what is this cell’s lineage?

A
  • megakaryocyte - platelets bed off from cell surface

* myeloid lineage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the structure of a platelet? (3)

A
  • small and disc-shaped
  • no nucleus
  • contain granules involved in clot formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the sequence of primary haemostasis? (4)

A

1 - endothelium of a blood vessel is breached, so cells release endothelin to cause vasoconstriction
2 - von Willerbrand factor is exposed and collagen forms to promote platelet adherence and activation
3 - platelets attach, change shape and release granules
4 - allows platelets to aggregate and form a primary platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the principle behind the coagulation cascade?

A

circulating tissues are activated to form proteases to catalyse the next reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the differences between coagulation in vivo and in vitro? (3)

A
  • in vitro - tissue factor has a different role
  • 2 separate pathways that are not integrated
  • thrombin does not have an amplifying effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the coagulation pathway in vitro (6)

A

1 - -ve charged surface (eg. glass beads) added to solution
2 - activates intrinsic cascade culminating in activation of IX (Xmas)
3 - extrinsic pathway involves the activation of VII using tissue factor
4 - pathways converge as both VIIa and IXa are required to activate X (Stuart)
5 - (common pathway) Xa catalyses prothrombin to thrombin
6 - thrombin then catalyses the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into fibrin to form clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the basic coagulation sequence of clotting in vivo? (6)

A

1 - tissue factor exposed after vascular damage
2 - activates VII, which activates IX (Xmas factor)
3 - IXa activates X (Stuart factor)
4 - Xa catalyses prothrombin to thrombin
5 - thrombin catalyses fibrinogen to fibrin to form clot
6 - thrombin also enhances cascade processes further up (+ve feedback loop amplifying the effect of tissue factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe how a fibrin clot is formed (3)

A

1 - fibrinogen (soluble) is catalysed by thrombin -> peptidolysis
2 - fibrin is insoluble and begins to form a soft clot with lattice structure
3 - hard clot develops as fibrin cross-links form

18
Q

why is fibrinolysis necessary?

A

after endothelium of blood vessel is restored, thrombus must be removed to restore normal blood flow

19
Q

describe the process of fibrinolysis (3)

A

1 - endothelial cells release plasminogen activator
2 - converts plasminogen to plasmin
3 - plasmin digests both fibrin and fibrinogen to break down the clot

20
Q

what is the broad definition of shock?

A

a clinical syndrome where tissue perfusion (fluid in organs) and hence oxygenation is inadequate to maintain normal metabolic function

21
Q

what are the 5 main types of shock?

A

1 - hypovolaemic: haemorrhagic, burns, severe dehydration
2 - cardiogenic: pump failure
3 - septic: fluid redistribution due to leaking capillaries + vasodilation (usually in response to severe infection)
4 - spinal / neuro: loss of proper vascular tone
5 - anaphylactic: allergic reaction resulting in a combination of the above

22
Q

why does shock lead to increased heart rate an breathing rate?

A

hypoperfusion -> not enough blood is being pumped around the body, therefore body compensates

23
Q

why does blood pressure only drop in class III and IV shock?

A

HR and BR try to maintain BP as long as possible

24
Q

what is the ABCDE of advanced trauma life support?

A

Airway w/ cervical spine control
Breathing with oxygenation
Circulation with haemorrhage control
Disability - assessment with Glasgow Coma Scale
Exposure (eg. cover with warm blankets etc.)

25
Q

how much blood is lost in the classifications I - IV of hypovolaemic shock?

A

I: <750ml
II: 750-1500ml
III: 1500-2000ml
IV: >2000ml

26
Q

what response does each colour warrant in the Manchester Triage System? give examples of each category

A

red: see immediately - airway compromise, unresponsive, shock
amber: within 10 mins - very low perforation, very low oxygen saturation, acute onset after injury
yellow: within 1 hour - low perforations, low oxygen saturation, chest pain while breathing
green: within 2 hours - wheeze, chest infection, recent problem
blue (non-urgent) - none of the above

27
Q

how are the 2 coagulation pathways assessed?

A

extrinsic - prothrombin time (PT)

intrinsic - activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) assay

28
Q

what effect does heparin have on the APTT?

A

no coagulation because heparin is an anti-coagulant

29
Q

what is the effect of removing Ca ions from solution in the APTT?

A

no coagulation as calcium is an essential component of coagulation

30
Q

what effect does benzamidine have on the APTT?

A

time for clot to form increases because benzamidine acts as a protease inhibitor