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Medical Genetics > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

4 main components of blood

A

Plasma, RBC, WBC, platelets

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2
Q

What are the formed elements

A

RBC WBC and platelets

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3
Q

Plasma?

A

Clear yellow liquid portion of blood

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4
Q

What does plasma contain

A

Formed elements, electrolytes, waste, plasma proteins, antibodies, glucose, antigens, clotting factors

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5
Q

What is serum

A

Plasma without the clotting factors

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6
Q

What is the main job of plasma

A

Transport blood, waste, antibodies, clotting proteins, chemical messengers, electrolytes

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7
Q

What are the three cells derived from lymphoid stem cells

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, NK cells

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8
Q

GMCSF

A

Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor

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9
Q

GCSF

A

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor

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10
Q

SCF

A

Stem cell factor

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11
Q

MCSF

A

Macrophage colony stimulating factor

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12
Q

TPO

A

Thrombopoeitin

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13
Q

Reticulocyte?

A

Immature red blood cell in circulation

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14
Q

Function of erythrocyte

A

Transport oxygen and regulate inflammation with chemokine sink

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15
Q

How do mature erythrocytes look

A

Biconcave cave, disc shaped, no nuclei

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16
Q

Where are RBCs removed from circulation

A

Spleen

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17
Q

Where is their central pallor

A

Normal RBC. Should be 1/3 of its diameter

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18
Q

What is the most common general blood disorder

A

Anemia

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19
Q

Where are howell jolly bodies found

A

Macrocytic anemia

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20
Q

Anisocytosis

A

RBC of unequal size

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21
Q

poikilocytosis

A

RBC of abnormal shape

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22
Q

What is the predominant formed element in the blood

A

Neutrophil

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23
Q

What color do you neutrophil stain

A

Neutral

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24
Q

What is the first line of defense against invading microorganisms

A

Neutrophils

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25
Q

What are the shortest lived granulocytes

A

Neutrophils

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26
Q

What did the granules of neutrophils contain

A

Microbicidal enzymes

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27
Q

What happens to neutrophils during an infection

A

Immature and mature neutrophils increase in number

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28
Q

What color are the granules in basophils

A

Dark blue/violet

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29
Q

What do basophils store

A

Histamine and heparin

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30
Q

When is histamine released? What is this do

A

During allergic responses which is a vasodilator that increases blood flow to tissues

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31
Q

What is heparin? What does it do?

A

Anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting to quickly

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32
Q

What color do you eosinophils stain

A

Pink/red

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33
Q

What do the granules of Eosinophils contain

A

Digestive enzymes effective against parasitic worms

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34
Q

What do eosinophils do

A

Phagocytose antigen/antibody complexes

35
Q

What granulocyte is involved in allergic and asthmatic responses

A

Eosinophils

36
Q

What do B lymphocytes do

A

Synthesize antibodies

37
Q

What do T lymphocytes do

A

Participate in the specific immune response

38
Q

What are the smallest of the formed elements

A

Platelets

39
Q

What are platelets

A

Fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte

40
Q

Where are platelets located in the body

A

Either in circulation or in the spleen

41
Q

What are the two types of platelet granules

A

Dense and alpha

42
Q

What can initiate degranulation

A

Thrombin, ADP, collagen, PAF

43
Q

What is the first step in coagulation cascade

A

Activation of factor X to factor Xa

44
Q

What is the coagulation test for the intrinsic pathway? Extrinsic?

A

Intrinsic- APTT

Extrinsic-PT

45
Q

How long is the aPTT test

A

23-31 sec

46
Q

How long is the PT test

A

8.9-11.3 sec

47
Q

What does aPTT test screen for

A

I’ll coagulation factors except VII and TF

48
Q

What does PT test screen for

A

FII (prothrombin), FVII, FV,FX,fibrinogen

49
Q

What is the differential white blood cell count

A

Total number of white blood cells and proportion of each type of white cell

50
Q

What is the production of WBC in Leukopoeisis controlled by

A

Cytokines such as colony stimulating factors

51
Q

What are bacterial infections usually associated with?

A

Increase proportion of neutrophils and monocytes

52
Q

What are viral infections usually associated with?

A

Increase proportion of lymphocytes

53
Q

What is composed of a complete blood count (CBC)

A

Size of the total red cell mass, volume of a red blood cell, adequacy of hemoglobin synthesis

54
Q

What is the size of the total red cell mass described by

A

Hemoglobin concentration (Hb), hematocrit (HCT)/ packed cell volume (PCV), red blood cell count (RBC)

55
Q

What is the red blood cell count

A

Number of red cells per liter of blood

56
Q

What is hemoglobin concentration

A

Amount of hemoglobin in a volume of blood

57
Q

What is hematocrit/packed cell volume

A

Ratio of volume of red cells to volume of whole blood

58
Q

What is mean cell volume (MCV)

A

Average size of a red blood cell

59
Q

How is MCV calculated

A

Dividing hematocrit by red blood cell count

60
Q

What does it mean if the mean cell volume is less than 80 fL

A

Red cells are small which is microcytosis

61
Q

What does it mean if the mean cell volume is more than 100 fL

A

Red cells are large which is macrocytosis

62
Q

What two variables are used to describe the adequacy of hemoglobin synthesis

A

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH) and mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

63
Q

What is mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)

A

Average amount of hemoglobin in the average red cell

64
Q

How do you calculate MCH

A

Divide hemoglobin concentration by red blood cell count

65
Q

What is MCHC

A

Average concentration of hemoglobin in red cells

66
Q

How do you calculate MCHC

A

MCH/MCV

67
Q

What is it called of the red cell mass decreases

A

Anemia

68
Q

What is it called if the red cell mass increases

A

Polycythemia

69
Q

When the reduced hemoglobin concentration and hematocrit indicate the presence of anemia, what can be used to determine if the rate of red cell production is normal

A

Reticulocyte count

70
Q

Two general causes of decreased red cell survival

A

Hemorrhage in hemolytic anemia

71
Q

Three requirements for normal red cell production

A

Functional bone marrow, erythropoietin, adequate nutrient supply for hemoglobin synthesis

72
Q

What does a high red cell mass increase

A

Viscosity of blood and risk of thrombosis

73
Q

What is the most common cause of polycythemia

A

Increased levels of EPO

74
Q

Three phases of primary hemostasis?

A

Platelet adhesion, platelet activation, platelet aggregation

75
Q

What are the three antiplatelet drugs

A

Aspirin/NSAID, clopidogrel/ticlopidine, and eptifibatide

76
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway triggered

A

When blood contacts a negatively charged service

77
Q

When is the extrinsic pathway activated

A

When blood contacts cells outside the vascular endothelium

78
Q

What tests are used to assess the function of primary and secondary hemostatic mechanisms

A

Bleeding time, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time

79
Q

Bleeding time?

A

Sensitive test of platelet function where incision is made in the forearm and amt of time it takes for bleeding to stop is recorded

80
Q

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)

A

Blocks action of activated factor VII

81
Q

Antithrombin III

A

Binds to activated factor X and thrombin to inhibit coagulation

82
Q

Thrombomodulin

A

Inhibits coagulation by binding to thrombin

83
Q

Protein C and S

A

Inactivates factors V and VIII

84
Q

Heparin

A

Helps anticoagulation effects of antithrombin III

Medical Genetics (15 decks)

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