Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chapter 17 > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the formed elements Made of?

A

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the percentage of hematocrit?

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal pH of blood?

A

7.35 - 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the normal temperature of blood?

A

38°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the percentage of plasma?

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

distribution is what?

A

Oxygen from the lungs and nutrients from the digestive tract, metabolic wastes from cells to the lungs for eliminations, hormones from endocrine glands to target organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Regulation is what?

A

Body temperature, absorbs and distributes heat, normal pH in body tissue using buffer systems, adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Protection?

A

Prevents blood loss and prevents infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Plasma composition

A

60% albumin, 36% globulins, 4% fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Function of electrolytes?

A

Helps Maintain Plasma osmotic pressure And normal blood pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Function of albumin

A

It is the main contributor to osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Function of globulins

A

36% of plasma proteins (contribute to osmotic pressure and maintain water balance in blood and tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Function of fibrinogen

A

Forms fibrin threads (mesh) of a blood clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of nutrients

A

Materials absorbed from digestive tract and transported for use throughout body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Function of gases

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide (energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Function of hormones

A

Steroid and thyroid hormones carried by plasma proteins turn something on or off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does uric acid come from?

A

Uric acid comes from eating too much proteins (amino acids it is the breakdown of purine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does urea come from?

A

Urea is produced in the liver (breaks down amino acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where does creatinine come from?

A

From using your muscles (breaks down energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Erythrocytes shape

A

Biconcave discs, anucleate, no organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Erythrocytes function

A

Dedicated to respiratory gas transport. Hemoglobin binds up to four oxygen molecules and transports the oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Filled with hemoglobin (protein that functions in gas transport) contains plasma membrane proteins spectrin and other protein helps with their flexibility and allows them to change shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin bound to oxygen (oxygen loading takes place in the lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Deoxyhemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin after oxygen diffuses into tissues (reduced hemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Carbaminohemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin bound to carbon dioxide (CO2 takes place in the tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Produces formed elements. Occurs in red bone marrow of the axial skeleton and girdles the epiphysis of the humerus and femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hemocytoblast

A

Stem cell- gives rise to all formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Young erythrocytes, named for the reticulum or network of clumped ribosomes, Account for 1 to 2% of all erythrocytes. Reticulocyte count provide rough index of the rate of RBC formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Production of erythrocytes, hormonally controlled depends on an adequate supply of iron, amino acids, and B vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tissue hypoxia

A

Too few erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Blood viscosity

A

Too many erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Erythropoiesis regulation

A

Circulating erythrocytes number remains constant and reflects a balance between red blood cell production and destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

Released by kidneys (hormonal control)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Erythropoiesis Homeostatic imbalance

A

Kidney failure results in too little EPO production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens to old erythrocytes?

A

Become rigid and fragile and their hemoglobin begins to degenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens to old Heme?

A

It’s degraded to Bilirubin (yellow pigment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what would happen to levels of bilirubin in a person with severe liver disease?

A

The bilirubin levels would rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia

A

Result of acute or chronic loss of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hemolytic anemia

A

Prematurely ruptured red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Iron-deficiency anemia

A

Secondary result hemorrhagic anemia, not eating enough iron containing foods, impaired iron absorption, Red blood cells appear small, pale=microcytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

Deficiency of vitamin B 12, lack of intrinsic factor in intestinal mucosa needed to absorb B 12, red blood cells are large and pale=macrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Thalassemia

A

Absent or faulty globin chain in hemoglobin, RBCs are thin, delicate and hemoglobin deficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Defective gene coding for an abnormal hemoglobin called hemoglobins (Hbs) single amino acid sub in beta chain, RBCs become sickle shaped when they unload O2 or low oxygen

45
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

Bone marrow cancer

46
Q

Secondary polycythemia

A

Increased EPO production because of high-altitude

47
Q

Leukocytes

A

Only blood components that are complete cells, less numerous than red blood cells and make up less than 1% of total blood volume, they move through tissue spaces by amoeboid motion

48
Q

Diapedesis

A

The way White blood cells leave capillaries

49
Q

Positive chemotaxis

A

Signals white blood cells to a specific site

50
Q

Leukocytosis

A

WBC count goes up because of an infection

51
Q 
Never 
let
monkeys
eat
bananas
A 
The most to least abundant 
 neutrophil
 lymphocyte 
monocyte 
eosinophil 
basophil
52
Q

“Bacteria slayers”

A

Neutrophil

53
Q

T cells and B cells

A

Lymphocyte

54
Q

Which granulocytes and which are agranulocyte? How can you tell the difference?

A

Granulocyte: neutrophils, eosinophil, basophils
agranulocyte: lymphocytes monocyte
agranulocyte lack visible cytoplasmic granules

55
Q

Peroxidase

A

Protein-based enzyme that acts as a catalyst of oxidation of some organic substrate

56
Q

Hydrolytic enzymes

A

Break down proteins, carbs and fat molecules into their simplest unit

57
Q

Defensins

A

Antibiotic like protein. anti microbial protein

58
Q

Mast cells

A

Granulated cells similar to basophil. cluster with white blood cells & detect foreign substances, in tissue spaces and initiates local inflammatory responses against them

59
Q

T cells

A

Part of the immune response that attack cells infected by viruses “fighters”

60
Q

B cells

A

Give rise to plasma cells which produce antibodies “stay in bone marrow”

61
Q

Macrophages

A

Highly mobile and actively phagocytic, activate lymphocytes to mount an immune response. they eat dead RBCs

62
Q

Leukopoiesis

A

Production of leukocytes

63
Q

Cytokines

A

Cell movement, act as chemical messenger

64
Q

Interleukins

A

Stimulate growth and maturation of white blood cells

65
Q

CSFs Colony stimulating factor

A

Stimulate growth and maturation of white blood cells (more like a group) named for the leukocytes they stimulate

66
Q

Myelocytic leukemia

A

Involves myeloblasts

67
Q

Lymphocytic leukemia

A

Involves lymphocytes

68
Q

Acute leukemia

A

Involves blast type cells and primarily affects children

69
Q

Chronic leukemia

A

Is more prevalent in older people

70
Q

Mononucleosis

A

“Mono” Cause By Epstein-Barr virus marked by excessive agranulocyte, no cure, must run its course
symptoms: achy, rundown, sore throat, low-grade fever

71
Q

Platelets

A

Fragments of megakaryocyte, granules contain serotonin,CA2+, enzymes, ADP (PDGF) function in clotting mechanism by forming temporary plug. Those not involved in clotting are kept inactive by NO and prostacyclin

72
Q

Megakaryocyte

A

Fragments of extraordinary large cells, platelets come from the breakdown of these cells

73
Q

Hemostasis

A

Fast series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding

74
Q

Hemostasis 3 phases

A
  1. Vascular spasms- immediate vasoconstriction in response to injury
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. coagulation (blood clotting)
75
Q

What is the difference between cohesion and adhesion?

A

Cohesion the joining of like particles

adhesion is the joining of unlike particles

76
Q

Coagulation

A

Set of reaction in which blood is transformed from liquid to a gel, follows intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

77
Q

Coagulation 3 steps

A
  1. Prothrombin activator is formed
  2. prothrombin converted into thrombin (an enzyme)
  3. Thrombin catalyzes the joining us fibrinogen into a fibrin mesh which glues platelets together (needs vitamin K)
78
Q

What is the difference between thrombus and embolus?

A

Thrombus a stuck blood clot

embolus is a freely moving thrombus

79
Q

Clot retraction

A

Stabilization of the clot by squeezing Serum from the fibrin strands compacting the clot

80
Q

repair

A

Fibroblasts form a connective tissue patch

81
Q

PDGF platelet-derived growth factor

A

Stimulates rebuilding of blood vessel wall

82
Q

VEGF Vascular endothelial growth factor

A

Multiply and restore the epithelial lining

83
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

A process by which unneeded clots are removed after healing

84
Q

Plasmin

A

“Clot-buster” produced from plasminogen which digests the fibrin web

85
Q

tPA

A

Tissue plasminogen activator activates the plasma protein plasminogen which is incorporated with the forming clot which is dormant until activated

86
Q

Briefly explain what keeps platelets from sticking to capillary walls?

A

The walls are smooth and produce nitric oxide and prostacyclin
Prostacyclin is an inner lining that prevents platelets from sticking

87
Q

Briefly explain what makes platelets stick to capillary walls?

A

Platelets attached to a protein called VWF

88
Q

Heparin

A

Anticoagulant, also inhibits thrombin activity, is used for pre-and postoperative cardiac care

89
Q

Antithrombin III

A

Inactivates thrombin not bound to fibrin

90
Q

Smooth endothelial lining

A

Prevents platelet adhesion

91
Q

Aspirin

A

An anti prostaglandin that inhibits thromboxane A2

92
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Used for those prone to atrial fibrillation (b/c blood pools in the heart) interferes with vitamin k producing procoagulants

93
Q

Hemostasis disorder

A

Pulmonary emboli can impair ability of the body to obtain oxygen, cerebral emboli can cause strokes, coronary thrombosis, carotid artery thrombosis

94
Q

DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulations- widespread clotting intact blood vessels, residuals blood unable to clot blockage of blood flow and severe bleeding follows
“Common in pregnancy”

95
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Condition where the # of circulating platelets is deficient, platelet count less than 50,000/mm3, caused by suppression or destruction of bone marrow, treated with whole blood transfusion

96
Q

Petechiae

A

Purple spots caused from wide spread hemorrhage

97
Q

Hemophilia

A

Hereditary bleeding disorder caused by lack of clotting factors. Hemophilia A most common. Hemophilia B & C

98
Q

X-linked disorders

A

Hemophilia A & B

comes from the mother goes to the son

99
Q

Human blood groups

A

RBCs membranes have glycoprotein antigens on external surfaces. Antigens are unique to individual. Recognized as foreign if transfused into another individual, promoters of agglutination and are referred to as agglutinogens

100
Q

Agglutination

A

Particles clumping together

101
Q

Autologous transfusion?

A

Blood is removed from the donor, stored and returned to the same donor circulation

102
Q

What causes erythroblastosis fetalis? how can we prevent it?

A

Develops in an unborn baby when the mother and baby have different blood types. the mothers antibodies attack the babies Red blood cells if it’s Rh compatibility the mother takes RhoGAM a certain times during pregnancy

103
Q

Who is considered the theoretical universal recipient?

A

AB+

104
Q

Who is considered the theoretical universal donor?

A

O-

105
Q

What would a larger than normal Buffy coat indicate?

A

Leukemia, or infection

106
Q

What would a high eosinophil count indicate?

A

A parasitic disease or allergic response

107
Q

What would a low prothrombin time indicate?

A

A lack of clotting factor problem

108
Q

What would pale colored blood indicate

A

Iron-deficiency anemia or pernicious anemia

109
Q

Diagnostic blood test

A

Microscopic examination and chemical analysis

Chapter 17 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions