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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of blood?

A

1.) Transportation - transports nutrients throughout the body

2.) Regulation - temperature

3.) Protection- carry white blood cells

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2
Q

What are typical values for blood pH, specific gravity, volume, and hematocrit?

A

Classification of tissue: Complex connective tissue

pH - 7.38 (normal pH 7.35-7.45)

specific gravity (denser than water) - 1.015 - 1.024 L

volume - 5-5.5 L for men , 4-5 L for women

hematocrit (percentage of RBC in blood) - 45%

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3
Q

Blood is classified as what type of tissue?

A

connective tissue

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4
Q

What part of the blood is the non-living matrix?

A

plasma

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5
Q

Describe the 2 things that contribute to the composition of whole blood.

A

plasma (55%)

3 formed elements (45%)

1.) Erythrocytes (red blood cells): transports respiratory gases in blood; transports O2 and CO2 btw tissues and lungs; produced in red bone marrow

2.) Leukocytes (white blood cells): defends body against pathogens

3.) Platelets: help clot blood and prevent blood loss from damaged vessels

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6
Q

Describe the composition of plasma.

A

92% h2O

8% solutes (plasma proteins)

made in the liver btw

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7
Q

What is the primary component of plasma?

A

water

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8
Q

Identify the 3 main types of plasma proteins and describe the general functions of each.

A

(58%) Albumins - helps regulate fluid balance, contributes to blood viscosity, transports selected molecules

( 37% ) Globulins -
- Alpha Globulins : transports lipids and some metal ions
- Beta Globulins : transports lipids and iron ions
- Gamma Globulins: antibodies that immobilize pathogens

(smallest amount 4%) Fibrinogen - clotting protein

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9
Q

What is the most numerous blood cell?

A

erythrocytes

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10
Q

In adults, where are the formed elements of the blood produced?

A

red bone marrow

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11
Q

Describe the structure and function of mature erythrocytes (RBCs).

A

structure:
- flexible, disk shape
- mature ones are anucleate (lack a nucleus)

characteristic:
- carry hemoglobin and 4x oxygen atoms
- part of your 45% hematocrit in blood, (the volume percentage of red blood cells in blood)

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12
Q

Describe the molecular structure of hemoglobin (Hb). How does adult Hb (HbA) differ
from fetal Hb (HbF)?

A

hemoglobin carries oxygen

structure: four polypeptide subunits : two alpha and two beta chains

-each chain has a globular shape and has a heme group embedded in the center

-each heme group contains an atom of iron

How does adult hemoglobin differs from fetal
- fetal heme has high oxygen affinity

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13
Q

Fetal Hb has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult Hb. Why is the higher oxygen
affinity of HbF beneficial to the fetus?

A

because it can take oxygen from the mother

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14
Q

What is the typical lifespan of RBCs?

A

80-120 days

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15
Q

Where are worn-out/damaged RBCs removed from the blood and broken down? What
type of cell performs this function?

A

Macrophages break them down in the liver and spleen

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16
Q

Describe the Hb breakdown products and tell how they are handled.

A

diagram

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17
Q

Name the hormone that stimulates RBC production. What organ releases this
hormone?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO) is released by the kidneys

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18
Q

Describe the negative feedback regulation of erythropoiesis (RBC production)

A

1.) hypoxia (low O2) occurs due to: a decreased RBC count, decreased amount of hemoglobin, decreased avilablity of O2

2.) which triggers the kidneys to release EPO

3.) EPO stimulus red bone marrow

4.) The enhanced EPO increased RBC count

5.) the more RBC, the more hemoglobin, the more O2 entering the blood stream

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19
Q

Describe the stages of RBC development from pluripotent stem cell to mature RBC.

A

Pluripotent/Hemocytoblast to Myeloid stem cell

Day 0 - Proerythroblast (committed to be a RBC)

Day 4- Phase 1 : Early Erythroblast (ribosome synthesis)
to Phase 2: Late erythroblast (hemoglobin accumulation)

Day 14 - normoblast to Phase 3: reticulocyte (ejection of nucleus and other organelles)

Leaving the bone marrow and entering the blood stream
*reticulocyte counts in the blood let us know the rate of RBC production

Day 15 or 16 : Mature RBC: Erythrocyte- center region collapses and the cell volume is less

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20
Q

Late in RBC development, the cell ejects its nucleus. What is the cell called after it
ejects its nucleus?

A

reticulocyte

21
Q

At which stage of development do RBCs leave the bone marrow and enter the
circulation?

A

phase 3: the 1-2 days before a reticulocyte turns into a erythrocyte
(days 15, 16)

22
Q

What are three common causes of anemia?

A

1.) insufficient number of RBCs

2.) decreased hemoglobin content of RBCs

3.) abnormal hemoglobin (not capable of delivering oxygen normally)

23
Q

Describe how leukocytes (WBCs) use diapedesis, amoeboid motion, and positive
chemotaxis to move around in the body.

A

diapedesis- movement of WBC, diffusing from blood vessels to interstitial fluid

amoeboid motion- they “swim” through body fluids

positive chemotaxis- when leukocytes move towards a pathogen during an infection or injury

24
Q

Identify the two general categories of WBCs and name the specific cells assigned to
each category.

A

GRANULOCYTES -
- lobed nuclei
- have granules in the cytoplasm
- avg life span is approx 12 hrs

three types:
- neutrophils (also known as polymorphonuclear cells)
- eosinophils
-basophils

AGRANULOCYTES -
- nuclei are spherical, oval or kidney shaped
- much LONGER LIFE SPAN than granulocytes

two types:
MONOCOYTES - develop into free (wandering) or fixed (in specific tissue and perform their roles there) MACROPHAGES

lymphocytes - small proportion found in blood , mostly found in lymphoid tissue and organs

25
Q

Which category of leukocyte has the longest life span?

A

Agranulocytes

26
Q

Describe the histological characteristics and general function of each type of WBC.

A

granulocytes
three types:

neutrophils (also known as polymorphonuclear cells) - active phagocytes, chemically attracted to inflammation sites

eosinophils
- provide defense against parasitic worms
- play a role in allergic reactions

basophils
- release histamine at inflammation sites
- also release heparin

agranulocytes
two types:
MONOCOYTES - develop into free (wandering) or fixed (in specific tissue and perform their roles there) MACROPHAGES
- phagocytic
- play role in lymphocyte activation

lymphocytes - small proportion found in blood , mostly found in lymphoid tissue and organs
- two main types are T and B lymphocytes
- involved in the immune response

27
Q

List the various types of WBCs in order from most to least numerous.

A

Never : Neurophils (50-70%)
Let : Lymphocytes (25-35%)
Monkeys : Monocytes (4-8%)
Eat : Eosinophils (1-4%)
Bananas: Basophils ( less than 1%)

28
Q

Which type of WBC accounts for more than half of all circulating leukocytes?

A

Neurtophils

29
Q

Which types of WBCs are important phagocytes?

A

Neutrophils and monocytes

30
Q

Which type of WBC releases heparin and histamine?

A

Basophils

31
Q

Which type of WBC is the largest of all blood cells?

A

Monocytes

32
Q

Which type of WBC matures in the body tissues to become a macrophage?

A

Fixed monocytes

33
Q

Describe the process of leukopoiesis (WBC production) from pluripotent stem cell to monocyte and mature
granulocyte.

A

diagram but also ?

phase 1) progenitor cell

phase 2) myeloblast stage

phase 3) myelocyte stage

phase 4) band cell stage

phase 5) mature granulocyte

34
Q

Describe the development of platelets. What hormone regulates the process of platelet
formation?

A

Pluripotent stem cell→
Myeloid stem cell→
Megakaryoblast→
Megakaryocyte→
Platelets
thrombopoietin (TPO)

35
Q

Identify and describe the three phases of hemostasis (formation of a clot).

A

phase 1) vascular spasm *lasts 20 -30 minutes
- damage to the vessels triggers strong contractions in vascular smooth muscle
(degree of spasm is proportional to the injury)

phase 2) platelet plug formation *within a minute of injury
- happens simultaneously with vascular spasm
- soon after vessel is damaged, platelets begin to adhere to the endothelium and exposed collagen fibers in the areas

activated platelets release a variety of chemicals which promote clotting:
ADP- stimulates platelet aggregation
TXA2 & serotonin - enhance vascular spasms
clotting factors - including Ca2+
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) - promotes repair of the blood vessel

positive feedback cycle: (the platelets aggregate to each other cause they secrete ADP, serotonin and thromboxane A2)

phase 3) coagulation
blood goes from fluid to gel like because of various clotting factors or procoagulants

36
Q

Identify the main chemicals released by activated platelets. What role does each factor
play in promoting hemostasis?

A

activated platelets release a variety of chemicals which promote clotting:
ADP- stimulates platelet aggregation
TXA2 & serotonin - enhance vascular spasms
clotting factors - including Ca2+
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) - promotes repair of the blood vessel

37
Q

Differentiate between the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of blood clotting. they initiate coagulation btw

A

how prothrombinase can be formed (phase 1)

extrinsic pathway (QUICK) - release tissue factor (TF) by damaged epithelial cells not normally found in the blood so thats why its extrinsic.

activates clotting factor 7 that when calcium is present, it will active prothrombinase

intrinsic pathway (SLOW)- dont need to release anything from damaged tissue for this to work
*not essential for survival, but plays a part in innate immunity and inflammation

38
Q

What enzyme is formed by both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways to initiate the
common pathway of blood clotting?

A

prothrombinase

39
Q

Describe the steps of the common pathway of the coagulation process.

A

after phase 1 which is extrinsic or intrinsic pathways ….

phase 2: prothrombinase converts prothrombin (inactive enzyme) to thrombin (activated enzyme)

phase 3) thrombin converts fribrinogen (soluble) to fibrin (insoluble) which completes the clotting process

40
Q

What is clot retraction?

A

begins soon after the clot forms, stabilizes the clot and squeezes out the serum from the clot

pulls the damaged wall sides closer together

41
Q

What is fibrinolysis? What proteolytic enzyme is involved in fibrinolysis?

A

breakdown/dissolving of the clot

begins with the activation of plasminogen to plasmin (within the clot) by thrombin which induces urokinase (u-PA) and by tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) which is produced by damaged endothelial cells

42
Q

What factors work to localize and control blood clotting?

A
  1. Swift removal of clotting factors
  2. Inhibition of activated clotting factors
  3. Restriction of thrombin to the clot or inactivation of thrombin if it enters circulation
  4. Thrombin exerts a positive feedback cycle
  5. Fibrin acts as an anticoagulant when bound to thrombin
  6. Antithrombin II inactivates any thrombin found in the plasma not bound to fibrin
  7. Antithrombin and Protein C inhibit the activity of other intrinsic pathway clotting factors
  8. Heparin inhibits thrombin similarly to antithrombin II and inhibits the intrinsic pathway
43
Q

The ABO blood groups are distinguished by the presence or absence of what two
agglutinogens (antigens)?

what is an agglutinogen?

A

A or B

an antigen that stimulates the production of an agglutinin.

44
Q

What agglutinogens (antigens) are present on the RBCs of each of the 4 ABO blood types?

A

Type A- A
Type B- B
Type AB - AB
Type O - none

45
Q

What genotypes could account for each of the phenotypes described above (#44).

A

Type AB blood - types A and B agglutinogens and no agglutinins
Type A blood - type A agglutinogen and anti-B agglutinins
Type B blood - type B agglutinogen and anti-A agglutinins
Type O blood - no agglutinogens and both Anti-A and Anti-B agglutinins

46
Q

What agglutinins (antibodies) are present in the blood plasma of each of the 4 ABO blood types?

A

AB - none
Type A - anti- B
Type B - anti A
Type O - anti A and B

47
Q

On the basis of ABO blood groups only, identify which donor blood types are
compatible with recipient of each of the 4 ABO blood groups.

A

Receive:
Type A - A, O
Type B - B,O
Type AB - O, A, B, AB
Type O - O

Give:
Type A- A, AB
Type B- AB, B
Type AB - only AB
Type O -anyone

48
Q

When do anti-Rh antibodies form?

A

during pregnancy or transfusion

49
Q

Explain the condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis).

A

when during birth, the mother is sensitized by her baby antigens that pass into her bloodstream so her anti-Rh antibodies cross into the placenta and destroy the baby’s RBCs. This makes the baby anemic and hypoxic.. Causing brain damage and even death unless a transfusion is sone before birth to provide the fetus with more erythrocytes for oxygen.

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (7 decks)

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