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ALS > Block 6 (Josie's Notes) > Flashcards

Block 6 (Josie's Notes) Flashcards

1
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Chemical substance released at the synapse of neurons, they are stored in vesicles and their effects can be excitatory or inhibitory

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2
Q

What is the criteria for a neurotransmitter? (4)

A
  • Must be synthesised or present in presynaptic neuron
  • Must produce response in postsynaptic neuron
  • Specific receptors for substances must be on postsynaptic neuron
  • Must be a mechanism for removal once stimulation has stopped
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3
Q

How can neurotransmitters be divided into two classes?

A
  • Based on their size
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4
Q

What are the two classes of neurotransmitters?

A
  • Small molecule neurotransmitters
  • Neuropeptides
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5
Q

What are small molecule neurotransmitters? (5)

A
  • Fast acting
  • Dopamine, ACh, amino acids, NO
  • Present in small clear core vesicles
  • Released in response to low frequency stimulation
  • Also released in response to high frequency stimulation to allow cotransmission
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6
Q

What are neuropeptides? (4)

A
  • Slow acting
  • Angiotensin, substance P, endorphins
  • Present in large dense core vesicles
  • Released in response to high frequency stimulation
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7
Q

Gives some examples of catecholamines? (3)

A
  • Dopamine
  • Noradrenaline
  • Adrenaline
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8
Q

What does dopamine do? (4)

A
  • Reward
  • Planning
  • Initiation/control of movement
  • Prolactic (female milk production)
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9
Q

What are dopamine receptors? (2)

A
  • D1-like - D1 and D5, positive couple to Gs
  • D2-like - D2, D3, and D4, negative couple to Gi
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10
Q

What does noradrenaline do? (2)

A
  • Sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)
  • Produced in the locus coeruleus
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11
Q

What are noradrenaline receptors?

A

α1, α2, β1, β2

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12
Q

What does adrenaline do? (2)

A
  • Major determinant of responses to homeostasis
  • Secreted by adrenal medulla
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13
Q

What are adrenaline receptors?

A
  • All α and β receptors
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14
Q

How are chatecholamines removed from the synaptic cleft? (3)

A
  • Uptake
  • Enzymatic breakdown - MAO
  • Diffusion away from receptor
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15
Q

What does serotonin do? (4)

A
  • Mood - Feelings of well being and happiness
  • Appetite
  • Sleep
  • Some cognitive functions - Memory and learning
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16
Q

What are serotonin receptors?

A

5-HT (1-7)

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17
Q

What does glutamate do? (3)

A
  • One of twenty amino acids used to construct proteins
  • Most abundant neurotransmitter in the brain
  • Used be every major excitatory information-transmitting pathway in the brain
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18
Q

What are glutamate receptors? (4)

A
  • NMDA
  • AMPA
  • Kainate
  • MGluR
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19
Q

What does GABA do? (2)

A
  • Inhibitory neurotransmitter - Reduces neuronal excitement by allowing influx of Cl- (hyperpolarisation)
  • Regulation of muscle tone
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20
Q

What are GABA receptors? (2)

A
  • GABAA - Ligand-gated ion channel complex
  • GABAB - G protein coupled receptors
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21
Q

What does ACh do? (4)

A
  • Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic, postganglionic parasympathetic
  • Used at neuromuscular junctions
  • Neuromodulator in the brain
  • Important in arousal, attention, and motivation
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22
Q

How is ACh formed?

A

Choline and acetyl CoA are combined by ChAT (choline acetyl transferase)

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23
Q

How is ACh broken down?

A

AChE (acetylcholinesterase) breaks ACh down into choline and acetic acid

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24
Q

What are ACh receptors? (2)

A
  • Nicotinic
  • Muscarinic
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25
Q

What are ionotropic receptors?

A

Receptors contain ion channel which is regulated by neurotransmitter

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26
Q

What are metabotropic receptors?

A

Receptor signals via intracellular intermediates

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27
Q

What are antipsychotics?

A

Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists

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28
Q

What do antipsychotics treat?

A

Schizophrenia

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29
Q

What is the difference between first generation and second generation antipsychotics? (2)

A
  • First generation - More extrapyramidal side effects (Haloperidol)
  • Second generation - Fewer extrapyramidal side effects (Risperidone, Olozapine)
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30
Q

What are the side effects on dopamine pathways? (2)

A
  • Extrapyramidal side effects
  • Excess prolactin (can cause infertility)
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31
Q

Name some other side effects of antipsychotics? (6)

A
  • Sedation
  • Dry mouth
  • Blurred vision
  • Constipation
  • Postural hypertension
  • Weight gain
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32
Q

What are tricyclic antidepressants? (2)

A
  • Block noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake transporters
  • Increases availability of neurotransmitters
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33
Q

What are tricyclic antidepressants used to treat?

A

Depression (also pain and anxiety)

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34
Q

Give some examples of tricyclic antidepressants? (2)

A
  • Amitriptyline
  • Lofepramine
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35
Q

Name some side effects of tricyclic antidepressants? (6)

A
  • Toxic in overdose
  • Sedation
  • Dry mouth
  • Blurred vision
  • Constipation
  • Postural hypertension
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36
Q

What are SSRIs? (2)

A
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  • Increases serotonin availability at the synapse
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37
Q

What are SSRIs used to treat?

A

Depression (also anxiety)

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38
Q

Give some examples of SSRIs? (2)

A
  • Citalopram
  • Fluxetine
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39
Q

Name some side effects of SSRIs? (5)

A
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Possible increase in suicidal ideation
  • Safer in overdose
  • Withdrawal reactions
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40
Q

What are SNRIs?

A

Selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors

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41
Q

What are MAOIs? (3)

A
  • Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors
  • Blocks action of MAO at nerve terminals
  • Increased availability of noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine
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42
Q

Give some examples of MAOIs? (2)

A
  • Phenelzine
  • Modobemide
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43
Q

Name some side effects of MAOIs? (2)

A
  • Can cause ‘hypersensitive crisis’ if people eats foods rich in Tyramine
  • Precipitates noradrenaline release from vesicles
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44
Q

What is Lithium? (4)

A
  • Not sure how it works, several suggested mechanisms:
  • Lowers excitatory and increases inhibitory neurotransmission
  • Affects secondary messengers
  • Protects neurons from damage
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45
Q

Name some side effects of lithium? (4)

A
  • Narrow therapeutic window
  • Vomiting, shaking drowsiness, ataxia
  • With toxic levels - Brain damage and death
  • Diuretics and NSAIDs cause levels to build up
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46
Q

What are benzodiazepines? (2)

A
  • Binds to GABA receptors, potentiating effects of GABA
  • Causes more Cl- influx and more inhibition
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47
Q

Give some examples of benzodiazepines? (3)

A
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam
  • Temazepam
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48
Q

Name some side effects of benzodiazepines? (6)

A
  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • Forgetfulness
  • Impaired motor control
  • Tolerance and dependence
  • Respiratory depression (especially with alcohol)
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49
Q

Which two blood vessels supply the brain?

A
  • Vertebral arteries
  • Internal carotid arteries
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50
Q

What is the precentral gyrus?

A

Primary motor cortex

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51
Q

What is the postcentral gyrus?

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

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52
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

Motor speech area

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53
Q

What is Wernicke’s area? (2)

A
  • Language area
  • Helps understand speech
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54
Q

What is the calcarine fissure?

A

Primary visual area

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55
Q

What is the insula (longitudinal fissure)?

A

Primary auditory area

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56
Q

What are behavioural theories?

A

Based upon the idea that all behaviours are acquired through conditioning, via interactions with the environment

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57
Q

What is classical conditioning? (2)

A
  • Operates through associating a stimulus with a response
  • Previously neutral stimulus becomes associated with another stimulus by repeated pairing
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58
Q

What is neoclassical conditioning?

A

Taste aversion (e.g. food poisoning)

59
Q

What is an unconditioned stimulus?

A

A stimulus that automatically elicits a response without prior conditioning

60
Q

What is an unconditioned response?

A

The response to an unconditioned stimulus

61
Q

What is a conditioned stimulus?

A

A stimulus that comes to elicit a response through association with an unconditioned stimulus

62
Q

what is a conditioned response?

A

A learned response to a stimulus that did not originally occur

63
Q

What is operant conditioning? (2)

A
  • Operates through reward and punishment
  • Certain responses are learned because they affect the environment
64
Q

what is punishment? (2)

A
  • presenting an unpleasant stimulus after an undesired behaviour has occured
  • decreases the likelihood of the undesired behaviour
65
Q

What is extinction? (2)

A
  • Removing a previously pleasant stimulus
  • Decreases the likelihood of the undesired behaviour
66
Q

Give examples of primary reinforcement? (3)

A
  • Food
  • Water
  • Escape from pain
67
Q

Give examples of secondary reinforcement? (3)

A
  • Money
  • Praise
  • Attention
68
Q

What are the different types of positive reinforcement?

A
  • Continuous reinforcement - Every response is reinforced
  • Partial reinforcement - Reinforcement occurs but not after every response
69
Q

What are the important rules for positive reinforcement? (4)

A
  • Reinforcers must be immediate/linked to act
  • People work harder under partial reinforcement than continuous reinforcement
  • Effort increases with the time or ratio (more work, less pay) to a point
  • Extinction of responses is slower with partial (vs continuous) and unpredictable (vs predictable)
70
Q

What is shaping?

A

Rewarding behaviours which increase approximate to the desired more complex behaviour e.g. learning to walk, talk, drive

71
Q

What is chaining? (2)

A
  • Breaking down complex behaviours into a series of simple acts, each reinforces the next in the chain
  • This reinforces the first act
72
Q

How might the origin and maintenance of phobias be explained? (2)

A
  • Classical conditioning may explain origin
  • Operant conditioning explains maintenance
73
Q

What is cognitive theory?

A
  1. Early experiences
  2. Core beliefs - Form core beliefs round early experiences
  3. Assumptions - Form rules for living based on core beliefs
  4. Schema activation - If exposed to negative belief it leads to activation of belief, schema biases ways thoughts are processed
  5. Negative automatic thoughts - Activated core belief filters through into everyday thoughts
  6. Feedback loops - Negative thoughts and actions make feelings and behaviours worse
74
Q

What are the 3 main areas of memory?

A
  • Sensory stores - Hold sensory information less than one second after item is perceived, requires attention to move into short term store
  • Short-term store - Allows recall for a period of several seconds to a minute, longer with rehearsal, can give a response, can be put into long term store
  • Long-term store - Can store much larger quantities of information for a potentially unlimited duration
75
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Thinking about meaning of a word

76
Q

What is physical memory?

A

Thinking about what something looks like

77
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A
  • Presenting a pleasant stimulus after a desired behaviour has occurred
  • Increases likelihood of behaviour
78
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A
  • Removing an unpleasant stimulus after a desired behaviour has occurred
  • Increases likelihood of behaviour
79
Q

What is acoustic memory?

A

Thinking about what something sounds like

80
Q

What is context dependency memory?

A

The environmental conditions where you learn make a difference to how well you remember it

81
Q

What is state dependency memory?

A

You can recall information better when you feel the same as when you learned it

82
Q

What is mood dependency?

A

You’re more likely to recall unhappy information when you’re sad

83
Q

Where are the two long term memory stores?

A
  • Hippocampus
  • Anterior temporal lobe
84
Q

How is the hippocampus involved in the multi-store model of memory?

A

Participates in the encoding and retrieval of memories

85
Q

What is cue dependent forgetting?

A

Failure to recall a memory due to missing stimuli or cues that were present at the time the memory was encoded

86
Q

What is trace decay? (2)

A
  • Short-term memory can only retain information for a limited amount of time unless it is rehearsed
  • If not rehearsed, the information will start to gradually fade away and decay
87
Q

What are organic causes for forgetting?

A

Forgetting that occurs through damage or aging of the brain

88
Q

What are inference theories of forgetting?

A

Learning something new causes forgetting of older material on the basis of competition between the two

89
Q

What is consciousness?

A

The state of being aware and responsive to ones surroundings

90
Q

What are some disorders of consciousness? (5)

A
  • Locked-in syndrome - Patient has awareness, sleep-wake cycles, and meaningful behaviour, but is isolated due to paralysis
  • Minimally conscious state - Patient has intermittent periods of awareness and wakefulness and displays some meaningful behaviour
  • Persistent vegetative state - Patient has sleep-wake cycles, but lacks awareness
  • Chronic coma - Patient lacks awareness and sleep wake cycles, only displays reflexive behaviour
  • Brain death - Patient lacks awareness, sleep-wake cycles, and brain-mediated reflex behaviour
91
Q

What scale measures the level of consciousness?

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

92
Q

What are the 3 categories of the glasgow coma scale?

A
  • Eye opening
  • Verbal response
  • Motor response
93
Q

What is the critical score on the glasgow coma scale?

A

8 - after 6 hours 50% die

94
Q

What are the 4 nuclei of the reticular activating system?

A
  • Locus coeruleus
  • Raphe nuclei
  • Ventral tegmental area
  • Cholinergic nuclei
95
Q

What are the functions of the reticular activating system? (5)

A
  • Consciousness
  • Arousal and awakening from sleep
  • Maintaining attention and alertness
  • Filters out insignificant information to prevent sensory overload
  • Assists in regulating muscle tone, heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate
96
Q

What is sleep?

A

State of altered consciousness or partial unconsciousness from which an individual can be aroused

97
Q

What are the 4 stages of NREM sleep?

A
  • Transitional stage - Between wakefulness and sleep
  • Light sleep - Fragments of dreams may be experienced
  • Moderately deep sleep - Body temperature and blood pressure decrease, difficult to wake the person
  • Deep sleep - Brain metabolism and body temperature drop, most reflexes in tact
98
Q

What is REM sleep?

A

Characterised by rapid eye movements and paralysis of muscles

99
Q

What is circadium rhythm?

A

Humans 24 hour sleep-wake cycle

100
Q

Name some disorders of sleep? (4)

A
  • Anxiety
  • Orthopnia
  • Enuresis
  • Epilepsy
101
Q

What are short term consequences of sleep disorders? (6)

A
  • Mood swings
  • Aggressive behaviour
  • Disorientation
  • Slower reflexes
  • Memory disorders
  • Muscle fatigue
102
Q

What are long term consequences of sleep disorders? (3)

A
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • High blood pressure
103
Q

What is stress? (2)

A
  • Imbalance between personal resources and demands on those personal resources
  • Any condition that actually or potentially poses a challenge to the body’s ability to maintain homeostasis
104
Q

What is eustress?

A

Mild stress that is useful

105
Q

What is distress?

A

Severe stress that is harmful and impairs performance

106
Q

Which area of the brain controls the stress response?

A

Hypothalamus

107
Q

What is the alarm phase of the stress response? (2)

A
  • Short term stress response
  • Initial fight or flight response
108
Q

What is the resistance/adaptation phase of the stress response? (2)

A
  • Long term stress response
  • Body attempts to cope with prolonged stress
109
Q

What is the exhaustion phase of the stress response?

A

Resources depleted and body is unable to maintain function

110
Q

Describe the short term stress response? (4)

A
  • Sympathetic control
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Controlled by chatecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline)
  • Rapid action to acute stress
111
Q

Describe the long term stress response? (4)

A
  • Pituitary gland triggers adrenal cortex
  • Controlled by glucocorticoids (cortisol)
  • HPA axis
  • Resistance to stress
112
Q

What is the hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis? (4)

A
  • Hypothalamus releases CRH
  • CRH acts on anterior pituitary gland which releases ACTH
  • ACTH acts on adrenal cortex which releases aldosterone and glucocorticoids
  • Cortisol negatively feeds back on the hippocampus, which in turn inhibits the HPA axis
113
Q

What are the effects of aldosterone?

A

Increase blood pressure

114
Q

What are the effects of glucocorticoids?

A
  • Induces protein and fat metabolism
  • Increases blood glucose
  • Increases lipid and protein metabolism
115
Q

What happens to the body with prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol? (6)

A
  • Muscle breakdown
  • Suppression of immune response
  • Ulceration of GI tract
  • Depression
  • Beta cell failure
  • Death likely
116
Q

What are medically unexplained symptoms? (2)

A
  • Physical symptoms not explained by organic disease
  • Strong assumption to underlying psychological factors
117
Q

What is direct stress? (2)

A
  • HPA and adrenal medulla activation
  • Increased cortisol and catecholamine production
118
Q

What is indirect stress? (3)

A
  • Via behavioural changes
  • Increased alcohol/smoking
  • Reduced exercise/diet quality
119
Q

What are adjustment reactions?

A

Coping mechanisms as a result of a big change to someones life

120
Q

What are adjustment reaction disorders?

A

When an individual is unable to cope with a particular stressor

121
Q

What is addiction?

A

Continues repetition of a behaviour despite adverse consequences

122
Q

What is dependence syndrome? (7)

A
  • Salience
  • Evidence of tolerance
  • Withdrawal symptoms
  • Relief of withdrawal symptoms by further use
  • Compulsion to use substances
  • Neglect of other interests
  • Reinstatement after abstinence
123
Q

What makes a substance addictive? (4)

A
  • Pleasure producing potency
  • Rapid onset of action
  • Short duration of action
  • Tolerance and withdrawal
124
Q

What are operant conditioning contributions to addiction? (3)

A
  • Positive reinforcement - Favourable outcome after a desirable behaviour (drinking for pleasurable effect)
  • Negative reinforcement - Removing a negative stimulus after a desirable behaviour (drinking to remove withdrawal symptoms)
  • Variable reinforced schedule creates a high steady rate of responding that is resistant to extinction
125
Q

Describe the mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway? (3)

A
  • Dopamine produced in the ventral tegmental area
  • Released into the nucleus accumbens (brains reward centre) and prefrontal cortex
  • Leads to feeling of pleasure
126
Q

What is end stage addiction? (4)

A
  • Overwhelming desire to take drug
  • Taking drug becomes almost automatic habit
  • Can be triggered by drug related cues even after many years of abstinence
  • Mediated by changes to prefrontal cortex
127
Q

What is grief? (2)

A
  • Intense sorrow
  • Usually associated with someone’s death
128
Q

What are affective disorders? (3)

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Bipolar
129
Q

What is depression?

A
  • 5 or more of the following symptoms present for the same 2 week period, and represent a change from previous functioning
  • Depressed mood
  • Loss of interest/pleasure
  • Significant weight loss/gain
  • Insomnia or hypersomnia
  • Psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • Fatigue or loss of energy
  • Diminished ability to think or concentrate
  • Feelings of worthlessness
  • Recurrent thoughts of death, suicide or attempts/plans of suicide
130
Q

What can cause depression? (4)

A
  • Biological differences
  • Brain chemistry
  • Hormones
  • Inherited traits
131
Q

What is anxiety? (4)

A
  • When fear reactions occur in an anticipatory manner
  • Inappropriate expression of fear
  • Unrealistic and unfound fear
  • Interferes with normal daily activities
132
Q

What is generalised anxiety disorder?

A
  • Ongoing state of anxiety lacking any reason or focus
  • Worry excessively about many issues
133
Q

What are panic disorders?

A

Brief periods of intense terror and apprehension

134
Q

What are phobias?

A

Strong fears of specific things or situations

135
Q

What are the 3 types of phobias?

A
  • Agoraphobia - Public places, crowds, or shops
  • Social phobia - Eating, speaking, performing
  • Specific phobia - Animals, heights, needles
136
Q

What is OCD? (2)

A
  • Intrusive thoughts (obsessions) that cause anxiety
  • Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that neutralise anxiety
137
Q

What is PTSD?

A

Anxiety triggered by recall of past traumatic stressful events

138
Q

What are safety behaviours? (2)

A
  • Coping behaviours used to reduce anxiety and fear when user feels threatened
  • Although useful for reducing anxiety in the short-term, might become maladaptive in long term by prolonging anxiety and fear of nonthreatening situations
139
Q

What are preventative safety behaviours?

A

Aimed to reduce fear or anxiety in future situation

140
Q

What are restorative safety behaviours?

A

Aimed to reduce fear or anxiety in current threatening situation

141
Q

What are SSRIs?

A
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  • Prolong the action of serotonin
  • Used to treat mood disorders and anxiety disorders
142
Q

What are benzodiazepines?

A
  • Reduces anxiety, sedative, muscle relaxant, effective in short-term for acute anxiety
  • Enhance inhibitory effects of GABA, increases influx of Cl- causing hyperpolarisation
143
Q

What are beta blockers?

A
  • Reduce physical symptoms of anxiety (tremor, palpitations)
  • Also used to treat hypertension
144
Q

What is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT)? (3)

A
  • Must change how we think to change how we feel
  • Socratic questioning - Questions encourage client to work out what’s wrong, using open questions, patient does most of the talking
  • Behavioural experiments - Test out validity of cognition, shows patient their fears will not happen

ALS (9 decks)

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