Block 4 and 3 Exam

Question 1

When can you vector into class G airspace?

Answer 1

When you inform the pilot and obtain their permission.

Question 2

When do you have to state Altimeter settings twice?

Answer 2

1. When it is 2899 or below.
2. 3100 or above.

Question 3

What are the lowest usable flight levels?

Answer 3

a. Altimeter setting 29.92 and higher - FL180
b. 29.91-28.92 FL190
c. 28.91-27.92 – FL200
d. 27.91 and lower - FL210

Question 4

Lowest altimeter settings

Answer 4

a. Do not assign any flight level lower than the lowest usable flight level indicated in
the following table.
Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable FL
29.92 and higher FL180
29.91-28.92 FL190
28.91-27.92 FL200
27.91 and lower FL210
b. If a change in altimeter setting requires an increase or permits a decrease in the
lowest usable flight level, coordinate with adjacent sectors or units as required.
c. If it changes by 2 or more, inform the pilot, if it changes by 4 or more, a new ATIS has to be put out

Question 5

a. Minimum enroute altitude (MEA)

Answer 5

The altitude above sea level between specified fixes on airways or air routes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and that meets the IFR obstacle clearance requirements. This altitude is published on aeronautical charts.

Question 6

Minimum sector altitude (MSA)

Answer 6

The lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of 1000 ft under conditions of standard
temperature and pressure above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle with a 25 NM radius centred on a radio aid to navigation or a specified point. US: minimum safe altitude.

Question 7

Minimum vectoring altitude (MVA)

Answer 7

The lowest altitude for vectoring aircraft by ATC that meets obstacle clearance and radio coverage requirements in the airspace required.

Question 8

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA)

Answer 8

The altitude above sea level between specified fixes on airways or air routes that meets the IFR obstacle clearance requirements for the route segment in question. This altitude is published on aeronautical charts.

Question 9

Area Minimum Altitude (AMA)

Answer 9

The lowest altitude to be used under Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) that will provide a minimum vertical clearance of 1000 ft. or, in a designated mountainous region, 2000 ft., rounded up to the next 100-ft. increment, under conditions of standard temperature and pressure, above all obstacles located in the area specified.

Question 10

Safe Altitude 100 nautical miles

Answer 10

Doesn’t have a formal definition. It is an altitude, usually found on CAP charts, that is flight checked and approved for use within 100 miles of the geographical centre of the aerodrome as depicted on the CAP chart and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

Question 11

Transition altitude

Answer 11

In most cases for IFR, it is an altitude specifically shown for an aircraft that is changing from enroute to approach.

Question 12

When can you consider an aircraft to be maintaining its altitude?

Answer 12

Its altitude readout is within 200 feet of the assigned altitude.

Question 13

When can you consider an aircraft to have reached an altitude?

Answer 13

Its altitude readout has been within 200 feet of the assigned for four consecutive readout updates.

Question 14

When can you consider an aircraft to have vacated an altitude?

Answer 14

Its altitude readout has changed by 300 feet or more, in the appropriate direction, from the value that prevailed while the aircraft was in level flight.

Question 15

When can you consider an aircraft to have passed an altitude?

Answer 15

Its altitude readout has changed by 300 feet or more in the appropriate direction.

Question 16

MATS ACC > ATS Surveillance > Speed Assignments > Airspeed Limitations

Answer 16

Do not approve a speed over 250 knots IAS below 10000 feet above sea level, but acknowledge a pilot who informs you of a requirement to operate above the CARs-regulated speed limitations for minimum safe speed requirements. If a pilot reports or operates at a speed over 250 knots below 10000 feet above sea level and does not state that it is for minimum safe speed, inform the operations duty manager

Question 17

TC AIM RAC 2.5.2 Aircraft Speed Limit Order According to CAR 602.32, no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada

Answer 17

(a)below 10 000 ft ASL at more than 250 KIAS; or
(b)below 3 000 ft AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport and at more than 200 KIAS, unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.
Exceptions
(a)A person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater than the airspeeds referred to in (a) and (b) above where the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special flight operations certificate – special aviation event issued under CAR 603
(b)If the minimum safe speed, given the aircraft configuration, is greater than the speed referred to in (a) or (b) above, the aircraft shall be operated at the minimum safe speed.

Question 18

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Arrivals > STAR Consider an aircraft to have been cleared for the STAR..

Answer 18

.. if the STAR is included in the routing portion of the flight plan. Clearance for the STAR allows the aircraft to follow the lateral track only, descent clearance must be received from ATC. Clear an aircraft flying a STAR for descent in sufficient time to meet any published altitude restriction. Pilots are required to comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions at or above the cleared altitude unless specifically cancelled by ATC.

Question 19

List the 5 types of wake turbulence.

Answer 19

i. Wing-tip vortices
ii. Rotor-tip vortices
iii. Jet-engine thrust stream or jet blast
iv. Rotor downwash
v. Prop wash

Question 20

Wind shear

Answer 20

A change in wind speed and/or wind direction in a short distance. It can exist in a horizontal or vertical direction and occasionally in both.

Question 21

For a 757, what is the wake turbulence separation standards?

Answer 21

When it is the leading aircraft, it is considered a heavy. When it is in trail it is considered a medium.

Question 22

What is the wake turbulence seperation standards for different types of aircraft?

Answer 22

super-super - 4nm, super-heavy - 6nm, super-medium - 7nm, super-light - 8nm, heavy-super - 4nm, heavy-heavy - 4nm, heavy-medium - 5nm, heavy-light - 6nm, medium - light - 4nm

Question 23

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Communication and Coordination > Communication Transfer > Mandatory Frequency Area

Answer 23

When an aircraft is approaching an MF area, instruct the pilot to change to the MF before reaching the area. If the pilot needs to leave your frequency to make required Mandatory Frequency Area Reports, advise the pilot to report leaving and returning to ATC frequency.

Question 24

MATS ACC > Flight Information > Aerodrome Information > RSC and CRFI (fill in the blanks question)

Answer 24

Issue the current RSC and CRFI report for the intended runway using a four-digit time expression format[1] . It is not required to relay RSC information to the pilot when the runway is cleared to the full width and it is 100% dry. It is not required to relay CRFI information to the pilot when:
* CRFI by full runway length is reported as NR.
* All thirds of CRFI by thirds are reported as NR.

Question 25

a. MATS ACC > ATS Surveillance > Identification > Identification Doubtful or Lost (Excerpt) If identification becomes doubtful or is lost, immediately do either of the following

Answer 25

i. Identify or re-identify the aircraft using the same technique more than once or use more than one of the techniques provided in Identification Methods. ii. Terminate ATS surveillance service and apply procedural separation. iii. Inform the pilot

Question 26

If the Pps or data tag for a particular aircraft is not displayed as expected:

Answer 26

* Instruct the pilot to reset the transponder, stating the currently assigned code. * If resetting the transponder does not resolve the problem, assign a different code.

Question 27

If an aircraft’s transponder appears to be unserviceable or malfunctioning....

Answer 27

..., inform the pilot and, if appropriate, the adjacent sector or unit. If an aircraft’s transponder is set to standby or turned off, inform the adjacent sector or unit. Instruct a pilot to turn Mode C on or off, as necessary.

Question 28

a. MATS ACC > Separation > Separation Basics > Control Estimates (Excerpt)

Answer 28

Use aircraft estimates to verify ATC estimates. If a discrepancy exists between an aircraft estimate and an ATC estimate for the same reporting point, and separation could be affected: 1. Check the accuracy of the ATC estimate. 2. If a discrepancy remains, request the pilot to check the aircraft estimate. 3. If a discrepancy still exists, take appropriate action to ensure that separation is not compromised.

Question 29

a. MATS ACC > Flight Plans and Itineraries > Closing Flight Plans and Flight Itineraries > IFR Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary

Answer 29

When the pilot of an IFR aircraft closes[1] the IFR flight plan:[2] * If VFR flight is not permitted due to airspace classification or weather conditions: ◦ Inform the pilot. ◦ If appropriate, pass the most recent weather sequence. ◦ Ask the pilot’s intentions. * Acknowledge the closure and inform the pilot that alerting service is terminated. * Inform the appropriate ACC or the agency responsible for alerting service at the destination.[3] A pilot’s decision to close an IFR flight plan or itinerary is not subject to ATC approval. When a pilot cancels or closes an IFR flight plan, the aircraft automatically becomes a VFR flight.

Question 30

What is the VFR and SVFR minima's for fixed wings and helicopters?

Answer 30

Fixed wing - VFR Minima - 3 miles, SVFR minima - 1 mile. Helicopter - VFR minima - 3miles, SVFR minima - 1/2 mile.

Question 31

If the pilot intends to depart or transit the zone at night, the SVFR aircraft is a ......?

Answer 31

Helicopter.

Question 32

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Clearances and Instructions > Issuing and Relaying > Delivery Limitations The communication agency, such as the FSS, FIC, CARS, dispatcher (in emergencies), or others to which a clearance is issued is responsible for transmitting the clearance to the aircraft immediately upon receipt, unless an attempt-delivery time has been specified. If a communication agency informs you that a clearance has not been delivered, instruct the agency to do one of the following depending on your situation:

Answer 32

* Continue attempting to deliver, and report if undelivered by a specified time. * Attempt to deliver at a specified time. * Cancel the clearance. You will be notified if the clearance is not delivered within 3 minutes after receipt, or the specified attempt delivery time.

Question 33

In an ATS surveillance environment you may omit the name of the airport from an approach clearance, provided:

Answer 33

- the aircraft is identified and monitored until established on final approach - There is no likelihood of misunderstanding pg

Question 34

Formatting for approach clearances:

Answer 34

If adherence to a particular procedure is required, include the route to be flown. This routing may include the published name of an arrival procedure. If a route is not issued, the pilot may proceed via either of the following: - the previously cleared route and transition to a fix. - Any position along the route of flight directly to a fix, which will permit the aircraft to start an IAP. In an ATS surveillance environment, you may omit the name of the airport from an approach clearance, provided: - The aircraft is identified and monitored until established on final approach. - There is no likelihood of misunderstanding. State the procedure identification found at the top left of the CAP, RCAP or GPH 200 approach chart. Use the prefix "RNAV" in radio communications about RNAV (GNSS) or RNAV (RNP) approaches. Possible options: - approach with circling - unfamiliar approach - approach restrictions.

Question 35

Issue clearance items, as appropriate, in the following order:

Answer 35

1. Prefix/aircraft ID 2. Clearance limit 3. SID 4. Route 5. Altitude 6. Speed 7. Departure, enroute, approach, or holding instructions 8. Special instructions or information, may include an SSR code 9. Traffic information PACSRAMDST

Question 36

What numbers can a transponder not use?

Answer 36

Cannot use numbers 8 or 9.

Question 37

Tracks and direction of flight

Answer 37

0-179 - EASTBOUND 180-359 WESTBOUND

Question 38

List the 4 types of icing

Answer 38

1. Rime 2. Clear 3. Mixed 4. Hoar frost

Question 39

Info to give aircraft landing Draper

Answer 39

1. Do you have the current weather? (Missed Approach?) 2. How do you plan to close out your flight plan? (Air or Ground 1-88-217-1241) 3. Check accuracy of ETA. (Pass estimate to ATOS) 4. "Clear to descend out of Controlled Airspace in the vicinity of CYUN, Minimum IFR ALT is 4200" 5. Terminate radar service, switch to MF or en-route frequency.

Question 40

X track procedural sep standards

Answer 40

Time - 15 min, 10 min, 40min Navaid Coverage. Distance 1. 20 DME/Miles 2. 10 DME/Miles - Lead A/C is 20knts or faster.

Question 41

Reciprocal Track Procedural Sep Standard

Answer 41

Time: Calculated meet time, add/subtract 10 min Navaid Passage: Both A/C report over the same navaid. 2. And, if at FL180 or abv are 2 min apart. Distance: 1.Reports using a common point indicate A/C have past are 5 miles apart. 2. If using DME outbound A/C is 15 DME or more from facility.

Question 42

Same Track procedural sep standard

Answer 42

Time: 1. 15 min 2. 10 min - Navaid coverage 40 mins or less 3. 5 min - Lead a/c is 20 kts or more faster 4. 3 min - Lead A/C is 40 kts or more faster Distance: 1. 2O DME/MILES 2. 10 DME/MILES - Lead A/C is 20kts or more faster 3.5 DME/MILES - Lead A/C is 40kts or more faster

Question 43

When issuing traffic information to aircraft, as appropriate, include:

Answer 43

Position of aircraft Direction of flight Type of aircraft or relative speed Altitude of aircraft Reporting point and time Other information

Question 44

Do not use invalidated altitude readouts to determine an aircraft’s altitude. You may use invalidated altitude readouts to do any of the following:

Answer 44

Observe whether an aircraft is in level flight, climbing, or descending Observe rates of climb or descent Provide Traffic information

Question 45

Altitude readout is invalid....

Answer 45

Ensure that the pilot has the correct altimeter setting.2 Request another altitude verification

Question 46

Aircraft’s altimeter setting is correct and the altitude readout remains invalid

Answer 46

Instruct the pilot to reset the transponder or ADS-B.3 If, after resetting, the readout remains invalid, instruct the pilot to turn off Mode C or ADS-B Altitude Transmission, and give the reaso

Question 47

The aircraft’s Mode C cannot be turned off without turning off the transponder

Answer 47

Do not use the altitude readout as an indication of the aircraft’s present altitude.

Question 48

The aircraft’s ADS-B altitude encoding cannot be turned off without turning off the ADS-B transponder

Answer 48

Do not use the altitude readout as an indication of the aircraft’s present altitude. You may consider the vertical distance between the pilot-verified altitude and the ADS-B invalid reported altitude as a Block Altitude. Application of a lateral or longitudinal separation standard is preferable to a vertical standard when the ADS-B cannot or will not be turned off. If a TCAS alert is likely to occur, issue traffic information (Traffic, Low-Altitude, and Airspace Alerts) and a cautionary indicating the invalid information to other aircraft in proximity. You may instruct the pilot to turn off ADS-B or their transponder and then apply an appropriate non-surveillance separation standard. Follow the procedures in ADS-B Display Unserviceable or Malfunctioning.

Question 49

Runway surface condition report (RSC rep0rt)

Answer 49

Section of the Aircraft Movement Surface Condition Report (AMSCR) which provides runway surface information using a verbal description of the runway condition

Question 50

MATS ACC > Flight Information > Aerodrome Information > RSC and CRFI > Contaminated Runway A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the length and width being used is covered by one or more of the following substances:

Answer 50

* Compacted snow * Dry snow * Frost * Ice * Slush * Standing water * Wet ice * Wet snow

Question 51

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Arrivals > STAR > Managing Aircraft Operating on a STAR Vectoring an Aircraft Off a STAR the Re-establishing it on the Same STAR If you vector an aircraft off a STAR, instruct the pilot to rejoin the STAR using one of the following:

Answer 51

* Direct to a waypoint * Intercept between two waypoints Rerouting an Aircraft to Another STAR or STAR Transition If necessary, issue appropriate joining instructions to reroute the aircraft to another STAR or STAR transition, and instruct the pilot to rejoin the STAR

Question 52

TC AIM RAC 9.2.3.6 > Speed Restrictions

Answer 52

Pilots must follow charted speed restrictions on a STAR. An ATC assigned speed restriction supersedes any STAR-charted speed restrictions and must be followed until CAR 602.32 prohibits the pilot from flying at that speed.

Question 53

TC AIM RAC 9.2.3.5 > Altitude Restrictions

Answer 53

Altitude restrictions may be included in the STAR. Although an aircraft is expected to follow the charted lateral track of the cleared STAR without further ATC clearance, as per the flight-planned/cleared route, such is not the case with the STAR vertical profile; ATC has to issue descent clearance, and when a lower altitude is issued, pilots shall descend on the STAR profile to the ATC-assigned altitude. Unless specially cancelled by ATC, all charted restrictions above the assigned altitude on the STAR remain mandatory.

Question 54

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Arrivals > STAR

Answer 54

Allow the aircraft to conduct its own navigation to the extent possible.

Question 55

TC AIM RAC 4.5.4 > Mandatory Frequency (MF)

Answer 55

Transport Canada has designated a Mandatory Frequency (MF) for use at selected uncontrolled aerodromes, or aerodromes that are uncontrolled between certain hours. Aircraft operating within the area in which the MF is applicable (MF area), on the ground or in the air, shall be equipped with a functioning radio capable of maintaining two-way communication.

Question 56

Airspace classification

Answer 56

Canadian airspace divided laterally into Northern Domestic Airspace and Southern Domestic Airspace. High level airspace 18000ft ASL and above. Low level airspace Below 18000ft ASL. HL Arctic Control Area (within NDA at FL270 and above) HL Northern Control Area (within NDA at FL230 and above) HL Southern Control Area (SDA at 18000ft ASL and above) Class A – 18000 and above IFR only Class B – Below 18000 but above 12500 Class C – control zones and associated terminal control areas Class D – control zones and terminal control areas Class E – all airports that are serviced by flight service have class e airspace around them. (Class C & D both become Class E when the associated ATC unit ceases operation) Class F – special use airspace Class G – uncontrolled domestic airspace

Question 57

MATS ACC > Flight Information > Weather Information > Altimeter Setting Information > Altimeter Setting Region If an enroute aircraft operating within the Altimeter Setting Region makes a position report via direct communication, issue the current altimeter setting for:

Answer 57

* The station over which the aircraft reports * The next station along the route of flight

Question 58

TC AIM RAC 8.1 > Position Reports As specified in CAR 602.125 — Enroute IFR Position Reports, the position report shall include the information in the sequence set out in the CFS, that is:

Answer 58

(a) the identification; (b) the position; (c) the time over the reporting point in UTC; (d) the altitude or flight level; (e) the type of flight plan or flight itinerary filed; (f) the name of the next designated reporting point and ETA over that point in UTC; (g) the name only of the next reporting point along the route of flight; and (h) any additional information requested by ATC or deemed necessary by the pilot.

Question 59

DME and/or GNSS Passage

Answer 59

- DME and/or GNSS reports, determined in relation to a common point, indicate that the aircraft have passed and are 5 miles apart. - The outbound aircraft, if utilizing DME, is 15 miles or more from the DME facility. If using DME as the reference to NAVAID they have to be 15 DME or more to validation the 5 mile tail to tail from facility.

Question 60

What must pilots obtain on initial contact?

Answer 60

Basic arrival, departure or aerodrome information as soon as it is practible