Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bioenvironmental Engineer > Block 4 > Flashcards

Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What program was designed to protect workers from the harmful effects of hazardous noise?

A

The USAF Hearing Conservation Program (HCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who evaluates work areas for sources of hazardous noise as well as determines hazardous noise areas and makes recommendations to control exposures?

A

You do silly! Get with the program yo!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Air Force Regulation that governs the Occupational Noise and Hearing Conservation Program?

A

AFI 48-127

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the OSHA regulation that governs the Occupational Noise Program?

A

29 CFR 1910.95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is the manager of the Occupational Health Program?

A

The Aerospace Medicine Squadron/Air Reserve Component (ARC) Medical Unit Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hearing conservation issues are considered through what entity?

A

The OEHWG of course!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who performs fitness and risk evaluations by conducting job safety analysis? They also identify newly added noise hazard work tasks or areas noted during period safety inspections to BE?

A

Wing and/or Base Ground Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is responsible for:
Protecting the hearing of assigned personnel?
Ensure their workplace complies with OSHA, DOD, and the AF HCP
Properly labels hazardous noise areas
Notifies BE if controls change
Uses engineering controls as primary means of eliminating exposure
Ensures the HPDs are provided
Conducts initial and annual workplace specific hearing conservation training
Notifies each employee that is exposed to greater than 85 dBA the results of the BE noise survey
And notifies each worker of the hazard noise sources?

A

Squadron Commanders and Workplace Supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who performs audiometric hearing testing?

A

Public Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who complies with all hazardous noise control measures including the proper use of HPDs?

A

Employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is responsible for approving hearing protection devices?

A

You and all your other wanna-BEs!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is unwanted sound?

A

Noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who prevents workers compensation claims?

A

BE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is any pressure variation in air, water, or some other medium that the human ear can detect?

A

Sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a longitudinal wave that is created by vibrating objects that spreads through a medium from one location to another?

A

Sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you call it when air molecules are drawn away from the surrounding air to create an area of lower atmospheric pressure?

A

Rarefaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A repetitive wave-like motion is known as a _______________?

A

Sound Wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is the coolest TSgt in the USAF as of 31JUL16?

A

TSgt Walker!!!!! RECOGNIZE!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the speed of sound?

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The higher the temperature is, the faster the ___________________.

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Velocity increases as a material’s density____________________

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True/False

Sound always travels faster in water and solids than it does in the air?

A

True

That’s Trudeau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True/False

The speed(velocity) of a sound wave is always equal to the product of the wavelength and frequency.

Velocity=wavelength X frequency

A

True dat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the distance from one point of a sound wave to the same point on the next wave? It is the distance that a sound wave travels in one cycle.

A

WAVELENGTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is how often that a sound wave will repeat in a second. It is measured in cycles per second, AKA HERTZ (Hz). This is perceived as pitch.

A

Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most people can hear sound in what range of frequencies?

A

20-20,000 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Any sound that is under 500 Hz is called_________________?

A

Low Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Any frequency above 500 Hz is called_______________________?

A

High Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do you call a sound wave that can be characterized by one single frequency?

A

Pure Tone

I bet you didn’t know that! j/k you’re a genius! Keep pushing!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

People normally hear a wide variety of different tones and amplitudes mixed together so that no single one is recognizable. What do you call this?

A

Complex Sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a range (or band) of frequencies extending from one frequency extending to exactly double that frequency? In other words, the upper frequency is twice the lower frequency. This is considered the center frequency that BE examines.

A

Octave Band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Velocity (c)= feet per second (ft/sec)
Wavelength = feet per cycle
Frequency (f)= cycles per second (cops) or hertz (Hz)

A

Units of Sound FACT

You’re welcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Also called “acoustical power”, is the total amount of sound that a source produces. The sound produced by a source is independent of other influences and NEVER CHANGES, no matter what the surroundings!

A

Sound Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sound power is measured in what units?

A

(W) Watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do you call it when we convert the sound power in watts to decibels?

A

Power Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This is how large a portion naturally depends on how close that receiver is to the source and is messed in (W/m^2), the amount of power per unit area?

A

Sound Intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True/False

Sound becomes diluted with distance.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This is what BE deals with the most. It is the characteristic of sound that is actually measured and reported when QUANTIFYING sound. It is directly related to sound power.

A

Sound Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Instruments measure sound pressure in what units?

A

Newtons per square meter (N/M^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_______________________ is what noise measurement instruments display in decibels (dB).

A

Sound Pressure Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the unit of measurement of sound level called? This describes sound pressure level at a specified distance.

A

Decibel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What rule of thumb has you adding 3 dB as you double you double your sound?

A

Doubling the Sound

Look, it’s in the book and can’t be worded much better. You got a problem with it, you do it next time!!!!!!!
Love,
TSgt Walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do you call the rule of thumb that has you subtracting 6 dB as you double the distance from the sound?

A

Doubling the Distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This tells the “true” decibel level because it does not filter or weight the noise.

A

FLAT RESPONSE (dB FLAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This handsome, intelligent, and incredible NCO is about tired of making note cards every freaking day!!!!!!

A

TSgt Walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Standards for noise exposure are expressed in ___________________. BE measures sound with weighting when assessing hazardous noise. This weighting discriminates heavily against the lower frequencies. This weighting is not sensitive to lower frequencies as it is to the higher ones.

A

A-weighting (dBA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This weighting is similar to a flat response. Represents the relative response to human hearing to high sound levels. Is most importantly used to find out if sound levels are too intense in the higher or lower frequencies without having to perform and octave band analysis.

A

C-Weighing dB(C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This weighting is seen on instruments, but is not normally used. Describes overall levels when weighting is used.

A

B-Weighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The speed (velocity) of a sound is always equal to the product of the _______________________ and the ____________________.

A

Wavelength ; Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Know figure 13: Anatomy of the Ear on page 19

A

They went over this too many times not to know the anatomy of the ear. It WILL be on the test I bet!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

These are the effects of excessive noise exposure on the ear including noise-induced hearing loss, tinnitus, and acoustic trauma.

A

Auditory Effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The result of damage to the hair cells and accompanying degeneration of the nerve fibers in the ear due to noise.

A

Hearing Loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The condition in which people perceive they hear sounds such as ringing, roaring, whistling, etc. in one or both ears when there is no actual sound around them.

A

Tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The temporary or permanent hearing loss due to a sudden, extremely high intensity noise, such as an explosion.

A

Acoustic Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When high noise levels can cause undesirable effects on the body other than hearing effects. Whole body effects with general symptoms to stress. Can increase fatigue, nervousness, irritability, hypertension, and overall stress levels.

A

Non-Auditory Effecfts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  • Increased lost time from accidents
  • Decreased productivity
  • Interference with efficiency
  • interruption of thought processes during complex tasks
  • interference in getting ideas across and the ability to understand instructions/warnings.
A

Effects on Job Performance (from noise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Effects of excessive noise exposure on the ear include what three conditions?

A

Hearing Loss
Tinnitus
Acoustic Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

________________________________ is exposure to steady-state noise having an 8-hour TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dBA, or exposure to impulse/impact noise levels greater than 140dB peak SPL, regardless of duration.

A

Potential Hazardous Noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

_______________________ is any AREA where personnel could be exposed to steady-state noise having an 8-hour TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dBA, or exposure to impulse/impact noise levels greater than 140dB peak SPL, regardless of duration.

A

Potentially Hazardous Noise Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The level of noise that interferes with human activities varies with the type of activity and attitudes of the people involved. There is also considerable annoyance when it interferes with activities such as listening to television or radio , concentrating on schoolwork or reading or sleeping.

A

Community Noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The sound level allowed for an 8hr exposure, used as the basis of measurement of a noise standard.

A

Criterion Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The trade-off relationship between an increase (or decrease) in sound level and the corresponding change in allowed exposure duration; when the sound level increases by the decibel value of the exchange rate, the allowed duration is halved.

A

Exchange Rate (Doubling Rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How many decibels does the Air Force use for Exchange Rate (Doubling Rate)?

A

3-dB

For each doubling of the allowed exposure time, the allowed noise level decreases by 3 dB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

________________________ or limits are determined based on sound level and duration of exposure; in other words how many decibels for how long.

A

Noise Exposure Limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Limiting Values for Unprotected Noise Exxposures:
85 dBA for 480 minutes (8 hrs)
94 dBA for 60 min (1Hr)
99 dBA for 19 minutes
Greater than 115 dBA= no unprotected exposure for any length of time

A

FACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

No octave or one-third octave band level may exceed ________ dB for frequencies from 1Hz-40kHz AN

A

145 dB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The overall sound pressure level must be below ______________ dB (unweighted)

A

150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Consider ________________________ for pregnant workers who are exposed to hazardous noise after 20 weeks.

A

Job Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

After how many months pregnant can a women experience fetal dose and experience hearing loss of an unborn baby if exposed to either TWA 115 dBC or a peak exposure of 155 dBC?

A

After a woman is 5 months pregnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Office environments should not exceed _________________dBA. This would cause an unsatisfactory environment for telephone use.

A

65 dBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A workspace should not exceed __________________dBA because it would make communication very difficult; including telephone use.

A

90 dBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Customers should not listen to loud music that exceeds 94 dB for_______________________ hours, once per week.

A

2 Hours

73
Q

As it pertains to Community Noise, the EPA recommends that the max dBA should be at 55dBA, but the DOD uses _____________dBA for community noise.

A

65

74
Q

The first stage in evaluating the noise problems in a shop involves identifying all noise-producing equipment by using a ___________________________.

A

Inventory

75
Q

Who is able to determine which shops have personnel with standard threshold limits?

A

Public Health

76
Q

There are three nontechnical guidelines to determine if the work area has potentially excessive noise levels. What are they?

A
  1. If you have to yell to talk to a co-worker due to the noise.
  2. If employees say they hear ringing noises in their ears at the end of the workday.
  3. If workers complain about not being able to hear well after work, but they hear well in the morning.
77
Q

At what dBA do conversations become difficult to have?

A

70 dBA

78
Q

Equipment used to conduct noise surveys must conform to __________________ standard and BE shall conduct noise surveys.

A

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

79
Q

This survey is used to classify whether a particular noise source output exceeds the criterion level of 85 dBA and could present a potential exposure hazard to workers.

A

Noise Source Survey

80
Q

Survey where the potential to exceed the limits exists. Shall be evaluated by direct measurements with noise dosimeters, or indirectly with noise exposure calculations.

A

Worker Exposure Survey

81
Q

These surveys are used to define work areas where noise exposures are assumed hazardous based on routine operations. These surveys can be used to define a work area enclosed by clear borders as a hazardous noise area or to identify a hazardous noise zone around a certain piece of equipment. Area where the safe line is to the away from that certain noise source.

A

Hazardous Noise Area Survey

82
Q

Noise travels in what two paths?

A

Direct and Reflected Paths

83
Q

In this path sound is transmitted directly to the ear from the source of the receiver.

A

Direct

84
Q

In this path, sound rebounds from surfaces

A

Reflected Path

85
Q

Controlling noise at the ______________ is often the most reliable and permanent solution and should always be considered first.

A

Source

86
Q

An engineering control that that includes process elimination, process changes, and/or design changes.

A

Process Substitution

87
Q

This has to do with the Air Force requiring that new equipment that is being considered for purchase must have the lowest sound emission levels that are technologically and economically feasible.

A

Product Substitution

88
Q

This aims to reduce equipment vibration and thus accompanying noise. Simple maintenance that is al that is needed most of the time.

A

Machine Treatments

89
Q

Reducing speeds and parts, balancing, and aligning, lubricating to help reduce noise.

A

Reduce the driving force

90
Q

using casings or removing the casings or the walls that a machine hits when it is running that makes it make more noise

A

Isolate the Responding Surface

91
Q

Using dampening materials like rubber or elastic compounds that absorb noise.

A

Reduce surface response

92
Q

A solid piece of material placed between the worker and the noise source. It deflects the flow of energy away from the worker.

A

Shields and Barriers

93
Q

These are barriers that are wrapped around a machine. They may leave one side open or be put inside one of these. These provide much more sound reduction but cause heat buildup that may cause damage to the machine.

A

Enclosures

94
Q

Reflected noise can be prevented by the use of acoustically absorbent materials that are applied directly to the wall or ceiling surface.

A

Room Treatments

95
Q

Job rotation, changes in production schedule, time limitation decreases, purchasing quiet machinery, preventive maintenance, training, and labeling

A

Administrative controls as applied to path and receiver

96
Q

A hazardous noise area with any exposure at or above 85 dBA shall be clearly identified by signs located at the ENTRANCES to or the BORDERS of, the area. At a minimum, signs will contain the following message:

A

Caution

Hazardous Noise Area

Hearing Protection Required

97
Q

What is the AFI for noise regulation

A

AFI 48-127

98
Q

When is the only time each machine will not have to be individually labeled as a hazardous noise?

A

When an entire AREA is designated as a hazardous noise area

99
Q

You can engineer at the source and admin the path and area.

A

Fact

100
Q

What are BE’s roles in the Thermal Stress Program?

A

PMED’D

Perform Initial Survey, Measure WBGT, Establish Local Procedure, Determine FITS, Determine Wind Chill

101
Q

What are the Unit Commander Responsibilities as it pertains to the Thermal Stress Program?

A
  • Manages work and rest schedules
  • Trains in signs, symptoms,and prevention
  • Provides appropriate fluid replacement in hot and cold environments
  • Commands what MOP gear is to be worn during any CBRN event
  • Decides acclimation times
  • Ensures resources are available to undertake an appropriate risk assessment.
102
Q

What are the Workplace Supervisor’s roles in the Thermal Stress Program?

A
  • compliance with occ safety, fire prev, and health program req.
  • Provide training for employees in job safety, fire protection and prevention, and health as required by occ health.
  • ensures employees receive proper training
  • ensures workers are aware of work/rest schedules and fluid intake requirements
103
Q

What are the worker’s obligations in the Thermal Stress Program?

A
  • Comply with Occupational Safety and Health Guidance
  • know hydration and work/rest cycles
  • regulate thermal storage and fluid intake during increased ops tempo
  • follow work/rest programs and increase food intake to replenish nutrients
104
Q

The total net load when you have to add the combined contributions of metabolic heat, environment factors, and PPE.

A

Heat Stress

105
Q

The overall physiological response from heat stress. Your body’s response are dedicated to dissipating excess heat from the body.

A

Heat Strain

106
Q

Refers to environmental and/or personnel conditions that tend to remove heat and DECREASE BODY TEMPERATURE.

A

Cold Stress

107
Q

TEST QUESTION: Who approves the removal of MOPP GEAR?

A

The Unit Commander

108
Q

Thermal exchange takes place with the body through these 4 mechanisms:

A

Radiation
Convection
Conduction
Evaporation

109
Q

Heat that is produced by the billions of cells in the body

A

Metabolism

110
Q

When your body is heated by electromagnetic heat waves. A heat source is heating a colder body.

A

Radiation

111
Q

Being heated up by a transfer of fluid or air. This is an exchange rate between the skin and the surrounding air.

A

Convection

112
Q

When TWO SOLID BODIES are in CONTACT. When a warmer body transfers heat to a colder body. This is also when heat loss can occur when touching a colder object.

Example: sitting on cold metal bleachers during a football game and losing body heat.

A

Conduction

113
Q

This causes the removal of heat from an object by the vapor action of a liquid. Heat leaves the body when sweat, water, or other liquid vaporizes from the body surface.

A

Evaporation

114
Q

True/False

Heat exchange from the skin to the environment is influenced by AIR, TEMP, HUMIDITY, WIND SPEED, SOLAR, SKY, and GROUND RADIATION

A

TRUE

115
Q

Strength Declines
Fatigue
Loss of Accuracy
Increase in accidents from sweaty palms, dizziness, fogging of glasses.
irritability, anger, that leads to overlooking safety during hazardous tasks

A

Heat Stress on Workers (Worker Impact)

116
Q

Climatic Conditions
High Work Demands
PPE

What do these three terms relate to?

A

Workplace Risk Factors

117
Q

When the temperature of the body starts to exceed 98.6 F, the body tries to regulate heat by doing this_________________________________________.

A

By varying the rate of blood circulation through the skin and the release of fluid onto the skin by the sweat glands.

118
Q

Sweating DOES NOT cool down the body unless the moisture is removed from the skin by _______________________?

A

Evaporation

119
Q

Name the risk factors/heat related disorders:

A 
Dehydration
PPE
Salt Depletion
Lack of Acclimation
Failure to observe work-rest cycles
Poor Physical Condition
Drugs that inhibit sweat
120
Q

According to AFPAM 48-151, Thermal Injury (Heat Illness) can lead to incapacitation. What are the warning signs of Heat Illness?

A
  • dizziness or confusion
  • nausea or vomiting
  • staggering
  • disturbed vision
  • confusion, collapse, or loss of consciousness
121
Q

What is the most serious heat-related disorder and is considered a medical emergency?

A

Heat Stroke

122
Q

This is a milder form of heat-related illness. It is caused by excessive exposure to heat and the DEPLETION OF BODY FLUIDS.

A

Heat Exhaustion

123
Q

FAINTING is the result of exposure to high temps. Pooling of blood in the legs and skin from prolonged static posture along with heat exposure. Can be associated with exercising in the heat.

A

Heat Syncope

124
Q

Muscle pains or spasms that may occur during or following strenuous physical activity. This is attributed to the electrolyte imbalance caused by sweating without adequate fluid or salt intake.

A

Heat Cramps

125
Q

Also known as prickly heat, a common problem in hot work environments. Small bumps on skin where clothes are restrictive accompanied with itching. Caused by prolonged, uninterrupted sweating and inadequate hygiene.

A

Heat Rash

126
Q

This can cause your body the inability to cool off by reducing the ability to sweat. This degrades performance and increases the risk for heat casualties. Altitude and reflective surface such as fresh ice, snow, sand, metal, concrete, and wind increase the risk and severity.

A

Sunburn

127
Q

Reduction is sensation that may affect motor skills
Discomfort distraction
Limitation of movement due to bulky protective clothing layers
Injuries from contacting metal components
Degraded mental performance and inability to think
Accidents
Unsafe Behaviors

A

Cold Stress

128
Q

How does your body react to cold stress?

A

It reduces blood flow through the skin so that the skin becomes and insulating layer. The reduction in blood flow to the skin increases cold injuries to the fingers, toes, ears and nose.

129
Q

Poor Conditioning, dehydration, low body fat, inadequate nutrition, inactivity, alcohol, and caffeine are risk factors that lead to ___________________________________.

A

Cold Related Disorders

130
Q

Cold Stress can lead to these 6 cold-stress disorders:

A

Hypothermia, Frostbite, frost nip, trench foot, chilblain and Raynaud’s disorder.

131
Q

This is a serious health condition that develops as the rate of heat loss exceeds heat production. The core temperature gets below 95*F.

A

Hypothermia

132
Q

Occurs when skin tissue freezes usually in the extremities.

A

Frostbite

133
Q

Marked by numbness and whiteness of the skin with possible itching or pain. This is a reversible cold injury that does not cause tissue loss.

A

Frost nip

134
Q

Injuries to the feet as is caused by tissues exposed to cold wet conditions for prolonged periods of time.

A

Trench Foot

135
Q

A superficial cold injury occurring after one to five hours in cold, wet conditions below 50*F. Most common in fingers, ears, cheeks, toes, and exposed shins.

A

Chilblain

136
Q

A disorder affecting the arteries. Narrowing of the blood vessels. Reduces blood flow to the extremities.

A

Raynaud’s Disorder

137
Q

Reducing physical work demands, reducing external heat gain, from the air and hot surfaces, and enhancing external heat loss by increasing sweat evaporation and decreasing air temperature.

A

Engineering Controls for Thermal Stress

138
Q

This brings in a supply of cooler air from another area and reduces the temperature in the work area by diluting the hot air with cooler air. General area ventilation.

A

Dilution Ventilation

139
Q

Mechanical refrigeration, evaporative cooling, or a water chiller is used to reduce the temperature of supplied air for dilution ventilation.

A

Active Cooling

140
Q

Can be used to control radiant heat from a specific source and can be localized. An insulated or reflective barrier between the source and the receiver can interrupt the pathway.

A

Shielding

141
Q

Change the way work is performed in order to limit exposures or risks. Changing process and procedures.

A

Administrative Controls

142
Q

This process is characterized by a series of physiological adjustments that occur when an individual is exposed to a hot climate.

A

Acclimatization

143
Q

Methods to reduce the metabolic rate can go a long way towards reducing heat stress. The rate is reduced when the same amount of work is performed over a longer period of time. Spend time in cooler areas to cool off.

A

Work Pace

144
Q

Distributing the work among other workers.

A

Work Sharing

145
Q

A way supervisors may reduce the contribution of environmental heat to heat stress. When supervisors change certain jobs to cooler parts of the day.

A

Work Scheduling

146
Q

When water must be replaced to prevent adverse effects from heat.

A

Fluid Replacement

147
Q

Training that is essential for heat stress management and should be conducted for both employees and supervisors. Training includes: Description of Heat Stress, physiological responses, first aid measures, heat stress hygiene, overview of heat stress, NBC training and heat stress involved.

A

Awareness Training

148
Q

Provides protection for individual workers. Is primarily in the form of personal cooling, but can include reflective clothing for high-radiant heat conditions.

A

PPE

149
Q

When personal cooling method consists of circulating air under the clothing and around the torso.

A

Circulating Air Systems

150
Q

A second type of personal cooling is a system that circulates cool water through the tubes and channels around the body.

A

Circulating Water Systems

151
Q

Designed to reduce the amount of heat reaching the individual and is best suited for sources of high radiant heat. It could actually increase the level of heat stress of the worker.

A

Reflective Clothing

152
Q

Hand Warmers, Minimizing air movement (shielding), reducing conductive heat transfer (no metal chairs of uninsulated tools), & providing temporary shelter

A

Engineering Controls for Cold Stress

153
Q

Providing for work/warm cycles-resting in warm areas, scheduling work to warmest times, moving work to warmer areas, assigning more workers, etc…

A

Admin Controls for Cold Conditions

154
Q

Insulated Clothing, Gortex, Rain Gear, Gloves, Mittens

A

PPE

155
Q

The purpose of this program is to ensure that all confined spaces on an installation are adequately identified, analyzed, and classified to protect the the health of all workers entering these spaces.

A

The PURPOSE of the Confined Space Program

156
Q

What is the OSHA regulation that covers the Confined Spaces program?

A

29 CFR 1910.146

157
Q

This is the source(reference) that is used to conduct a Confined Space Program on an Air Force base.

A

AFI 91-203

158
Q

This reference gives way more detailed information on evaluating respiratory protection, emergency response, and PPE requirements when dealing with confined spaces.

A

ANSI Z117.1

159
Q
  1. Large enough to be entered
  2. Limited or restricted means for entry/exit
  3. Not designed for continuous employee occupancy
A

Confined Space

160
Q

An atmosphere with less than 19.5% oxygen

A

Oxygen-deficient Atmosphere

161
Q

An oxygen level ABOVE 23.5%

A

Oxygen-enriched Atmosphere

162
Q

The lowest concentration of a gas or vapor that ,use be present to support combustion in the presence of an ignition source.

A

Lower Exposure Limit (LEL)

163
Q

The HIGHEST concentration of a gas or vapor that will support combustion

A

Upper Explosion Limit (UEL)

164
Q

A condition that poses an immediate or delayed threat to life that would cause immediate or delayed adverse health effects, or that would interfere with a workers ability to escape unaided from a permit-required space.

A

IDLH

165
Q

A written document, renewed ANUALLY, that authorizes entry supervisors to issue entry permits. Must be signed by Ground Safety (SEG), Civil Engineering Flight (CEF), and Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight.

A

Master Entry Plan (MEG)

166
Q

Who are the five groups of personnel that are affected by confined space?

A

Functional Managers, Entry Supervisors, Confined Space Entrants, Attendants, and Emergency Personnel.

167
Q

The senior operating official at all levels exercising managerial control of an activity or operation involving confined spaces.

A

Functional Manager

168
Q

Verifies that all tests/measurements required by the permit have been made, verifies that all the equipment listed on the permit are in-place, verifies that rescue services are available, determines that conditions for entry are met, ensures workers are properly trained, ensures entry permits are consistent with the MEP

A

Entry Supervisor

169
Q

Must fully understand all procedures, safeguards, and emergency egress instructions and/or rescue procedures associated with entry. They should understand the results presented by meter displays and be able to interpret the meaning of alarm signals.

A

Confined Space Entrants

170
Q

Monitor the activities both inside and outside the confined space.

A

Attendants

171
Q

These team members rescue victims in confined space. Must have initial training and retraining every 12 months.

A

Emergency Personnel

172
Q

Enrolls all personnel who may enter confined spaces in the installation.
Ensures the BE reps on the CSPT are trained in confined space requirements.
Provide local training on the use, calibration, and care of atmosphere testing and monitoring equipment.
*and everything else relating to confined space stuff

A

BE

173
Q

Responsible for the implementation of the confined space program. Leads the installation CSPT.

A

SAFETY (SEG)

174
Q

Provides rescue support for all confined space entries. Confined spaces are evaluated by CEF for flammable, explosive, or oxygen-enriched atmospheres when permitting entries that are not covered by a MEP.

A

Civil Engineering Fire Department

175
Q

Is an active member of the CSPT. They work closely with SEG and CEF to fulfill the CSPT taskings.

A

BE

176
Q

Supply air and exhaust

A

Engineering Controls for confined space

177
Q

Signs and Training

A

Admin controls for confined space

178
Q

What 5 PPE items do you wear in confined spaces?

A

Harness, Hard Hat, Boots, Safety Glasses, Resp Protection

Bioenvironmental Engineer (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions