Block 4 (2) Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

What are the types of cost sharing?

A

copay
coinsurance
corridor deductibel

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2
Q

What is a flexible compensation plan (cafeteria plan)?

A

approach that allows employee to customize his insurance coverage

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3
Q

What is a 1-25 plan?

A

plan that allows you to take pretax income from your paycheck and apply it to healthcare expenses

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4
Q

What is any willing provider legislation?

A

state legislation
if any provider is willing to work on the same terms as the preferred provider, they can’t be excluded from 3rd party plans

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5
Q

What does PPO stand for?

A

preferred provider organization

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6
Q

What is freedom of choice legislation?

A

similar to any willing provider, but from the consumer’s point of view
if consumer is willing to meet the terms of the provider, the provider can’t exclude them from treatment

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7
Q

What is stop loss coverage?

A

employer covers out of pocket expenses up to a set point, then insurance kicks in

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8
Q

What authorized medicare?

A

Title XVIII of the social security act

a federally administered program

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9
Q

What is Medicare Part A, B, and D?

A

A: compulsory hospitalization insurance
B: voluntary supplementary medical insurance
D: outpatient pharmaceuticals

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10
Q

What is Medicare Part C?

A

medicare managed care option (medicare advantage)

private plan, slightly different coverages / extra coverage of A and B

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11
Q

How does one become eligible for Medicare?

A

1) 65+ (85%)
2) under 65, but receiving cash benefits under the Social Security or Railroad programs due to disability
3) under 65, but a chronic kidney patient

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12
Q

Why does a plan use cost-sharing?

A

1) makes patient reconsider whether they really need the treatment
2) shifts some costs to the patient
3) reduces administrative burdens (fewer claims processed)

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13
Q

How is medicare financed?

A

Part A: FICA employer (6.2%) + employee (6.2% of paycheck) up to $118,500 of income, and a corridor deductible
Part B: premium ($104.90, 25%) and govt (75%)

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14
Q

How are Parts C/D financed?

A

premium

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15
Q

FICA stands for:

A

federal insurance contributions act

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16
Q

What does Medicare Part B cover?

A

non-physician coverage (podiatrist, lab, xray), 20% coinsurance
medical devices
some home health services (up to 100 visits/yr)
drugs given in the doctors office
physicians charges

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17
Q

What are DRGs?

A

Diagnosis-related groups

    • 468 disease state categories
    • provides incentive to discharge pt earlier
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18
Q

Describe wholesaler registration.

A

not with federal govt

    • KYBOP + CHFS
    • if using CS, CHFS and DEA
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19
Q

PDMA stand for:

A

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

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20
Q

Define pedigree

A

a detailed history of where a drug has been

paper or electronic supply chain record

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21
Q

3 components to a pedigree

A

traceability, licensure, pre-emption

transaction history, information, statement

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22
Q

What were the effects of PDMA 87?

A

pedigree
banned reimportation of pharmaceuticals
banned sale of drug samples
banned re-sale of products purchased at preferential prices

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23
Q

Describe wholesaler recordkeeping

A

everything received, processed, sold, destroyed

– keep 2 years, unless tied to specific rx (5 years)

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24
Q

When do pharmacy pedigree requirements go into effect?

A

march 2016

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25
What is pre-emption?
federal law overrides state law
26
What is a presumption?
assumption that must be overturned by a preponderance of evidence -- ex: samples found in a pharmacy by BOP inspector
27
Describe licensing requirements of the Drug Supply Chain Security Act.
3PLs will be licensed under new federal requirements (Drug Supply Chain Security Act) provisions for federal licensing of authorized trading partners (licensed wholesalers)
28
How long must a pharmacy maintain pedigrees?
6 years from last fill or refill
29
What do you do if you suspect a supply security problem with a product you ordered?
quarantine and investigate - - investigate: contact wholesaler - - contact FDA, manufacturer, and wholesaler if a problem is found
30
Pedigrees apply to:
rx-only in finished form for humans | -- exceptions: bloods, radioactive/imaging, IV, compounded drug
31
In what transactions are pedigrees not required?
1) tx from one pharmacy to another for a specific rx 2) tx to physician for office use 3) tx pursuant to pharmacy sale or merger 4) tx combo products (medical equipment + a drug) 5) tx pursuant to medical emergency
32
Who is the executive director of the KY BOP?
steve hart
33
What are the 4 types of formal discipline from the KY BOP?
can do a combo - - dismiss complaints 1) fine 2) probate 3) suspend 4) revoke
34
How long is a KY BOP member term?
4 years | can serve up to 2 terms
35
How are KY BOP members selected?
appointed by governor from list submitted by the representative professional organization (KPhA)
36
What minor violations can be expunged from your BOP record?
failure to renew in timely manner, failure to earn CE, failure to get HIV/AIDS CE
37
What is the KYBOP newsletter, who publishes it, and when is it published?
"Kentucky Board of Pharmacy News" NABP quarterly (March, 6, 9, 12)
38
Who has authority to inspect your pharmacy?
KYBOP CHFS (PPDE) FDA DEA (must give informed consent, or submit Notice of Inspection to you)
39
How is PRN funded?
$10 assessment on license renewal
40
Who has authority to remove records from your pharmacy?
Police, attorneys, FDA (w/ court order) KBOP, CHFS, DEA (w/ receipt) no financial records for the DEA
41
How is telehealth authorized? What do you need?
by statute | informed, written consent from the pt
42
How are medical devices registered?
FDA: FDA Center for Devices and Radiological Health
43
What are the requirements for medical device manufacturers?
1) register annually 2) provide annual list of all devices being manufactured 3) CGMP 4) labeling
44
How might medical devices be adulterated?
marketed prior to approval | CGMP not followed
45
T/F: FDA can enforce a mandatory recall of medical devices and drugs.
F...not drugs devices via a "Cease Distribution Notification"
46
Who determines the classes of medical devices?
DHHS
47
What are the medical gasses?
O2, N2, NO, CO2, He, CO, medical air
48
How are medical gasses regulated?
FDA (rx-only)
49
Describe Class I devices.
simplest; general controls sufficient for safety/efficacy not life-sustaining pre-market notification not required, but sometimes done
50
Describe Class II devices.
general controls insufficient but special controls are ok pre-market notification required, sometimes an IDE is done -- special controls: tech specs, post-market surveillance
51
Describe Class III devices.
general and special controls are insufficient for safety and efficacy must file and gain approval (IDE, PMA)
52
What is the medical device pre-market approval form?
510K
53
IDE stands for:
investigational device exemption (equal to IND)
54
PMA stands for:
pre-market approval application (equal to NDA)
55
Describe the papers required in order for Class III devices (and some Class II).
IDE -- PMA -- approval
56
How are problems with medical devices reported?
- - manufacturer must report problems to FDA | - - facility (hospital) must notify problems to FDA
57
Medical devices cannot rely on...
metabolism or chemical rxn
58
What is medical air?
processed air to ensure freedom from particulates
59
How are vet drugs classified?
OTC and rx-only | -- "for animal use"
60
What's the main (and one of the only) differences in vet drug labeling vs human drug labeling?
instead of "rx only"... | "federal law restricts the use of this drug to the order of a licensed veterinarian"
61
Providers of what kind of HME must be available 24-7-365?
life-sustaining | -- O2 concentrators, O2 tanks, nebs
62
What is HME?
home medical equipment | -- DME suitable for home use
63
How are HME providers regulated?
KY BOP - - licensed - - pharmacist in pharmacy w/ permit do not need separate HME Provider Permit
64
When was the last APhA Code of Ethics revision?
1994 (started in 1990)
65
APhA was founded in...
1852
66
What is co-insurance?
fixed percentage of cost per unit service