Block 3 QA

Question 1

What is a Project?

Answer 1

A project is a set of activities that work towards a goal or objective over a finite period. The Key point is that project has a defined end-state.

Question 2

What is risk?

Answer 2

Risk is the effect of uncertainty on goals or objectives

Question 3

What are stakeholders?

Answer 3

Stakeholders are people with a vested interest in a project

Question 4

Why should you avoid engagement with skeptical stakeholders?

Answer 4

Skeptics are passively unsupportive. Making them more engaged may turn them into antagonists, who actively oppose the project.

Question 5

What does a RACI (“racy”) chart show?

Answer 5

RACI charts who the relationship of stakeholders to a project. They may be Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, or Informed.

Question 6

What is the differenced between Quality control and Quality Assurance?

Answer 6

QC focuses on the process to correct flaws. QA focusses on the process to prevent flaws. So, Quality Assurance comes before Quality Control in a development process.

Question 7

In the risk calculation for a wildfire, what role does lightning play?

Answer 7

Lighting is a threat, It creates effect when it acts upon dry wood (a vulnerability)

Question 8

What kind of risk identification is used in Functional Mission Analysis - Cyber (FMA-C)?

Answer 8

FMA-C uses a bottom up approach to risk identification.

Question 9

When should risk be accepted?

Answer 9

Risk should be accepted when it is within the risk appetite, i.e. whenever it is acceptable. Only risk unacceptable without further action warrants further action.

Question 10

Mitigating risk means changing risk factors. What do we call the means by which we make these changes?

Answer 10

Controls (or countermeasures) are the means by which we mitigate risk.

Question 11

What are the three demands in any project, and how do they relate?

Answer 11

The three objectives are quality, time, and cost. They always exist in a balance Q=T+C or both. It is impossible to do something faster and cheaper with better results.

Question 12

What is the Pareto Principle, and why is it useful?

Answer 12

The Pareto Principle is the 80/20 rule, which says that most of the effects on anything come from a relatively small portion of the influences. This is useful to understand because it means that a lot of effect can be changed with much less effort by finding the right influences. For instance removing the vulnerabilities linked to most of the impacts, or increasing the funding to the team working on the most significant deliverables.

Question 13

What makes a minimum viable product different from a prototype?

Answer 13

Prototypes are built to test user interface and experiences with limited sets of stakeholders. Minimum viable products can preform the most essential functions requested by the sponsor and are mean for general use.

Question 14

What is the purpose of the Program Evaluation & Review Technique (PERT)?

Answer 14

PERT accounts for a degree of uncertainty in activity or task estimates.

Question 15

What is the Delphi method used for?

Answer 15

The Delphi method is a way to get a consensus estimate from several experts. It uses iteration (two or more meetings) to reduce the effect of one-off experiences.

Question 16

What are two problems that arise when project team members pad estimates? (add buffers)

Answer 16

Padded estimates can make worthwhile projects get rejected for being perceived as too costly. Projects that do get approved based on padded estimates may also take longer than is really needed, potentially impacting the mission.

Question 17

How should a project team member interact with stakeholders?

Answer 17

Proactively; clearly and in ways they prefer.

Question 18

Who decides how much work goes into an agile sprint?

Answer 18

The project team members-not sponsor or the scrum master.

Question 19

Why are semi-qualitative estimates problematic?

Answer 19

a. Semi-quantitative estimates assign numbers to qualitative estimates. The relationship between the numbers is not always clear, so applying mathematical formulas to the numbers (such as adding or multiplying them) may create results that are not supported by the underlying data. Also, many people understand that estimates based on expert judgment may not scale well between different levels of an organization, but when numbers are assigned, the true nature of the estimates can be misunderstood.

Question 20

What are “stories” in agile methodology?

Answer 20

Stories are what the customer wants, prioritized by the customer. They form the backlog of work to be done on the project.

Question 21

What does does a CPM diagram show that a Grant chart does not?

Answer 21

Dependencies between activities.

Question 22

Why should every project include an after action review

Answer 22

AARs foster continuous improvement.

Question 23

23. What is a “directing” leadership style, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 23

a. A “directing” style, sometimes called “command and control,” is a high-direction, low-support approach to leadership where the leader makes the decisions and everyone else obeys. It relies on formal authority or respect and can be a good way to get things done in a crisis. Over time, though, it tends to grate on people when they are continuously ordered around, and it stifles creativity. Project managers rarely have strong formal authority, so this style should be used especially sparingly in a PM context.

Question 24

Why do teams often have worse preformance shortly after forming before gradually improving overtime?

Answer 24

a. New team members generally start with optimism and good intentions. They have different styles and personalities, which soon leads to clashes, and this reduces performance. Over time, they get used to one another and eventually reach a rhythm where each knows what to expect of the others and how best to interact with them.

Question 25

What three things are evaluated by the Quality Assurance Personnel Evaluations program?

Answer 25

Effectiveness of the work center training program, proficiency of technicians, and adequacy of technical and procedural data—aka training, skills, and processes.

Question 26

Why does Stan/Eval have both a written test and an observation of preformance?

Answer 26

Using something doesn’t demonstrate full understanding of it. Knowing a lot about something doesn’t demonstrate the ability to use it. Both are important.

Question 27

27. What two traits are most important in a SEE?

Answer 27

a. Stan/Evan Examiners (SEEs) should have high levels of experience and integrity.

Question 28

Why might QA personnel be asked to review statements of work for technical contracts?

Answer 28

People assigned to QA tend to have widely applicable technical experience that contract specialists don’t have/ and they are not apart of the operational mission, so their opinions are seen as having less bias.

Question 29

29. What sort of information do you find in a Cybercrew Information File (CIF; “sif”)?

Answer 29

a. The CIF is a reference for the cybercrew that contains information on updates to the weapon system and the tactics, techniques, and procedures for its use.

Question 30

How should a commander interpret a Stan/Eval rating of Q2?

Answer 30

a. Someone rated Q2 is not mission ready. However, the rated individual did everything safely and failed in non-critical areas, so that person can likely be requalified soon.

Question 31

What environmental factor is most closely linked to the risk of corrosion of equipment?

Answer 31

Storage conditions, and particularly being stored outdoors.

Question 32

What are the four tasks of the QA program?

Answer 32

Identify Deficiencies, preform root cause analysis, develop solutions, and analyze trends.

Question 33

What is a local work card used for?

Answer 33

Work cards provide a locally standardized way of preforming maintenance functions.

Question 34

What best distinguishes Stan/Eval from QA?

Answer 34

Stan/Eval is for operational cybercrew positions. QA has a maintenance focus.