Block 3: CNS disorders and treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the neuropathology of Alzheimer’s Disease.

A

The two main pathological hallmarks of AD are amyloid-beta plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.

Extracellular amyloid plaques contain an insoluble 42-residue peptide (beta amyloid 42) in their core, surrounded by neurites, microglia, and astrocytes (including structural abnormalities such as enlarged mitochondria, liposomes, and impaired filaments). These plaques may take years to fully form. They are seen across many neurodegenerative diseases, and are also seen in non-diseased, ageing brains (known as senile plaques), however, they are much more prevalent in AD. These plaques largely aggregate around the temporal lobes and limbic system structures, as well as the prefrontal cortex. This can be shown in PET scans using Pittsburgh compound B (radiolabelled thioflavin derivative) which associates with the AB plaques.
In the healthy brain, 90% of AB-peptide is in the form of AB40, and is derived by the cleavage of a much larger protein (amyloid precursor protein APP). It is normally cleaved by a-secretase to give this AB40 form (soluble and can be easily removed), however, abnormal cleavage can be caused by B- or y-secretase, leading to the formation neurotoxic peptide AB42 (insoluble). AB42 can aggregate into oligomers. APP mutations can lead to favourable cleavage by beta-secretase, resulting in increased oligomerisation; PSEN1/PSEN2 mutations can lead to favourable cleavage by gamma-secretase (same outcome). Amyloid-B plaque formation can impair synaptic function between neurons, boosted LTD and suppressing LTP. Additionally, the aggregation of oligomers into insoluble beta-sheet amyloid fibrils can trigger local inflammatory responses which, over time, causes oxidative stress and biochemical changes which ultimately lead to neuronal cell death and the deposition of plaques and tangles.

Neurofibrillary tangles are dense bundles of fibres in the cytoplasm of neurons, containing a highly polymerised form of a cytoskeletal protein Tau. These occur in many chronic brain diseases (not just in AD), but are more prevalent (same as AB plaques). The hippocampus and parieto-temporal regions of the cerebral cortex are particularly susceptible (helps to explain early symptoms). Tau proteins stabilise the structure of microtubules – they become hyperphosphorylated in AD, causing them to dissociate from the microtubule and become tangled (initially form paired-helical filaments which associate together). This results in a de-stabilisation of the structure of the microtubule, preventing proper axonal transport from taking place, and leading to neuronal cell death. Using the same PET technique as previously discussed for observing AB plaques, neurofibrillary tangles can be imaged in the diseased brain – this reveals that some region of the brain have tangles but no plaques, suggesting that the plaques do not cause the tangles as proposed by the amyloid cascade hypothesis.

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2
Q

Outline genetic predisposition to Alzheimer’s.

A

There are two forms of AD- familial and sporadic. Familial AD is the less common form, and is believed to be mostly genetic, whereas sporadic (later onset) AD has complex genetic epidemiology mixed with other risk factors. Familial AD is attributed to presenilin 1 (chromosome 14) and presenilin 2 (chromosome 1) mutations (PSEN1/2).
Sporadic AD is more associated with APP gene (chromosome 21) mutations, as well as APOE4 variation of gene APOE (chromosome 19). Apolipoprotein E is involved in neuronal repair and growth (as well as cholesterol transport). Common amino acid variations also shown to be associated with predisposition to Alzheimer’s disease (also associated with senile AB plaques and neurofibrillary tangles). In vitro, apolipoprotein E has a high affinity to AB42 peptide, increases its formation, and interferes with its removal. There are three major APOE alleles- APOE2, 3, and 4 – the majority of the population has the E3 variant (~78%), and the minority with E2 (6%), E4 (16%). APOE2 has been shown to give a certain degree of protection from AD. These alleles differ by just two amino acids. Normal cholesterol transport is required for the removal of B-amyloid protein from the CNS, so APOE4 causes accumulations of B-amyloid and binding of B-amyloid to the tau protein of neurofibrillary tangles. Heterozygous for APOE4 = 2 times risk of developing sporadic AD; homozygous = 5 times risk.

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3
Q

Outline the treatment options available for AD.

A

Treatments almost all target the symptoms, rather than the disease (also, before the disease becomes symptomatic it causes a lot of damage). Some treatments target the cholinergic and glutamate systems in an attempt to help memory issues. Tacrine, donepezil, and Aricept block Ach breakdown by inhibiting acetylcholine esterase. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist, shown to reduce some clinical symptoms with moderate to severe AD (staves off excitotoxicity). The problem with these is that they have huge side effects.

More contemporary approaches aim to target the APP secretase enzymes which produce AB42, or to reduce the activity of AB42 itself. B-site APP cleaving enzyme (BACE) inhibitors should in theory be able to block beta-secretase, and therefore prevent the formation of excess AB42. This can also be applied to gamma-secretase, but these are not as good targets as they produce toxic side effects (gamma-secretase is important for lymphocyte development and intestinal structures). BACE inhibitors are not associated with these side effects, but it is difficult to get them across the BBB.

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGS) bind AB in solution which leads to plaque formation. GAG mimetics compete with GAGS to block this aggregation process. Ovine colostrinin is one such example which has been shown to improve learning in AD in animal models. SALAs (selective amyloid lowering agents) are a new class of anti AB drugs which target mild AD. Tarenflurbil was a very promising agent, but was one of the largest drug trials to ever fail (worked in animal models). This could be because blocking AB is not an appropriate drug target, or because tarenflurbil itself is a weak pharmacological agent (there is debate on this).

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4
Q

Outline the 5 stages of progression of Parkinson’s Disease.

A

1) Unilateral tremor, or difficulty performing simple manual functions, leaning to affected side (tremor often improves or disappears with purposeful function).
2) Bilateral involvement with early postural changes, slow shuffling gait with decreased excursion of legs.
3) Pronounced gait disturbances and moderate generalised disability, postural instability and tendency to fall.
4) Significant disability, limited ambulation with assistance.
5) Complete invalidism, patient confined to bed or chair, cannot stand or walk even with assistance.

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5
Q

Describe the pathology of PD.

A

Lewy bodies are spherical neuronal inclusions (easily identified post-mortem), and are a defining feature of PD. These Lewy bodies can be found in the cytoplasm of surviving neurons, and are comprised of many proteins including a-synuclein. Under a microscope they are easily identified as pink spheres with pale halo around them. a-synuclein is a synaptic protein present in presynaptic terminals, possibly involved in neurotransmitter storage and release, vesicle recycling, and synaptic plasticity. Mutations in the synuclein gene has been associated with familial PD. Lewy bodies have been found throughout the brain in PD post-mortems. It is proposed that they are first deposited in the olfactory bulb and lower brainstem, then in the substantia nigra before progressing to the cortex (would explain the loss of smell and REM sleep disorders in onset before motor impairments).

Depletion of neurons in the SNpc in very pronounced in people with PD. Up to 60% of nigral neurons are lost before any motor impairments appear. This delay is accounted for by increased dopamine production by surviving neurons (compensatory) or by upregulation of dopamine receptors in target striatal neurons (current avenue of research). Nigrostriatal tract (one of 4 dopaminergic pathways in the brain) degenerates leading to less than 20% dopamine levels in basal ganglia. The nigrostriatal pathway is the one associated with motor, and is the one associated with causing the pathology of PD (originates in the SN and projects to the striatum). The mesolimbic pathway is associated with emotional behaviours (cell bodies from the ventral tegmental area project to the nucleus accumbens and amygdala). The mesocortical pathway is also associated with emotional behaviours (cell bodies within ventral tegmental area project to the frontal cortex). The tuberohypophyseal pathway project from the ventral hypothalamus to the pituitary (regulate pituitary secretions).

Other pathologies associated with PD are mitochondrial dysfunction (defect of mitochondrial complex 1 confined to the substantia nigra – linked with oxidative stress and elevated brain iron levels); and microgliosis (inflammation and change of cytokine levels in substantia nigra and CSF).

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6
Q

Discuss the various treatments available for PD.

A

Levodopa is one of the most common first-line treatments for PD. Dopamine is produced endogenously in the brain from tyrosine, which is converted to DOPA, then dopamine. Levodopa is a synthetic form of dopamine precursor DOPA, and can be converted to dopamine in dopaminergic neurons by DOPA decarboxylase (prescribed instead of dopamine, because dopamine cannot cross the BBB). It is given with DOPA decarboxylase inhibitors (e.g. carbidopa), which cannot cross the BBB, to prevent peripheral side-effects. As PD progresses, levodopa effectiveness decreases, and more continuous dopaminergic stimulation is required to maintain consistent physiological activity.

Dopamine agonists are effective in controlling PD symptoms, however there is a wide range of side-effects. They don’t show fluctuations in efficacy which are seen with levodopa but they may cause somnolence, hallucinations, and predisposition to compulsive behaviours.

MOA-B inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of extraneuronal dopamine in the brain. Therefore lack the unwanted side effects of non-selective MAO inhibitors (used in treatment of depression). Clinical trials show that a combination of MAO-B inhibitor Selegiline and levodopa are more effective than levodopa alone

Other treatments include:

  • Neural transplantation (injection of foetal neuroblasts into the striatum). Up to 5 foetuses may be required for sufficient neuroblasts. Some transplants have been relatively successful, and dopamine neurons have become functional again (but side effect of serious dyskinesia).
  • Gene therapy aims at increasing synthesis of neurotransmitters and neurotrophic factors (for example, expressing tyrosine hydroxylase or dopa decarboxylase; or increasing synthesis of GABA in subthalamic nucleus by overexpressing glutamic acid decarboxylase, to reduce excitatory input).
  • Deep brain stimulation (DBS) involves implanting an electrode into the brain (subthalamic nucleus or globus pallidus). This is used to alleviate motor symptoms in patients with severe motor complications.
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7
Q

Describe how stroke damages neural tissue.

A

Lots of different pathways contribute to brain injury, these are not independent of each other (e.g. cytotoxic oedema, excitotoxicity, oxidative stress), but feed into one another in a positive feedback loop to amplify the insult. The major cause of cell death is energy failure (without oxygen and glucose, cells cannot produce ATP, and therefore cannot sustain ion pumps). This results in inappropriate ion gradients, and significant accumulations of sodium and calcium, resulting in swelling, degeneration of organelles, loss of membrane integrity, and dissolution of the cell. Increase in synaptic glutamate results in overstimulation of NMDA, resulting in downstream cascading effects due to intracellular calcium (excitotoxicity). Damage from oxidative stress to the BBB can result in inflammation (causing further oxidative stress). The contribution of these pathways to brain damage following a stroke varies throughout time.

The result of reintroduction of oxygen when blood flow is restored is the generation of lots of reactive oxygen species (due to reduction in endogenous antioxidant protection). Because the brain is very lipid rich, it is sensitive to oxidative damage. It also has high levels of iron which act as pro-oxidant during stress and high oxygen consumption at basal levels. The main sources of ROS in the brain are mitochondrial respiration chain; NADPH oxidases, and xanthine oxidases (as well as nitrogen oxidases). ROS can then cause DNA fragmentation, apoptosis, protein denaturing, lipid peroxidation, and inflammation.

Hypoxia, ROS, and shear stress result in blood clotting, platelet aggregation, and cytokine release in the blood vessel lumen. P-selectin is translocated onto the surface of platelets, and platelets and leukocytes aggregate. Compliment is activated, releasing AA metabolites. Upregulation of E- and P-selectin provides a site for leukocyte binding on the vascular wall. A loss in nitric oxide occurs due to ROS generation (disruption of vascular tone), which enhances leukocyte and platelet aggregation. MMP activates, leading to BBB breakdown. Histamine is released, which can further contribute to BBB leakiness. Damaged cells release ATP which acts as an early pro-inflammatory signal, leading to the production of cytokines and chemokines (activates microglia, which leads to production of more inflammatory mediators and ROS). This all creates a snowball effect.

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8
Q

Outline the current treatment options for stroke.

A

Treatment within a dedicated stroke unit (multidisciplinary team of experts) has been shown to reduce mortality by 3%, dependency by 5%, and need for institutional care by 2%. Antiplatelet therapies (e.g. aspirin) have been shown to reduce death and dependency, as well as recurrence of stroke. The best pharmacological treatment is recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA, a thrombolytic). rt-PA is the only currently approved drug for acute ischaemic stroke – it activates plasmin to degrade fibrin clots (clot-busting drug). Although it doesn’t hugely increase chances of survival from stroke, it has been shown to hugely decrease dependency in stroke survivors. Thrombolytics must be administered within 4.5hrs of symptom onset. People often don’t arrive at hospital within this window, as it is not as obvious as a heart attack for instance. Cost per treatment of thrombolytics is £300-600. Chances of excellent outcome of treatment is increased by 2.3 times if treated within 90 minutes (odds fall linearly with time from onset). They must confirm that the patient is suffering from an ischaemic stroke to treat them with thrombolytics, if it were a haemorrhagic stroke it would be a terrible treatment. New devices which physically remove clots from the blood stream have been recently developed (thrombectomy). These devices have been shown to improve chances of good outcome after recovering from stroke when treated fast, but also when patients don’t get treated as fast. Novel drugs which aim to assist thrombectomy are currently being developed.

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9
Q

What are miRNAs and extracellular vesicles?

A

miRNAs (micro-RNAs) are considered the fine-tuners of gene expression (increase in their expression leads to inhibition of translation of their target genes). These are short, non-coding RNAs (typically 20-22 nucleotides) which are held within extracellular vesicles. The seed sequence (conserved heptametrical sequence, mostly situated at positions 2-7 from the miRNA 5’-end) is very short, meaning that one miRNA can target multiple genes – these genes may contribute to similar pathways and processes or can be completely distinct. This means that by delivering one miRNA you can achieve polytherapy outcome from a single intervention.

Exosomes are small extracellular vesicles (<150nm diameter), and are derived from multivesicular endosomes (within cells). Microvesicles are larger and result from budding of the membrane (have markers of the origin of the cell from which they are derived; typically >500nm diameter). These systems are important for many physiological functions within the body, including inflammation and have been implicated in a range of specific diseases including cancers, cardiometabolic diseases, neurological diseases, and infectious diseases. They can be used as endogenous therapeutics in the response to disease, or as biomarkers for identification of specific diseases.

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10
Q

Describe how miRNAs can be used as a biomarker for stroke risk and as a treatment for stroke.

A

Clinically, altered miRNA expression has been observed in circulating plasma serum and CSF of stroke patients. Preclinical models have found that miRNA levels change within the brain tissue itself after stroke. Several studies have profiled miRNA levels at pre-stroke (risk factors), acute stage stroke, and chronic stage stroke. Many of the miRNA levels in pre-stroke profiles are associated with diabetes, hypertension, and atherosclerosis. A whole host of miRNAs linked to excitotoxicity, oxidative stress, inflammation, BBB damage, and apoptosis are seen in acute stroke profiles. miRNAs linked with neurogenesis and angiogenesis are observed in patients with chronic stage stroke. These have been found by cross-referencing the DNA targets of these miRNAs with databases to provide predictive and validated targets. These gene targets can be sorted by the processes which they will be involved in.

A systematic review aiming to determine the usefulness of miRNAs as biomarkers for acute ischaemic stroke was conducted in 2018 by Dewdney et al. fully analysed 8 studies which included almost 600 cases and over 400 healthy controls, and found 22 miRNAs were differentially expressed (12 upregulated, 10 downregulated). Only one of these miRNAs was differentially expressed in at least 2 studies, showing that there is considerable heterogeneity across the studies. It is clear from these studies that more research is required to evaluate the diagnostic potential of miRNAs. However, these looked at circulating miRNA expression rather than those exclusively in extracellular vesicles. Looking solely at those which are expressed in EVs may overcome some of the disparity seen in these studies.

A preclinical study, by Chen & Chopp (2018), investigated how these miRNAs could be used to deliver therapeutic agents to the brain for stroke recovery. This study used rat models (n=6) which were subjected to experimental stroke (transient middle cerebral artery occlusion tMCAO), and intravenously injected extracellular vesicles derived from mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) 24 hours later (it was hypothesised that MSCs, a common treatment for stroke recovery, elicit their effects via EVs). It was found that these vesicles freely passed through the BBB and interacted with target cells to transfer cargo via endocytosis, direct fusion, or binding through receptor-ligand interaction. These can then induce a host of effects which can be used to initiate neuro-regenerative processes, including neurogenesis (as well as angiogenesis, oligodendrogenesis, and synaptogenesis), axonal remodelling, vascular remodelling, and reductions in inflammation; all of which promote neuroprotection and neuro-restoration to improve functional outcome. The results determined that many MSC benefits are indeed mediated by miRNAs found within EVs

Another more recent preclinical study by Li et al. (2021) looked at cerebral endothelial cell (CEC)-derived EVs rather than MSC-derived. This study used a more clinically relevant stroke model – an embolic middle cerebral artery occlusion model (eMCAO; blood clot is injected, more representative of an ischaemic occlusion). This therapy was paired with thrombectomy, as well as tested independently, to test if it assists. It was found that when paired with thrombectomy, the CEC-derived EV treatment significantly improved outcome. They also found that this agent would not increase the chance of haemorrhage (thrombectomy alone increases the chance of haemorrhage). The combined therapy found improvements in neurological function and reduction in infarct volume of ~37% (compared to control).

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11
Q

What are partial and generalised epileptic seizures?

A

Partial (focal) seizures arise in a specific region in the brain (within the temporal lobe). Simple partial seizures do not impair awareness; complex partial seizures do; and partial seizures which affect the contralateral side are known as secondary generalised seizures.
Generalised seizures arise spontaneously and simultaneously in both hemispheres. these seizures take more diverse forms, such as absence seizures, myoclonic seizures, clonic seizures, tonic seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, and atonic seizures.
There are also unclassified epileptic seizures which don’t fit into the two categories.

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12
Q

What is known about the brain mechanisms underlying epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy probably involves ion channel dysfunction and/or neurotransmitter imbalance. Action potentials are largely governed by influx of sodium and efflux of potassium via VGICs. In EEGs of people with epilepsy, we often observe abnormal spikes which are known as paroxysmal depolarising shifts (PDSs) – this is an abnormal AP, which involves the additional input of calcium channels and LGICs that are sensitive to glutamate and GABA. This results in prolonged depolarisation of the membrane, with many spikes in depolarisation. After which, there is a longer lasting refractory period. However, it is unknown what causes this epileptic discharge, or what turns one isolated epileptic discharge into an epileptic seizure.

Whilst ion channels may account for the abnormal discharges in individual neurons, excitability of networks are governed by neurotransmitters. Glutamate and GABA are the neurotransmitters which are most characterised in epilepsy. One potential cause of epilepsy could be a simple neurotransmitter imbalance between glutamate and GABA, resulting in imbalance of excitatory and inhibitory signals (disruption to homeostasis). It can therefore be hypothesised that either under-release of GABA, or excessive release of glutamate could cause epileptic seizures.

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13
Q

Compare idiopathic and symptomatic epilepsy and the proposed mechanisms underlying each.

A

Epilepsy can also be classified aetiologically as either idiopathic or symptomatic. Idiopathic epilepsies are mainly generalised seizure disorders with presumably genetic origins – most are believed to have complex polygenic inheritance which makes identification of causative genetic mutations difficult. Some of these have mendelian inheritance (single gene). An example of a monogenic epilepsy is severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy (SMEI; AKA Dravet syndrome) – it presents at ~6 months of age with generalised clonic seizures (absence and focal seizures may develop later). Seizures typically unresponsive to antiepileptic drugs; children develop cognitive, behavioural, and motor impairments. In 70-80% of cases of SMEI, there is a mutation in SCN1A (encodes the alpha subunit of a VGNa+ channel, resulting in a loss of channel function – would expect it to increase function, but that’s not the case). The current belief as to why this LOF causes seizures is because it is predominantly expressed in inhibitory interneurons (loss of inhibitory control) – this would also explain why it is unresponsive to drugs which block ion channels (make it worse by blocking residual channel function).

Symptomatic epilepsies arise from a known abnormality (i.e. can often be seen in an MRI or CT scan). These are often called acquired epilepsies, and are often focal seizures which arise from an area of injury. Feed-forward and feedback inhibition via inhibitory interneurons are crucial for preventing excessive excitation in many neural circuits. Feed-forward inhibition (excitatory neuron synapses to inhibitory interneuron which feeds back to the same cell the excitatory neuron synapses with); feedback inhibition (output from excited cell also excites inhibitory interneuron which feeds back to the same cell). It is likely that these inhibitory interneurons are impaired by the lesions. There are several theories as to how this occurs:

1) Upon brain injury, these inhibitory interneurons are selectively lost.
2) The excitatory interneurons that synapse to these inhibitory interneurons are lost, resulting in loss of inhibitory drive.
3) “sprouting” of axons forms abnormal connections with excitatory neurons in the network.
4) Neurogenesis (in specific areas of the brain, such as the hippocampus) – new excitatory neurons are specialising from precursor cells.

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14
Q

Outline the current treatment options for epilepsy.

A

Phenytoin and carbamazepine are classic sodium channel blockers which show preferential binding to inactivated state of the channel, exerting a use- and frequency-dependent block. Block is enabled by use (have to use the channel to bring it to its inactivated state in order for the drug to bind); frequency of use enhances the block (more frequent activation will result in more channels being in the inactivated conformation, and therefore the efficacy of the drugs increases with frequency of activation). This means that the drugs selectively inhibit high frequency APs (e.g. during a seizure). VGNaC blockers are the most numerous family of anti-epileptic drugs.

Phenobarbital (PB) and diazepam (DZP) are drugs which bind to distinct sites on the GABAA receptor complex to enhance its response to the binding of GABA (positive allosteric modulators). They can also activate the receptor in the absence of GABA. Barbiturates such as phenobarbital prolong the during of the channel opening, whereas benzodiazepines such as diazepam increase the frequency that they open.

Gabapentin and pregabalin are P/Q-type calcium channel blockers. These are involved in neurotransmitter release at the synapse, so blocking them can prevent excitatory neurotransmitters being released. They are sometimes used for epilepsy, but more commonly in the treatment of neuropathic pain.

Perampanel is a selective, non-competitive antagonist at AMPA glutamate receptors. It binds at the boundary of the extracellular and transmembrane domains to affect conformation of the receptor. It is also very potent – it is well tolerated unlike most glutamate receptor antagonists which block fundamental physiological brain functions leading to pronounced adverse effects.

Levetiracetam and brivaracetam bind selectively to synaptic vesicle glycoprotein 2A (SV2A) to inhibit it. SV2A is involved in neurotransmitter release at the synapse via calcium entry, and is found in pre-synaptic vesicles.

Valproate (AKA valproic acid or sodium valproate) is one of the oldest antiepileptic drugs, and still no one knows how it works. Proposed ideas include sodium channel blocking, T-type calcium channel blocking, positive modulation of GABAA receptors, promotion of GABA synthesis and inhibition of GABA metabolism, and reduced brain aspartate concentration. It is also licensed for the treatments of bipolar disorder and migraine (and under investigation in schizophrenia, HIV infection, and cancer). It may inhibit a whole range of proteins expressed in the brain epigenetically.

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15
Q

What are the effects of general anaesthetics and what brain areas are involved?

A

General anaesthetics aim to provide balanced anaesthesia (amnesia, analgesia, and relaxation). They are used in combination with other drugs such as neuromuscular blockers, sedatives, and anxiolytics. Amnesia is driven at the hippocampus and amygdala; anaelgesia by suppression of nociceptive inputs at the spinal level (substantia gelatinosa); unconciousness is driven by the reticular activating system in the brainstem and thalamocortical tracts; and muscle reflex is suppressed at the level of spinal interneurons.

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16
Q

Discuss the possible mechanisms of general anaesthetics.

A

The lipid theory suggested that the efficacy of a GA is determined by interaction with lipids in neuronal cell membranes – this has now been superseded by protein theory (that efficacy is determined by interaction with membrane ion channels). The link between lipid solubility and GA efficacy is a reflection of binding of GAs to hydrophobic pockets on membrane proteins.

There is no specific site of action that has been identified for any GA (resulting lack of competitive antagonists makes identification of selective binding sites difficult). The main targets are ligand-gated ion channels. The most important of these is ion channels with respect to GAs is the GABA-A receptor (exceptions to this are cyclopropane, ketamine, and xenon). GAs bind to specific, lipophilic (hydrophobic) pockets within different GABA-A receptor subunits and act as positive allosteric modulators. Molecular studies have found that if you introduce point mutations to alpha subunits of these receptors, the action of inhaled GAs can become inhibited, but the action of intravenous GAs is unaffected; conversely, point mutations to beta subunits will inhibit the action of both inhaled and intravenous GAs. This suggests that inhaled GAs bind to the interface between alpha and beta subunits, and intravenous GAs bind to beta subunits (just an educated assumption). The pharmacology of GAs is further complicated due to the massive heterogeneity of GABA-A receptors, and there is some evidence of preferential effects at extra-synaptic GABA receptors that contain alpha-4, alpha-6, and gamma subunits. It’s therefore possible that GAs exert their effects at extra-synaptic sites as well as or in stead of at the synapse itself.

GAs also have effects on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, glycine receptors, and glutamate receptors (but the mechanisms are less well understood). All GAs work as positive allosteric modulators at inhibitory receptors, but negative allosteric modulators at excitatory receptors (e.g. acetylcholine, serotonin, and glutamate).

17
Q

What determines the rate of equilibrium between the lungs and blood regarding inhalational general anaesthetics?

A

The rate of equilibration between the lungs and the blood (and corresponding speed of induction and recovery) is determined by two chemical properties:

1) Blood-gas partition coefficient (solubility in blood).
o Low blood-gas partition coefficient means a rapid induction and recovery (drugs which dissolve less well in blood act faster). When the GA is first administered, it is diluted by the residual gas in the lungs, meaning that partial pressure of alveolar gas is lower than in the inspired gas. As you take subsequent breaths, the alveolar partial pressure begins to rise towards equilibrium. With a low blood-gas partition coefficient, the absorption of gas into the blood is lower, and therefore alveolar partial pressure will rise faster, resulting in the requirement of fewer breaths in order to reach equilibrium. Lower solubility in blood therefore allows faster equilibration, which is why low blood-gas partition coefficients result in more rapid induction and recovery rates.

2) Oil-gas partition coefficient (solubility in fat).
o High lipid solubility means GAs accumulate in adipose tissue (are retained), and may therefore produce prolonged hangovers after long operations. As body fat has relatively low blood flow, the tendency for inhalational GAs to accumulate in adipose tissue can impact their pharmacokinetics. Halothane is 100 times more soluble in fat than water – after equilibration, 95% of halothane is found in adipose tissue. This is becoming an issue as the average body fat % increases.

18
Q

Outline the steps taken and drugs administered during prolonged surgery.

A

1) First, a sedative or anxiolytic is administered orally or intravenously (e.g. benzodiazepine).
2) Intravenous administration of GA for rapid induction of anaesthesia (e.g. propofol).
3) Peri-operative opioid analgesics during operation for pain relief (e.g. alfentanil).
4) Inhalational GA for maintenance of anaesthesia (e.g. isoflurane with nitrous oxide and oxygen).
5) Neuromuscular blocker for muscle relaxation (e.g. vecuronium).
6) Anti-emetic agent to prevent vomiting during anaesthesia (e.g. ondansetron).
7) Muscarinic antagonist to prevent bradycardia and reduce secretions (e.g. atropine).
8) An anticholinesterase may be used to reverse neuromuscular block (e.g. neostigmine).
9) An analgesic for post-operative pain (e.g. morphine).

19
Q

Describe the pharmacological effects of local anaesthetics.

A

LAs inhibit voltage-gated sodium channels in the PNS. They also seem to have preferential effect on sensory neurons. They restrict initiation and propagation of action potentials (can therefore abolish AP firing at high concentrations to block nerves). Effects of these are use-dependent (degree of block enhanced by firing frequency due to functional cycling of channels and affinity for the inactivated state – exactly the same as anti-convulsant drugs).
The site of action of LAs is on the intracellular domain of the VGNaC. The ionisation state of the drug will determine its penetration through the membrane and into the neuron (i.e. ionised state of the drug will reduce the membrane’s permeability to it). Since it is mostly ionised in the body, it finds different ways across the membrane (through ion channels, for instance – hydrophilic route). Some drug unionises, and passively diffuses through the membrane (hydrophobic route). It then becomes re-ionised on the other side of the membrane, where it exerts its effects, and cannot pass the membrane. All LAs have very similar side effects – these are usually caused by escape of the drug into the systemic circulation. They therefore often administered alongside a vasoconstrictor, such as adrenaline, to discourage movement to other tissues via the bloodstream.

20
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors, and give examples.

A

These inhibit the enzyme, MAO, which metabolises monoamines – therefore, these increase the concentration of monoamine neurotransmitters, leading to increased post-synaptic receptor activation. These have fallen out of use due to side-effects, such as off-target muscarinic effects (blurred vision, dried mouth), increased appetite and weight gain, sleep disturbance, and most notable, cheese reaction. Cheese reaction is dramatic increase in blood pressure due to the prevention of metabolism of indirect sympathomimetics (such as tyramine in cheese, red wine, chocolate) which enhance blood pressure by acting on the periphery. Non-selective MAOIs include iproniazid, pargyline, and tranylcypromine. These are non-competitive, and antidepressant effects achieved in 2-4 weeks. Selective MAOIs (e.g. clorgyline, moclobemide) are competitive, reversible inhibitors (of MAO-A only). These have fewer side effects, but still considerable.

21
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants, and give examples.

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) block the reuptake of noradrenaline and 5-HT from the synaptic cleft (inhibit reuptake transporters) in order to increase synaptic transmitter duration and thus increase activation of post-synaptic receptors. These are preferred to MAOIs due to fewer side-effects, but still have quite a lot (for instance, off-target muscarinic effects causing blurred vision and dry mouth; postural hypotension; increased appetite and weight gain; lowered seizure threshold. Examples of TCAs include imipramine and desipramine (dibenzazepines), however these have off-target effects. Dibenzocycloheptenes such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline are more widely used, though they also have off-target side effects. Amitriptyline is equally selective for noradrenaline and 5-HT, and is also used in treatment of migraine and neuropathic pain.

22
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of second generation antidepressants, and give examples.

A

Second generation antidepressants were discovered in the 1980s. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block reuptake of 5-HT from the synaptic cleft to prolong synaptic 5-HT and lead to greater post-synaptic receptor activation. These are >100 times more selective for 5-HT than noradrenaline. There are also other drugs which are serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) which are less selective and more similar to tricyclic drugs (but have far fewer off-target effects). Also selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (NRIs). Fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, and citalopram are SSRIs. These are all extremely potent, and bind to central pocket sites on the 5-HT transporters of serotonergic neurons to downregulate their activity. These are the most commonly prescribed antidepressant drugs of all. The latest drug of this class is escitalopram (the S-enantiomer of citalopram), which is an allosteric serotonin reuptake inhibitor (ASRI, binds to both the primary central pocket site as well as an allosteric site – it is a positive allosteric modulator to its own binding of the central pocket site) and is >1000 times more selective for 5-HT than noradrenaline. These drugs still have considerable side effects, including weight loss, reduced libido, nausea, insomnia, and restlessness (as well as increased suicide risk in young people).

23
Q

Provide some examples of novel drugs for treatment of depression, and describe their mechanisms.

A

The newest drugs to come to market are noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NaSSAs), including mirtazapine and mianserin. Rather than targeting transporters, these drugs block presynaptic receptors (specifically alpha-2-adrenoceptors and various 5-HT receptors (mainly 5-HT2 and 3). The blocking of presynaptic receptors prevents negative feedback effect of synaptic neurotransmitters, leading to increased transmission, and therefore increased receptor activation. These work slightly faster than SSRIs, and side effects include weight gain and sedation. They are less likely to cause nausea and sexual dysfunction than SSRIs.

The newest drug to come to market is esketamine (not in widespread use yet), and works in a different way (licensed for treatment-resistant depression) – it is a non-competitive antagonist of the NMDA receptor. The S-stereoisomer has a much greater affinity for NMDA receptor than the R-isomer (S-ketamine). Using the S-isomer reduces psychotomimetic effect of the racemate (mixture of two isomers), specifically targets GABAergic interneurons. It is administered as a nasal spray, and has rapid onset.

24
Q

Describe the current treatments for mania.

A

Manic episodes of bipolar disorder are treated with mood stabilisers. The most common drug is lithium (usually administered as lithium carbonate). The mechanism of action is unclear, but it may inhibit phosphatidyl inositol metabolism or sodium ion influx. This has a very narrow therapeutic index, as it is toxic in high doses. Antipsychotic or antiepileptic drugs can be used as well to inhibit manic episodes.

25
Q

What are Spielman’s 3Ps of insomnia?

A

1) Predisposing factors include genetic factors, social factors (e.g. conflicting sleep schedule with partner or child), anxiety, hyperarousal, and female gender).
2) Precipitating factors are life events which act as triggers – for example, grief, illness, or stress.
3) Perpetuating factors maintain sleep difficulties – they are typically behaviours (e.g. extended time in bed in mornings, naps; fear of sleeplessness/excessive worry about sleep).

26
Q

Describe the two-process model of sleep regulation.

A

The two-process model of sleep regulation includes process C and process S:

Process S is sleep pressure (or sleep-wake homeostasis), which builds throughout the course of the day and diminishes as we sleep – this is known as the “flip-flop” switch. During arousal (wakefulness), orexin neurons stimulate neurons of the locus coeruleus, tuberomammillary nucleus, and Raphe nuclei (serotonergic). When this is switched off, for sleep, the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus inhibits this action of the orexin neurons to prevent the stimulation of the subsequent nuclei, and therefore prevent arousal.

Process C is the circadian rhythm which keeps our internal 24 hour clock (this is about being awake when its light and asleep when its dark). This includes fluctuations of hormone activity (e.g. cortisol, which is lowest at night and high in the morning), but it stimulated by light. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is a group of neurons which sits above the optic chiasm, and receives information about light exposure – it activates melatonin secretion by the pineal gland when stimulated. This melatonin secretion can be measured to reflect time of individual’s body phase. Melatonin secretion is suppressed by light exposure. Dim light melatonin onset is the time at which melatonin levels rise above threshold under dim light conditions in a laboratory (measured via saliva or blood samples).

27
Q

Describe the pharmacological mechanisms of amphetamines.

A

An amphetamine is an indirect sympathomimetic – it mimics the actions of the sympathetic nervous system. It enters through the uptake 1 mechanism (catecholamine re-uptake mechanism) in the periphery – therefore displacing adrenaline/noradrenaline/dopamine from their pre-synaptic vesicles. Once the endogenous catecholamines have been displaced into the cytosol, they can leak out into the synaptic cleft and activate the post-synaptic sites. Methamphetamine is also highly lipid-soluble, meaning that it can readily cross the BBB. This gives it its potency and psychoactivity – this is why it is often preferred to amphetamine. MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine, AKA “ecstasy”) has an additional 5-HT effect – it acts as a 5-HT receptor agonist and reduces 5-HT transporters. This was found to increase the dopamine concentration of the brain in Rhesus monkeys by over 1000%.

28
Q

Describe the pharmacological mechanism of cannibis.

A

THC is an agonist at the cannabinoid receptors (CB1 and CB2) as well as the GPR55 receptor (cannabis-like receptor). These are metabotropic (GCP) receptors – the endogenous ligands to these receptors are anandamide and 2AG. These receptors act to decrease cyclic AMP by decreased activity of adenylate cyclase. Rimonabant is a weight-loss drug which acts as a cannabinoid receptor antagonist – it also caused psychosis in many patients as a side-effect.

29
Q

Describe the pharmacological mechanism of psychedelics.

A

Psilocybin and LSD are 5-HT agonists. Psilocybin is very nonselective – it acts at 5-HT1A, 1D, 2A, and 2C. However, LSD is a mixed 5-HT2/1 receptor partial agonist – it was found to have high affinity at 5-HT1A, 1B, 2A, 2C, 5A, 5B, 6, and 7. Recent work on micro-dosing LSD for pharmacological use has found that threshold doses of 13ug of LSD could be used safely to treat symptoms of depression.

30
Q

What are hypnotics? Give some examples.

A

Hypnotics are used to reduce sleep latency (time it takes to fall asleep). They also improve the depth and quality with sleep, but can cause hangover (drowsiness the next day) – if used every night, they lead to rebound insomnia (therefore typically taken every 2 or 3 nights). Short-acting benzodiazepines (e.g. lorazepam, temazepam) are typically used, and have no “hangover” effect. The most commonly used drugs for their hypnotic effect are zolpidem and zopiclone – they have a similar mechanism of action to BZDs but are chemically distinct (also short-acting and have no anxiolytic effect). Antihistamines can also be used for their hypnotic effect (act on H1 receptors, e.g. diphenhydramine, promethazine) – however, sedation usually lasts too long and produces hangover effect.

31
Q

Give some examples of anxiolytic drugs.

A

Antidepressants are commonly used to treat anxiety, for instance SSRIs and SNRIs. Benzodiazepines (longer-acting, e.g. diazepam, flurazepam) can be used to treat anxiety, often alongside SSRI. 5-HT1A receptor agonists (e.g. buspirone, tandospirone) have been found to be effective in treated GAD but not SAD. Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists (e.g. propranolol) can block peripheral sympathetic symptoms such as tachycardia. Antiepileptic drugs can be effective in treating GAD. Antipsychotic drugs (e.g. olanzapine and risperidone) can be used for GAD and PTSD, but have considerable side effects.

32
Q

Give a detailed account of the effects of benzodiazepines and their mechanism regarding the GABA-A receptor.

A

All benzodiazepines (and also zolpidem and zopiclone) have the exact same mechanism of action – they are positive allosteric modulators of the GABAA receptor. However, each drug has a slightly different pharmacokinetic profile by virtue of their different chemical structures (affects their half-life, potency, etc), which can dictate the way they are clinically used. There are two main structural categories of BZDs, based on the positions of nitrogen atoms on the 7-atom ring (1,4-BZDs and 1,5-BZDs). Each categories can be modified with four R-groups to make structural variations. BZDs are highly lipophilic drugs, orally absorbed and easily cross the BBB (also enter the placenta and are therefore significant in pregnancy). Some have longer effects due to having active metabolites. Some are used predominantly as anxiolytics, and some as hypnotics – some also have antidepressive effects and some have muscle relaxant effects.

There are two subcategories of GABA-A receptors – those traditional ones which are expressed at the synapse, and others which are chemically very similar but are expressed extrasynaptically – they are therefore much more sensitive to GABA since they encounter it at lower concentrations (have a distinct subunit structure). Synaptic (phasic) GABA-A receptors produce a transient hyperpolarisation (from IPSP) from influx of chloride ions which is quickly corrected, however extrasynaptic (tonic) GABA-A receptors produce a much longer-lasting hyperpolarisation. GABA binds at the boundary between beta and alpha subunits, and BZDs bind between alpha and gamma subunits. Synaptic GABA-A receptors have 2x alpha-1, 2, 3, or 5 subunits, 2 beta, and 1 gamma. Extrasynaptic GABA-A receptors have 2x alpha-4 or 6 subunits, 2 beta, and 1 delta. Therefore, since the extrasynaptic GABA-A receptors do not have gamma subunits, there is no binding site for BZDs, making these receptors BZD-insensitive. Synaptic GABA-A receptors are BZD-sensitive- binding increases the amount of chloride which enters through the receptor to which they are bound to increase the IPSP. There are also BZD antagonists, these have no effect on GABA responses, but will prevent the positive modulation of the BZD agonist. There are also BZD inverse agonists which do reduce GABA response (less chloride through the channel). All those that are used clinically are full or partial agonists.

33
Q

Describe how azapirones can treat anxiety.

A

Azapirones (buspirone, tandospirone) are anxiolytics without sedative side effects. They act as agonists or partial agonists at 5-HT1A receptors (mostly presynaptic) to inhibit serotonin release. Some azapirones have effects at dopamine receptors. Their therapeutic effects are delayed (probably via receptor desensitisation – same as antidepressants). Buspirone is a full agonist at 5-HT1A, and is effective in treating short-term generalised anxiety disorder (but not other anxiety disorders). Side effects are relatively minor, including nausea, dizziness, and headaches. Buspirone has no abuse potential due to no tolerance or dependency , and causes no sedation or cognitive/memory impairment, and no muscle relaxation or ataxia.

34
Q

Define addiction, tolerance, and dependence.

A

Addiction is believed to be a psychological process – it is the inability to escape from a craving. Psychological cues associated with taking drugs causes positive conditioning – for instance, excitement about taking drugs at an upcoming event with your friends is based off your anticipation of the physiological or psychoactive effects you will experience from the drugs. When the drug is eventually administered, this results in positive reinforcement, because the expected effects are elicited. This engages the brain’s mesolimbic reward pathway, resulting in pleasurable experience, and reinforcing the emotional as well as physiological association with drug taking.

Dependence is a physiological trait which is developed – this includes the measurable response in absence of the drug.

Tolerance is a common phenomenon in pharmacology – when you take a drug, subsequent doses of the same size cause less of a response (tachyphylaxis).

35
Q

Describe the mesolimbic reward pathway.

A

Dopaminergic nerves project from the ventral tegmental area to the amygdala (emotional responses) and the nucleus accumbens, where projections then lead to the prefrontal cortex (involved in decision making and execute function). There are nicotinic receptors located at the nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and ventral tegmental area; and opioid receptors at these sites and more. The ritual of obtaining and taking drugs is as much part of addiction as the drug itself. This was experimentally illustrated by Alexander et al. in the Rat Park experiment – Rats were placed in a boring environment with very little stimulation, and chose between regular water and water which was laced with cocaine- they always chose the one with cocaine. However, when placed in the “rat park” environment, which had objects to explore and decorations (i.e. more stimulation), the rats chose to drink the non-cocaine-infused water.

36
Q

Describe the mechanisms underlying drug withdrawal.

A

Opiates, cocaine, amphetamine, and cannabinoids all stimulate Gi, so decrease production of cAMP. When you take one of these drugs, cAMP concentration will fall, but adenylate cyclase expression will increase to compensate for this. As the adenylate cyclase expression increases, the cAMP levels begin to recover. When you withdraw from the drug, cAMP formation spikes massively, since there is lots of adenylate cyclase expressed which is no longer inhibited. This will likely cause many withdrawal symptoms. Adenylate cyclase expression will then fall for recovery.

In a healthy dopaminergic reward pathway, stimulation of dopamine receptors from ventral tegmental neurons acting on neurons of the nucleus accumbens. GABAergic neurons then project from the nucleus accumbens back to the ventral tegmentum in an inhibitory negative feedback loop. This process is regulated by upregulation of adenylate cyclase increasing cellular concentrations of cAMP.

Drugs which inhibit adenylate cyclase therefore cause decreased negative feedback, but with chronic use compensate with increased expression in order to maintain normal transmission levels. When you remove the drugs, there is a strong inhibition of the ventral tegmental dopamine neurons but no compensation from dopaminergic stimulation that the drugs provide.

37
Q

What are the 3 symptom domains associated with schizophrenia?

A

Positive symptoms: reflect excess or distortion to normal function.

  • Paranoid dellusions (patients believe they are being followed or watched, or that people on the TV or radio are directing messages to them; thought insertion also common, where the patient recognises that they are having irregular thoughts and believes that they are being inserted into their mind).
  • Hallucinations (patient often hears voices within their own thoughts followed by visual hallucinations).
  • Disorganised thinking and speech (can be intangible and incoherent).

Negative symptoms: reflect diminution or loss of normal functions.

  • Affective flattening (reduction in the range and intensity of emotional expression, including facial expression, voice tone, eye contact, and body language).
  • Alogia (lessening of speech fluency and productivity thought to reflect slowing or blocked thoughts, often manifested as short, empty replies to questions).
  • Avolition (lack of motication, lack of ability to initiate goal-directed behaviour).
  • Self-neglect/social withdrawal.

Cognitive symptoms:

  • Impaired learning and memory.
  • Impaired executive function (inability to sustain attention or plan actions).
38
Q

Discuss the dopamine and glutamate hypotheses for the underlying cause of schizophrenia.

A

The mesolimbic pathway is a dopaminergic pathway which projects from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) of the midbrain to the nucleus accumbens (NA). The dopamine hypothesis puts forth that an overactive mesolimbic pathway, resulting in excessive activation of D2 receptors at the NA, is responsible for the positive symptoms observed in schizophrenia.
However, there are several inconsistencies regarding this hypothesis. Firstly, this does not explain the negative or cognitive symptoms associated with the disorder- in fact, D2 receptor antagonists exacerbate the negative symptoms. Secondly, these drugs can take weeks to improve the positive symptoms, implying that inhibition of D2 receptors is not directly responsible for this, but that there may a related factor or distinct causative origin.
Accordingly, the dopamine hypothesis has been revised, and it is now suggested that whilst an overactive mesolimbic pathway contributes to positive symptoms of schizophrenia, an underactive mesocortical pathway may be responsible for the negative and cognitive symptoms. This pathway also originates from the VTA, and projects to higher cortical areas, namely the prefrontal cortex. This is supported by more recent imaging studies which have found reduced dopaminergic activity in the mesocortical pathway.

Alternatively, the glutamate hypothesis puts forward that reduced glutamatergic stimulation is responsible for the symptoms of schizophrenia, and that dopaminergic dysfunction is an indirect result of this. The hypothesis suggests that NMDA receptors are underactive within the diseased condition, resulting in reduced post-synaptic excitation through the actions of glutamate.
The VTA receives input from glutamatergic neurons which directly stimulate the mesocortical pathway, but synapse onto inhibitory GABAergic interneurons to stimulate the mesolimbic pathway. In the non-diseased brain, these glutamatergic projections are constitutively active, meaning that the mesocortical pathway obtains continuous activation, and the mesolimbic pathway continuous inhibition. Depletion or dysfunction of the NMDA receptors expressed on dopaminergic neurons of the mesocortical pathway, and on GABAergic interneurons of the mesolimbic pathway, would therefore result in an overactive mesolimbic pathway and an underactive mesocortical pathway. This hypothesis therefore presents a common pathology by which the positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms are explained.

39
Q

Give an overview of neuroleptic drugs.

A

All anti-psychotic drugs used in the treatment of schizophrenia are dopamine receptor antagonists. Chlorpromazine used to be used pre-anaesthesia, and produced disinterest without loss of consciousness – in severely psychotic patients, it caused instant calming followed by symptomatic improvement after about 3 weeks of use. Up until this time, chronically affected patients would spend time in an asylum (psychiatric hospital). With the advent of dopamine receptor antagonists, institutionalisation reduced by over 5 times. These drugs can be subdivided into typical antipsychotics (e.g. chlorpromazine and fluphenazine) and atypical antipsychotics (e.g. clozapine and risperidone). These are now often called neuroleptics rather than antipsychotics (calming agents). Atypical neuroleptics have D2 receptor affinity, but also have affinity for many other receptors, including serotonin receptors, muscarinic receptors, and adrenergic receptors. Many of the atypical drugs have higher affinities for other receptors than they do for D2 receptors. However, there is conclusive evidence that they elicit positive effects via the D2 receptors because there is a perfect correlation between the clinical potency (i.e. the dose) and the affinity for D2 receptors across all antipsychotic drugs – those with higher prescribed doses have lower affinities.
Other than the aforementioned PD-like side-effects, D2 blockers also produce dysphoria (sense of great unpleasantness), and endocrine dysfunction. Additionally, the atypical neuroleptics can elicit other side effects based on their blocking of other receptors, for instance – hypotension from adrenoceptor blockage, sedation from serotonin/histamine receptor blockage, dry mouth from muscarinic receptor blockage, and weight gain from histamine receptor blockage.