Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is titin and what is its function?

A

Elastic protein to keep myosin filaments centered during contraction. Can be used as a molecular ruler during embryonic development.

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2
Q

Where does titin connect in muscle?

A

2 titin filaments run alongside thick myosin filament and anchor to Z disc

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3
Q

Passive length tension

A

If a muscle is pulled too far, titin and other ECM proteins produce passive force to pull it back.

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4
Q

What proteins take place in the passive length tension in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

A

Titin + collagen

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5
Q

What proteins take place in passive length tension in smooth muscle?

A

Titin + collagen + elastin

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6
Q

How does the length of titin in cardiac muscle compare to skeletal muscle?

A

Shorter titin in cardiac muscle = stiffer muscle and more force generated by titin

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7
Q

Where is nebulin found and what is its function?

A

Surrounds actin thin filaments in skeletal muscle only and anchors it to Z disk. Can be used as a molecular ruler of actin.

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8
Q

Alpha-actinin

A

Z disk protein that is the attachment site for actin filaments

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9
Q

Dystrophin + dystrophin=glycoprotein complex

A

Focal contact proteins that link the sarcomere to the membrane and ECM

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10
Q

What type of myosin is conventional or found in muscle?

A

Myosin type II

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11
Q

What is the structure of myosin in muscle?

A

Hexameric protein w/ 2 heavy and 2 light chains

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12
Q

Can the heavy chain bind both actin and ATP at the same time?

A

NO. ATP binding causes a dissociation of actin from myosin

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13
Q

When is myosin in its bent conformation?

A

When ADP + Pi are bound

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14
Q

When is myosin in its straight conformation?

A

When ADP only is bound

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15
Q

What is the role of troponin T?

A

Binds tropomyosin and positions it on actin

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16
Q

What is the role of troponin I

A

Inhibitory troponin that prevents myosin from accessing actin.

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17
Q

What is the role of troponin C?

A

Binds calcium, which causes a conformational change to disrupt ThI and allows phosphate dissociation from myosin and the power stroke.

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18
Q

At low levels of calcium, what causes the inability of the muscle to contract?

A

Steric hinderance due to troponin/ tropomyosin complex that inhibits phosphate from dissociating with myosin

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19
Q

What is the length tension relationship?

A

Relative force a fiber can produce at a certain length

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20
Q

What happens to the length tension relationship if a muscle is too long?

A

There are not enough fibers to cross bridge and there is less force/ tension generated

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21
Q

What happens to the length tension relationship if a muscle is too short?

A

Thick filaments and Z disks collide= less force generated

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22
Q

What is the optimal length for the length tension relationship?

A

2-2.25 um

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23
Q

What are the steps to striated muscle contraction?

A
  1. ATP rapidly binds to actomyosin disrupting the bond. 2. Myosin hydrolyzes ATP to ADP+Pi rapidly 3. Myosin ADP+Pi binds weakly to actin 4. Pi dissociation due to calcium causes myosin conformational change and power stroke 5. ADP dissociation and actin/ myosin tightly bind
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24
Q

What protein aids myosin in the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP+ Pi?

A

Actin helps myosin hydrolyze ATP 100x faster than myosin alone

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25
Q

Which step of muscle contraction is the limiting factor in force generated/ rate of contraction?

A

ADP dissociation from actin/ myosin

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26
Q

What are slow twitch type I skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Small, fatigue resistant, red myoglobin, oxidative metabolism with increased mitochondria and decreased glucose. (Back muscles)

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27
Q

What are fast twitch type IIa skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Fatigue resistant, red myoglobin, oxidative metabolism, increased mitochondria & glycogen

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28
Q

What are fast twitch type IIb skeletal muscle fiber?

A

Fatigable, large white myoglobin, glycolytic metabolism, decreased mitochondria and increased glycogen

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29
Q

What step in the excitation of skeletal muscle causes calcium influx and neurotransmitter release?

A

NMJ membrane depolarization

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30
Q

What effect does acetylcholine have on the post synaptic membrane?

A

Causes transient depolarization or end plate potentials

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31
Q

What does the action potential in muscles do?

A

Travels down the T tubule and activates voltage-gated DHP receptors physically linked to Ryr receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum for calcium release.

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32
Q

What type of Ryr receptor does cardiac muscle have?

A

Calcium-induced calcium receptor

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33
Q

How does norepinephrine regulate cardiac muscle?

A

Overall, it increases heart rate (chronotrophy), contractility (inotrophy), and relaxation rate (lusitrophy) = rapid contraction with lots of force

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34
Q

What does norpinephrine do at the molecular level?

A

Binds to beta adernergic receptors and increses calcium influx by phosphorylation of calcium channels

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35
Q

What is one reason calcium levels are highly regulated in cardiac muscle?

A

So twitch force can increase or decrease

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36
Q

What types of contractions do smooth muscles have?

A

Slow, continuous contractions that are involuntarily controlled

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37
Q

What factors influence smooth muscle contraction?

A

Autonomics, hormones, chemicals, pacemakers

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38
Q

True or false: smooth muscle generates less force than skeletal muscle?

A

FALSE. Smooth muscle generates more force than skeletal muscle because it has more cross links

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39
Q

What is the latch state present in smooth muscle?

A

When ADP remains bound to actomyosin

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40
Q

What type of calcium receptor is present in smooth muscle?

A

Calcium-induced calcium release

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41
Q

What role does calmodulin have in smooth muscle thick filament regulation?

A

Bound by calcium and activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)

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42
Q

What role does myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) have in thick filament regulation of smooth muscle?

A

MLCK phosphorylates myosin light chain so it can interact with actin (phosphorylation = activation)

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43
Q

What function does ROK have in smooth muscle thick filament regulation?

A

ROK inhibits myosin light chain phosphatase (MLCP)

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44
Q

What is the function of myosin light chain phosphatase in smooth muscle thick filament regulation?

A

MLCP dephosphorylates the myosin light chain to return it to an inactive state.

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45
Q

How is tonically active smooth muscle created?

A

Myosin light chains are phosphorylated and remain phosphorylated for awhile to form cross-bridges and tonically active muscle

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46
Q

Is calcium required for ROK to produce contraction?

A

NO

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47
Q

What is the role of caldesmon/ calponin in smooth muscle regulation?

A

Take part in thin filament regulation by binding thin filaments. They are inhibited by phosphorylation

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48
Q

Muscular dysrophyies

A

Lacking/ mutated focal proteins. Contractions cause tears in muscles and membranes, altered ion flux, and cellular degeneration

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49
Q

Familial Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

A

Leading cause of sudden cardiac death. Usually due to single amino acid mutation in cardiac heavy chain that changes ATP hydrolysis. This causes decreased force production and ventricular wall hypertrophy.

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50
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Myopathy due to skeletal muscle Ryr defect. Triggered by anesthetics and causes uncontrolled skeletal muscle contraction and hyperthermia.

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51
Q

Cardiac hypertrophy and failure

A

Decrease in cardiac muscle Ryr receptors (Ryr-2)

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52
Q

How does viagra function in smooth muscle?

A

Inhibits cGMP breakdown by blocking PDE5. Inhibits smooth muscle contraction to promote relaxation of blood vessels to achieve erection.

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53
Q

What is endocrine signaling?

A

Source of signal is distant from the target and signals are transmitted in the blood stream

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54
Q

What is an example of endocrine signaling?

A

Insulin is secreted by beta islet cells in the pancreas and has far reaching effects on adipose tissue, the liver, and skeletal muscle

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55
Q

What is a treatment for type I diabetes and what type of signaling does it take advantage of?

A

Exogenous insulin is delivered to the blood stream because insulin signaling is an example of endocrine signaling.

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56
Q

What is paracrine signaling?

A

A localized signaling mechanism where a signal diffuses out of the source cell and effects cells in the immediate vacinity

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57
Q

Secretion by vascular endothelial cells is an example of what kind of cell-cell communication?

A

The secretion of factors by vascular endothelial cells is an example of paracrine signaling. The goal of the paracrine signals is to maintain balance in cardiac output and other cardiac factors.

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58
Q

What happens if there is a dysfunction in vascular endothelial cells?

A

Dysfunctional paracrine signaling from vascular endothelial precursor cells can cause cardiovascular disease.

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59
Q

What is an example of paracrine signaling in tumors?

A

Tumors secrete paracrine angiogenic factors to stimulate angiogenesis and blod flow to the tumor

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60
Q

What is juxtacrine signaling?

A

Signaling to an immediate neighbor where the source cell has a ligand and the target cell has a receptor.

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61
Q

What is an example of juxtacrine signaling in the nervous system?

A

Crawling axons in development encounter permissive and restrictive ligands that either signal the axon to stop or to keep growing.

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62
Q

What is autocrine signaling?

A

Self-stimulation in a cell

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63
Q

How is VEGF in epithelial tumors an example of autocrine signaling?

A

EGF binds to EGFR on epithelial cells. EGF stimulates the production of VEGF, which diffuses out of the cell then binds on the cell’s own VEGF receptors.

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64
Q

What is intracrine signaling?

A

Signal generated inside of the cell DOESN’T leave and stimulates intracellular receptors

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65
Q

How is estrogen an example of intracrine signaling?

A

Estrogen diffuses into the cell and is metabolized. The metabolized product binds estrogen receptors within the cell.

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66
Q

What is the definition of signal transduction and where is there amplification in the pathway?

A

Signal transduction is the conversion of a signal to a functional change within a cell. There is amplification between the reception of the signal and the transduction.

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67
Q

What type of receptor is the GABA receptor and what is its function?

A

GABA is a inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. It binds and opens chloride channels to let chloride into the cell and effectively hyperpolarizes and inhibits transmission of signals.

68
Q

How are ligand-gated ion channel signals terminated?

A

Receptor inactivation; Ion channel inactivation (think sodium channel inactivation); Membrane transporters (remove ions)

69
Q

How do G-protein coupled receptors transmit signals?

A

Bind extracellular signals and receptor undergoes conformational change to activate g-proteins. G-proteins have gtpase activity and can interact with effectors to cause changes in cellular function

70
Q

How are g-proteins inactivated?

A

Hydrolysis of GTP

71
Q

What are the steps of the G stimulatory pathway?

A
  1. Epinephrine binds Beta-adernergic receptors to acitvate. 2. Receptor activates G-proteins (amplification) 3. G-proteins activate adenylyl cyclase (amplification) 4. Adenylyl cylase synthesizes cAMP (amplification) 5. cAMP activates protein kinase a (PKA)
72
Q

How does adenylate cylcase work?

A

It catalyzes conversion of ATP to cAMP and pyrophosphate

73
Q

How is PKA activated?

A

cAMP binds regulatory subunits so they dissociate

74
Q

What is the function of PKA?

A

It is a protein kinase that phosphorylates serine and threonine residues

75
Q

How is the Gs signal pathway terminated?

A

Receptor inactivation G protein inactivation (hydrolysis) Phosphodiesterase degrades cAMP Dephosphorylation of proteins

76
Q

What is the function of phosphodiesterase?

A

Degrades cAMP

77
Q

What are the steps to the Gq signaling pathway?

A
  1. norepi binds to Alpha-adernergic receptors 2. Activated receptor activates G proteins 3. G-proteins activate phospholipase C 4. Phospholipase C creates IP3 and DAG 5. IP3 binds to IP3 Receptors on ER and stimulates calcium release 6. DAG activates protein kinase C
78
Q

How is the Gq signaling pathway terminated?

A

Receptor inactivation G protein inactivation (hydrolysis) IP3 and DAG degraded Phosphatase dephosphorylation of proteins SERCA pumps calcium back into ER

79
Q

How does cholera affect the cell?

A

Targets Gs g-proteins and constitutively activates adenylyl cylcase to increase cAMP and have sustained activation of PKA

80
Q

What is overall affect of Gi signaling in the cell?

A

Gi inhibits adenylyl cylase and decreases levels of cAMP

81
Q

How does pertussis affect the cell?

A

Targets Gi g-proteins and inhibits them. Causes net activation of adenylyl cylccase and increased cAMP and activated PKA

82
Q

What is nuclear receptor/ intracellular signaling?

A

Receptors are inside the cell and signals are either intracellular or able to pass thru lipid membrane.

83
Q

How are steroid hormones examples of nuclear receptors?

A

Steroid hormones can diffuse into the cell and bind to receptors to activate them within the cytosol. Hormone + receptor are transcription factors that enter the nucleus and alter gene expression.

84
Q

What type of signaling is tamoxifen an example of?

A

Nuclear receptor/ intracellular signaling

85
Q

How does tamoxifen work?

A

Tamoxifen is an estrogen mimic. In breast cancer, estrogen promotes the proliferation of cancer cells, so tamoxifen binds to the estrogen receptor to block its conformational change and interaction with coactivators.

86
Q

What are the two forms of guanylate cyclase receptors

A

rGC in plasma membrane that responds to extracellular ligands. sGC in cytosol that responds to intracellular signals like NO from neurons or endothelial cells

87
Q

What is the function of guanylate cyclase?

A

Change GTP to cGMP

88
Q

What does cGMP activate?

A

cGMP channels, cGMP binding proteins, Protein kinase G

89
Q

What is the function of PDES?

A

=phosphodiesterase. Catalyzes hydrolysis of cGMP to GMP

90
Q

What are the Nodes of Ranvier

A

~1 mm gaps between myelin sheaths

91
Q

What two reactions can result after NT reception?

A
  1. membrane depolarization and excitatory post synaptic potentials (EPSP) 2. membrane hyperpolarization and inhibitory post synaptic potentials (IPSP)
92
Q

What does the magnitude of post synaptic potentials depend on?

A

Amount of NT released (graded)

93
Q

In general, is the NT release from one excitatory neuron enough to trigger an action potential?

A

NO (but that’s not true for skeletal muscle NMJ)

94
Q

What is the length constant?

A

A constant used to determine how far a graded potential will go via passive electrical conduction before degrading. Property of the neuron.

95
Q

What is cellular integration?

A

Process of a neuron integrating inhibitory and excitatory signals in determining whether or not to fire and action potential. This is a continuous process in neurons

96
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Summation of neuronal signals from multiple neurons

97
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

Summation of neuronal signals from ONE neuron

98
Q

What does the conduction equation for neurons dependent on?

A

Distance from origin of signal and the length constant of the cell. The conduction equation shows exponential decay.

99
Q

What is conduction velocity related to?

A

Membrane resistance (presence of myelin) and cable diameter (bigger diameter = faster velocity)

100
Q

What is the typical range for conduction velocity for mammals?

A

0.25 to 80 m/s

101
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A

Covers/insulates sodium and potassium channels except at the Nodes of Ranvier so APs have to jump between nodes instead of activating every channel. Increases conduction velocity.

102
Q

What are the causes and effects of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Inflammatory autoimmune disease that damages myelin. Damage causes decreased conduction velocity, frequency related block of conduction, or total block. Can cause ectopic impulse generation, increased mechanosensitivity, and crosstalk between demyelinated neurons.

103
Q

What is one treatment for multiple sclerosis and how does it work?

A

Potassium channel blockers. Normally extracellular potassium causes decreased action potential duration. Potassium channel blockers reverse this effect to prolong action potentials.

104
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Temporarily inactivate sodium channels

105
Q

What are the stages of NT release?

A

Sythesis, storage, release, receptor activation, inactivation, reuptake, and degredation

106
Q

Where do motor neurons receive inputs from?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory synaptic inputs from sensory afferents and from supraspinal synapses directly or from interneurons

107
Q

What happens to ACh shortly after it activates the nicotinic ACh receptors?

A

It is rapidly diffused or degraded by acetylcholine esterase to prevent multiple reactivations of ACh receptors.

108
Q

What type of channel is the nicotinic ACh receptor?

A

Ligand gated sodium channel

109
Q

What is the function of choline acetyl transferase (CAT)?

A

Synthesizes ACh

110
Q

What is the function of vesicular ACh transporters?

A

Pump ACh against gradient into vesicles by exchanging with hydrogen. (There are hydrogen pumps to restore acidic pH to vesicle)

111
Q

What is the function of post-junctional folds in musclular cells?

A

Have high concentrations of acetylcholine receptors to bind a lot of ACh. Also have VG sodium channels to propagate the generated AP efficiently.

112
Q

What is the active zone in motor neurons?

A

Site where vesicles with ACh are lined up with post synaptic receptors to ensure efficiency of NT release.

113
Q

What is special about end plate potentials in skeletal muscle?

A

The lining up of the active zone and post junctional folds and the release of ~200 vesicles produces a depolarization of ~40 mV that WILL fire an action potential.

114
Q

How are signals terminated in skeletal muscle?

A

Repolarization of T-tubule membrane brings DHP to closed configuration and therefore closes Ryr. SERCA pumps calcium back into SR and terminates signal.

115
Q

What causes Myasthenia gravis?

A

Patients have antibodies agains AChR. This causes muscle weakness because neurons can’t stimulate the muscle cells.

116
Q

What is one treatment for myasthenia gravis?

A

Inhibition of acetylcholine esterase to increase the concentration of ACh to stimulate available, functioning nicotinic ACh receptors

117
Q

What are the two types of smooth muscle?

A
  1. mutliunit: independently control each cell. 2. unitary: muscle cells linked by gap junctions and function as one
118
Q

Where does calcium come from in smooth muscle?

A

Outside the cell and from the SR

119
Q

How is calcium regulated in smooth muscle?

A

Gq/ IP3 pathway, VG calcium channels, and stretch-activated calcium channels

120
Q

Do smooth muscles ahve neuromuscular junctions?

A

NO. Autonomics have multiple diffuse junctions

121
Q

What are varicosities?

A

Sites of NT release in smooth muscle

122
Q

Do motor neurons innervate smooth muscle?

123
Q

What are the two NT and their receptors in smooth muscle?

A
  1. ACh and muscarininc G protein receptors 2. Norepinephrine and B adernergic/ Gs receptors
124
Q

What is the function of ACh and muscarining G protein receptors in smooth muscle?

A

ACh is from parasympathetic nerves and stimulates the Gq signaling pathway to promote calcium release

125
Q

What is the function of norepinephrine and B-adernergic/ Gs receptors in smooth muscle?

A

Receptor activation activates adenylyl cyclase and increases levels of cAMP. cAMP inhibits MLCK and inhibits contraction

126
Q

What does the Gi pathway do overall in smooth muscle?

A

Inhibition of adenylyl cylcase causes decreased cAMP and promotes contraction because MLCK is NOT inhibited

127
Q

What is an example of endocrine regulation of smooth muscle?

A

Oxytocin synthesized in the pituitary gland stimulates uterine smooth muscle to contract

128
Q

What is an example of paracrine regulation of smooth muscle?

A

Endothelial cells stimulated by calcium induce eNOS to synthesize NO. NO enters smooth muscle cells and binds soluble Guanylyl cyclase to activate cGMP. Used to regulate blood pressure.

129
Q

How does cGMP affect smooth muscle cells?

A

Activates PKG that inhibits calcium channels and inhibits contraction of smooth muscle.

130
Q

Do pacemaker cells in smooth muscle require input?

A

NO. They are spontaneously active.

131
Q

What is unique about Rho-kinase in smooth muscle?

A

It can change contractile activity WITHOUT calcium

132
Q

How does Rho-kinase change contractile activity without calcium stimulation?

A

Ligand activates receptor to activate Rho-GTPase. Rho-GTPase activates Rho-kinase that phosphorylates MLC to activate.

133
Q

What is the RMP of smooth muscle and what is a key determinant of RMP?

A

-50 to -60 mV. Regulated by potassium channels

134
Q

What types of signals stimulate SM?

A

Action potentials and graded depolarizations

135
Q

What are the levels of VG sodium and calcium channels in smooth muscle?

A

LOW levels of VG Na+ channels and MANY VG Calcium channels

136
Q

What kinds of factors govern GI smooth muscle?

A

Hormones in blood stream, stretch receptors, autonomic and enteric neurons, macrophages (release NO)

137
Q

What factors cause AP firing in cardiac muscle cells?

A

ONLY signals from cardiac pacemakers

138
Q

What causes the plateau phase in cardiac action potentials?

A

Calcium influx balances the potassium efflux

139
Q

What controls the length of contraction in cardiac muscle?

A

SERCA pumps

140
Q

What effect do beta adernergic and Gs proteins have on cardiac cells?

A

G proteins can decrease calcium by stimulating calcium pumps

141
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

Myosin in muscles is tightly bound to actin and there’s no ATP present, so you get rigid muscles

142
Q

How are muscles adapted to contract at different speeds?

A

By controlling the rate of phosphate and ADP dissociation mainly. And by the rate of metabolism (fast, oxidative vs. slow)

143
Q

What is the function of troponin T?

A

Links the troponin complex to the tropomyosin on actin

144
Q

Does cardiac muscle have tropomyosin?

A

Yes. Both skeletal and cardiac muscle use troponin/ tropomyosin to regulate contraction.

145
Q

What is the difference between skeletal and smooth muscle regulation? (thin vs. thick filament)

A

Skeletal muscle is mostly thin filament regulation (troponin/tropomyosin) while smooth muscle is mostly thick filament regulation (MLCK and MLCP)

146
Q

What is one similarity between unitary smooth muscles and cardiac muscle?

A

Both can have high degrees of electrical coupling

147
Q

What causes smooth muscle to have longer durations of muscle contraction and greater force generation?

A

The slower cycling of myosin cross bridges and the greater amount of cross bridges formed

148
Q

What does sympathetic epinephrine do overall to cardiac muscle?

A

“Turns up the volume” and causes greater calcium release for shorter periods of time

149
Q

What does cGMP do in smooth muscle?

A

Promotes MLCP to activate dephosphorylation of myosin light chains so they inhibit contraction (think Viagra)

150
Q

Why is relaxed muscle extensible?

A

Because myosin in smooth muscle is either bound to actin or ATP, so its not all or one and has some give when bound to ATP.

151
Q

What is a dense body?

A

Similar to Z-discs in smooth muscle with lots of alpha-actinin

152
Q

In which stages of muscle contraction are there weak bonds ?

A

When ATP is bound to myosin; Right when myosin-ADP-Pi bind to actin (rapid equilibrium between bound and not)

153
Q

In which stages of muscle contraction are there strong bonds?

A

Pi dissociation from actinomyosin+ADP; ADP dissociation from actinomyosin (rigor)

154
Q

What are the three filaments in a sarcomere?

A

Thick, thin, and titin

155
Q

What is the function of alpha-actinin?

A

Runs the length of the z-disc and attaches actin to z-disk

156
Q

What is the structure of myosin II?

A

Hexamer with two heavy chains and 2 pairs of light chains. There is a regulatory light chain and an essential light chain

157
Q

What is caldesmon/ calponin?

A

Thin filament regulation in smooth muscle. They act like troponin in smooth muscle. If they are phosphorylated, the thin filaments are ON and can interact with thick filaments.

158
Q

Which ligands are used for nuclear receptors?

A

Retinoic acid, Vitamin D, steroids, and thyroid hormone

159
Q

What effect does myelin have on Rm or membrane resistance?

A

It increases the membrane resistance. Increases the resistance to leakiness

160
Q

What drugs target the GABA receptors?

A

Propofol, benzos, volatile anesthetics, ethanol

161
Q

Which NTs use monoamine receptors?

A

Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin

162
Q

What is the function of an SSRI?

A

Inactivates serotonin reuptake channels to increase serotonin in the synaptic cleft

163
Q

Where is acetylcholinesterase housed in the synaptic cleft?

A

Basal laminae

164
Q

What is the MOA of botulinum and tetanus?

A

Inhibits ACh release

165
Q

What is the MOA of poison darts?

A

Inhibits ACh receptor

166
Q

What does depohsphorylated phospholamban do?

A

Interacts with SERCA to inhibit it. Without phosphorylation, it doesn’t interact with SERCA.

167
Q

What is a myofibril vs a myofilament?

A

A myofibril is a bundle of myofilaments.

A myofilament is a bundle of three filaments (actin, myosin, and titin) that make up linear arrangements of sarcomeres