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Pharm > Block 12 > Flashcards

Block 12 Flashcards

1
Q

Drug to prevent malaria caused by vivax

A

Chloroquine

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2
Q

Drug(s) to treat malaria caused by vivax

A

Chloroquine +/-primaquine

  • use primaquine if in liver stages
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3
Q

Drug to prevent malaria caused by falciparum

A

Mefloquine

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4
Q

Drug(s) to treat malaria caused by falciparum

A

Quinine + doxycycline

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5
Q

3 protozoal infections treated with metronidazole

A
  • giardiasis
  • e. Histolytica
  • trichomoniasis
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6
Q

Drugs to treat protozoal infection: toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

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7
Q

drugs to treat nematodes

A
  • albendazole and mebendazole
  • pyrantel
  • ivermectin
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8
Q

Nematode MOA: inhibit microtuble synthesis and decrease glucose uptake

A

Albendazole and mebendazole

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9
Q

DOC for pinworms

A

Albendazole and mebendazole

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10
Q

Nematode MOA: Nm agonist, act like SCh, and cause paralysis

A

Pyrantel

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11
Q

Nematode MOA: GABA agonist, hyperpolarization of nerves and muscles

A

Ivermectin

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12
Q

DOC for onchocerciasis

A

Ivermectin

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13
Q

What is onchocerciasis

A

River blindness

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14
Q

Drug for trematodes and cestodes

A

Praziquantel

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15
Q

MOA: increase Ca permeability, causing contractions, leading to paralysis of worm

A

Praziquantel

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16
Q

Fungal MOA: inhibit squalene epoxidase, which inhibits ergosterol synthesis

A

Terbinafine

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17
Q

Does terbinafine treat systemic or superficial fungal infections

A

Superficial

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18
Q

Only fungal drug that affects cell wall

A

Fungin’s

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19
Q

Fungal MOA: binds to ergosterol and forms pores

A

Ampho B

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20
Q

Synergism for fungal infections

A

Ampho B + flucytosine

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21
Q

Adverse effects of ampho B

A
  • flushing
  • bone marrow suppression
  • nephrotoxic
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22
Q

Fungal MOA: makes 5dUMP which inhibits thymine synthesis (which inhibits DNA synthesis)

A

Flucytosine

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23
Q

Fungal MOA: blocks C1,4 a-demethylase which causes lanosterol to accumulate

A

Azoles

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24
Q

DOC for candidas and cryptococcus meningitis

A

Fluconazole

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25
Q

If pt comes in with serious fungal infection, what is immediately started

A

Ampho B + flucytosine

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26
Q

DOC for aspergillius

A

Voriconazole

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27
Q

Fungal MOA: inhibit B- glucan synthesis

A

Fungin’s

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28
Q

5 drugs for TB

A
  • isoniazid
  • rifampin
  • pyrazinamide
  • ethambutol
  • streptomycin
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29
Q

Initiation phase Tx of TB

A
  • isoniazid
  • rifampin
  • pyrazinamide
  • ethmbutol

For 2 months

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30
Q

Continuation phase of TB Tx

A
  • isoniazid
  • rifampin

For 4 months

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31
Q

TB drug MOA: target enzyme that assembles mycolic acid

A

Isoniazid

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32
Q

TB drug for prophylaxis

A

Isoniazid

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33
Q

Possible side effect of isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuritis (Tx with B6)

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34
Q

TB drug MOA: inhibit RNA polymerase = inhibit transcription

A

Rifampin

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35
Q

Possible side effect of rifampin

A

Orange/red secretions

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36
Q

Which TB drug is a p450 inducer, decreasing the efficacy of other drugs

A

Rifampin

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37
Q

Which TB drug will cause hyperuricemia in 100% of pts

A

Pyrazinamide

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38
Q

Which TB drug will cause hyperuricemia in 50% of pts

A

Ethambutol

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39
Q

Back up TB drug

A

Streptomycin

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40
Q

Drug for Prophylaxis of MAC

A

Macrolides

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41
Q

4 drug types for Tx of HIV

A
  • protease I
  • reverse transcriptase I
  • fusion I
  • integrate I
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42
Q

HIV protease inhibitor

A

Ritanovir

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43
Q

HIV fusion inhibitor

A
  • enfuvirtide

- maraviroc

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44
Q

HIV integrate inhibitor

A

Raltegravir

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45
Q

HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitor types

A
  • NRTIs
  • NtRTIs
  • NNRTIs
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46
Q

NRTI drugs

A
  • zidovudine
  • lamivudine
  • emtricitabine
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47
Q

NtRTI drug

A

Tenofovir

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48
Q

NNRTI drug

A

Efavirenz

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49
Q

HIV MOA: inhibit HIV-1 protease; cant produce mature virions

A

Ritanovir

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50
Q

Ritanovir side effects

A

Central adiposity and insulin resistance

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51
Q

HIV MOA: inhibit integrase

A

Raltegravir

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52
Q

HIV MOA: block gp41 = prevent entry

A

Enfuvirtide

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53
Q

HIV MOA: block CCR5 = prevent entry

A

Maraviroc

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54
Q

HIV MOA: need 3 phosphates to become active = stop DNA elongation

A

NRTIs

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55
Q

Which NRTI drug may cause bone marrow suppression

A

Zidovudine

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56
Q

Which 2 NRTIs are the least toxic

A

Lamivudine

Emtricitabine

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57
Q

HIV MOA: needs 2 phosphates to become active and is often used with an NRTI

A

Tenofovir (NtRTI)

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58
Q

HIV MOA: doesn’t need any phosphates to become active; allosterically binds below the catalytic site to cause inhibition

A

Efavirenz (NNRTI)

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59
Q

Side effect of efavirenz

A

Vivid dreams

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60
Q

All herpes drugs target what

A

DNA polymerase

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61
Q

4 possible drugs for herpes

A
  • acyclovir
  • cidofovir
  • ganciclovir
  • foscarnet
62
Q

Herpes MOA: needs 3 phosphates to become active (2 from us and 1 from the virus)

A

Acyclovir

63
Q

Herpes MOA: needs 2 phosphates (from us)

A

Cidofovir

64
Q

Does foscarnet require activation before it can work

A

No

65
Q

Which herpes drugs are useful in TK- strands

A

Cidofovir

Foscarnet

66
Q

Which herpes drugs target CMV retinitis

A

Ganciclovir

Foscarnet

67
Q

Possible side effect of ganciclovir

A

Bone marrow suppression

68
Q

Possible side effects of foscarnet

A

Nephrotoxicity

Electrolyte imbalance

69
Q

Drug for the flu

A

Oseltamivir

70
Q

Block neuraminidases which will inhibit budding

A

Oseltamivir (flu drug)

71
Q

Possible side effects of oseltamivir

A

GI, HA, bronchitis

72
Q

Classes of beta lactams

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

73
Q

Cell wall drug/drug classes

A 
Beta lactams
- penicillins
- cephalosporins
-carbapenems
Vancomycin
74
Q

Antibiotic MOA: bind PBPs, inhibit traspeptidase, inhibit crosslinking, decreasing cell wall integrity

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • carbapenems
75
Q

Antibiotic MOA: bind at d-ala-d-ala terminal to transglycosylase and prevent elongation of peptidoglycan chains (inhibit wall synthesis)

A

Vancomycin

76
Q

Which penicillins require the use of a beta lactamase inhibitor

A
  • pen G
  • amoxicillin
  • anti pseudo (pipercillin)
77
Q

Antibiotic use: MSSA

A

Antistaph pen (nafcillin)

78
Q

Antibiotic use: pen g

A

Streptococci, treponema

79
Q

Antibiotic use: antipseudo

A

Pseudomonas

80
Q

What is clavulanic acid

A

Beta lactamase inhibitor

81
Q

Penicillin spectrum from narrow to broad

A
  • antistaph
  • pen g
  • amoxicillin
  • antipseudo
82
Q

The broader the penicillin spectrum, which kind of organisms does it kill more of

A

Gram +

83
Q

What generations of cephalosporins are resistant to B lactamase

A

4 and 5

84
Q

What generations of cephalosporins are cleaved by B lactamase

A

1 and 2

85
Q

What generation cephalosporin is cephalexin

A

1

86
Q

What generation cephalosporin is cefaclor

A

2

87
Q

What generation cephalosporin are ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

A

3

88
Q

What generation cephalosporin is cefepime

A

4

89
Q

What generation cephalosporin is ceftaroline

A

5

90
Q

Cephalosporin use: surgical prophylaxis

A

Cephalexin

91
Q

Cephalosporin use: surgical prophylaxis of bacteroides

A

Cefaclor

92
Q

Cephalosporin use: adult meningitis and gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

93
Q

Cephalosporin use: hospital aquired infection

A

Cefepime

94
Q

Cephalosporin use: MRSA

A

Ceftaroline

95
Q

Class of drug is imipenem

A

Carbapenem

96
Q

Used for empiric use in sever life threatening infections

A

Imipenem

97
Q

What is always used with imipenem to inhibit its metabolism into nephrotoxic metabolites

A

Cilastatin

98
Q

If imipenem is used alone, what can it case

A

Seizures with renal function

99
Q

Is imipenem narrow or broad spectrum

A

Very very broad

100
Q

Used mainly in hospital aquired MRSA

A

Vancomycin

101
Q

Possible side effect of vancomycin

A

Red man syndrome

- flushing if given too quickly through IV infusion

102
Q

What type of bacteria does vancomycin kill

A

Gram +

103
Q

4 protein synthesis inhibitor drugs/drug classes

A 
30s
-Tetracyclines
-aminoglycosides
50s
- macrolides
-clindamycin
104
Q

PSI used for rickettsia (RMSF) and Borrelia (Lyme disease)

A

Doxycycline

105
Q

Type of PSI drug: doxycycline

A

Tetracycline

106
Q

Possible side effect of doxycycline

A
  • affect calcified tissue

- phototoxicity

107
Q

PSI MOA: block the A site, blocking tRNA docking

A

Tetracyclines

108
Q

PSI MOA: interfere with initiation complex, misread mRNA, inhibit translocation

A

Aminoglycosides

109
Q

Type of bacteria that aminoglycosides target

A

Gram -

110
Q

Type of drug: gentamicin

A

Aminoglycosides

111
Q

Possible side effects of aminoglycosides

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity

112
Q

What is used synergistically to target pseudomonas

A

Pipercillin + gentamicin

113
Q

How are aminoglycosides accumulated inside

A

Oxygen dependent uptake

114
Q

Examples of macrolides

A
  • erythromycin
  • azithromycin
  • clarithromycin
115
Q

DOC for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

116
Q

PSI MOA: block translocation

A
  • Macrolides

- clindamycin

117
Q

2 common organisms that macrolides kill

A

Mycoplasma

MAC

118
Q

Macrolides stimulate what

A

Motilin receptors

119
Q

How to organisms create resistance to macrolides

A

Methylated binding site

120
Q

Great for various causes of community acquired pneumonia

A

Macrolides

121
Q

Common treatment of diabetic gastropathy is

A

Erythromycin

122
Q

PSI drug that treats gram + cocci and anaerobes including bacteroides

A

Clindamycin

123
Q

Side effect of clindamycin

A

C diff superinfection that may cause pseudomembranous colitis

124
Q

How to treat pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

125
Q

Which antifolate drug targets the 1st enzyme (dihydropteroate synthetase)

A

Sulfonamides

126
Q

Which antifolate drugs target the 2nd enzyme (dihydrofolate reductase)

A

Trimethoprim

Pyrimethamine

127
Q

Antifolate MOA: compete with PABA

A

Sulfonamides

128
Q

Side effects of sulfonamides

A

Steven Johnson syndrome

- crusty, bleeding lips

129
Q

Possible side effect of trimethoprim

A

Bone marrow suppression

130
Q

Antifolate synergism to prevent tetrahydrofolic acid

A

TMP-SMX

131
Q

Common uses of TMP-SMX

A
  • uncomplicated UTI
  • CA-MRSA
  • PCP (penumocystis jiroveci - fungus)
132
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

PCP

133
Q

MOA: inhibit topoisomerase 2 (DNA gyrase) = coils tighten and inhibit replication

A

Quinolones

134
Q

Clinical uses of quinolones

A

UTIs

Gram - organisms

135
Q

What generation quinolones are useful in CA-pneumonia

A

3 and 4

136
Q

1st generation quinolone

A

Nadidixic acid

137
Q

2 generation quinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin

138
Q

3 generation quinolone

A

Levofloxacin

139
Q

4 generation quinolone

A

Gemifloxacin

140
Q

2 quinolones used in CA-pneumonia

A

Levofloxacin

Gemifloxacin

141
Q

Possible side effects of quinolones

A
  • tendon rupture
  • dont use in kids or preggo
  • dont use with antacids or iron/zinc
142
Q

MOA: converted to free radicals by ferredoxin and binds to DNA

A

Metronidazole

143
Q

What does metronidazole Tx

A
  • giardiasis
  • entamoeba
  • trichomonas
  • bacteroides
  • clostridium
  • gardnerells
144
Q

Side effects of metronidazole

A
  • metallic taste

- disulfiram-like effect with alcohol (hangover like)

145
Q

Drug for: treponema/syphilis

A

Pen G

146
Q

Drug for: gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

147
Q

Drug for: chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

148
Q

Drug for: trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

149
Q

Drug for: bacterial vaginitis (Gardnerella)

A

Metronidazole

150
Q

Drug for: Ticks (Lyme or RMSF)

A

Doxycycline

151
Q

Drug for: UTIs/cystitis/prostatitis

A

TMP-SMX

152
Q

Drug for: meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

- dont use ceftriaxone in neonates

Pharm (2 decks)

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