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FAA ATC En-Route Training Block 1 EXAM > Block 1 Exam > Flashcards

Block 1 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are the requirements for monitoring radios and interphones?
A. Monitor radios and interphones every two minutes
B. Monitor radios and interphones continuously
C. Monitor radio continuously and interphones every two minutes
D. Monitor interphones continuously and radios every two minutes

A

B

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2
Q

When should you relay operational information to an aircraft?
A. As necessary
B. Only on initial contact
C. Only within 5 minutes prior to and 5 minutes after the hour
D. Only after changing the aircraft to ground control frequency

A

A

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3
Q

Which of the following is the correct radio message format to initiate an initial radio contact with an aircraft?
A. Identification of ATC unit, identification of aircraft, message (if any), the word “OVER” (if required)
B. Identification of aircraft, message (if any), the word “OVER” if required
C. Identification of aircraft, identification of ATC unit, message (if any), the word “OVER” (if required)
D. Identification of aircraft, message (if any), identification of ATC unit, the word “OVER” (if required)

A

C

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4
Q 
What two words may be used to interrupt a lower priority interphone message?
A. "CONTROL" OR "PRIORITY"
B. "PRIORITY" OR "EMERGENCY"
C. "MAYDAY" OR "PAN PAN"
D. "EMERGENCY" OR "CONTROL"
A

D

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5
Q

Controllers should transmit only those messages that are necessary for air traffic control and _______.
A. identify the facilities involved
B. contribute to air safety
C. contain operational information for military aircraft
D. contain the phrase “ATC clears”

A

B

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6
Q

Terminate all interphone messages with _______.
A. your operating initials
B. the word “over”
C. the identification of the position being called
D. the facility identification

A

A

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7
Q 
Which of the following interphone messages has the highest priority?
A. Movement and control message
B. Emergency message
C. Clearance and control instruction
D. Movement messages on VFR aircraft
A

B

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8
Q 
An "X" is used to delete what type of information on a flight progress strip?
A. Preplanned data
B. Reported altitudes
C. Unwanted altitude information
D. Crossing restrictions
A

C

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9
Q 
The designated space on the flight progress strip for the Mode 3/A beacon code is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. 17
B. 20
C. 24
D. 27
A

D

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10
Q 
The symbol "D" in space 28 of a flight progress strip indicates an aircraft has been cleared to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. proceed direct to the fix
B. depart from the fix
C. depart a holding pattern
D. take off from an airport
A

B

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11
Q

What does a horizontal arrow (–>) in space 20 indicate?
A. Aircraft to depart taking right turns
B. The aircraft’s direction of flight
C. That the aircraft should be released AFTER another flight
D. Aircraft has been cleared to cruise

A

D

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12
Q 
An aircraft has reported at other than the assigned altitude. This would be indicated on the flight strip by the reported altitude being \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. underlined in red
B. underlined in black
C. circled in red
D. circled in black
A

D

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13
Q

How is an inappropriate altitude/flight level for direction of flight recorded on the flight progress strip?
A. assigned altitude/flight level is underlined in red
B. assigned altitude/flight level is underlined in black
C. assigned altitude/flight level is circled in red
D. assigned altitude/flight level is circled in black

A

A

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14
Q 
The abbreviation "H" in space 28 indicates the aircraft has been cleared to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. depart from the fix
B. hold
C. a DME fix
D. the fix specified in space 11
A

B

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15
Q 
Except during En Route FDP operations, forward flight plan information to the appropriate ATC facility, FSS, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Command and control center
B. Ground control unit
C. Military liaison office
D. Military Base Operations
A

D

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16
Q 
Flight progress data must be passed at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes before the aircraft is estimated to enter the receiving facility's area.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
A

C

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17
Q

When must arrival information be forwarded to an approach control facility?
A. Five minutes prior to the aircraft reaching approach control airspace
B. Before transfer of control jurisdiction
C. When the aircraft reaches the clearance limit
D. When the aircraft reaches the Final Approach Fix

A

B

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18
Q

Select the phraseology that correctly identifies the order in which information must be forwarded to the VFR tower.
A. Aircraft identification, type of aircraft, ETA, type of instrument approach aircraft will execute
B. Type of aircraft, aircraft identification, ETA, type of instrument approach aircraft will execute
C. Aircraft identification, ETA, type of aircraft, type of instrument approach aircraft will execute
D. Type of aircraft, aircraft identification, type of instrument approach aircraft will execute, ETA

A

A

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19
Q

When should arrival information be forwarded to a VFR tower?
A. Prior to transfer of communications
B. Soon enough to permit adjustment of traffic flow
C. Soon enough provide local Airport Weather Advisories
D. Prior to clearance limit estimate

A

B

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20
Q 
Forward position reports if the time differs from the estimate given by more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
A

D

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21
Q

When an airborne military aircraft changes its destination, forward this information to the _______.
A. FSS
B. Military base operations at the destination
C. Communication command post
D. Nearest military control tower along the route of flight

A

A

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22
Q

At Greenwood ATCT, arrival information need NOT be forwarded while FDIO is operational unless the sequence of aircraft changes and/or the _______.
A. arrival time differs by more than 3 minutes
B. aircraft is issued an approach other than the tower specified
C. verbal coordination has not yet been accomplished
D. aircraft has entered a hold

A

B

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23
Q 
Nonradar procedures for Jackson ATCT state that Aero ARTCC, after coordination, will assume responsibility for control of air traffic \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. below 11,000
B. at and below 11,000
C. up to and including 6,000
D. at and above 6,000
A

D

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24
Q 
During nonreader procedures, Jackson ATCT must NOT transition arriving aircraft beyond the clearance limit until \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. at or below 5,000 feet
B. at or below 6,000 feet
C. at or below 7,000 feet
D. communication has been established
A

A

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25
Q

Deviation from the procedures established in the Aero ARTCC and Jackson ATCT LOA _______.
A. must never be considered
B. may be made only after coordination
C. may be accomplished during radar operations only
D. must be considered only after advising the supervisor

A

B

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26
Q

A Monroe ATCT nonradar departure entering the center’s airspace must NOT be cleared above 6,000 feet _______ and the aircraft is clear of ZFW airspace.
A. unless the altitude is a pilot-requested altitude
B. until communication has been established
C. unless transitioning from radar to nonradar procedures
D. until it is established on the ARTCC-assigned route

A

D

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27
Q 
During periods of manual data transfer between Aero ARTCC and Fort Worth ARTCC, coordination must be effected with the receiving ARTCC before departure of an aircraft when the departure point is less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes flying time from the ARTCC boundary.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
A

C

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28
Q 
Aircraft assigned V9, V555, V557, and J35 or the following fix pairs, SQS/MCB, JAN/MCB, HAZAL/MCB, or RICKS/MCB must be assigned altitudes that have been pre coordinated as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ northbound and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ southbound.
A. cardinal; noncardinal
B. odd; even
C. even; odd
D. odd plus 500 feet; even plus 500 feet
A

B

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29
Q

Either ARTCC (Aero or Houston) may clear an aircraft to operate at an IAFDOF after _______.
A. obtaining approval from the other
B. an automated handoff has been accomplished
C. separating from all known traffic
D. manually handing off the aircraft using the beacon code

A

A

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30
Q 
Which of the following is NOT controlled airspace?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. G
A

D

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31
Q 
What is provided to all aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace?
A. Radar vectors
B. Standard IFR separation
C. Speed adjustments
D. All the above
A

B

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32
Q 
Give first priority to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. providing support to national security and homeland defense activities
B. issuing safety alerts
C. separating aircraft
D. all of the above
A

D

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33
Q

Automation procedures should be used in preference to non automation procedures when _______.
A. the controller deems it necessary
B. advised by the facility manager
C. workload, communications, and equipment capabilities permit
D. requested by the pilot

A

C

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34
Q 
Nonradar separation should be used in preference to radar separation when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. requested by a pilot
B. an operational advantage is realized
C. the weather is IFR
D. aircraft can be seen clearly on radar
A

B

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35
Q

All of the following situations should be given first priority EXCEPT _______.
A. an air ambulance (MEDEVAC) flight requests departure clearance
B. an aircraft declares minimum fuel
C. Executive Two requests an altitude change
D. Air Force One requests an altitude change

A

B

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36
Q

After a clearance containing the word “IMMEDIATELY” or “EXPEDITE” is issued, the controller should _______ if time permits.
A. notify the sector controller
B. give the pilot the reason for the action
C. coordinate with the receiving controller
D. ask the pilot if clearance was executed

A

B

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37
Q

A pilot in flight reports the loss of all low frequency navigational receiving capability. In this situation the controller should _______.
A. clear the aircraft to the nearest suitable airport for landing
B. advise the Search and Rescue center
C. notify other controllers and/or facilities concerned and provide assistance required
D. clear the aircraft to hold at nearest fix and advise supervisor

A

C

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38
Q

When a pilot declares “minimum fuel”, the controller should _______.
A. declare an emergency
B. ask the pilot of his/her intentions
C. avoid undue delays
D. clear the aircraft to the nearest airport

A

C

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39
Q

When a pilot reports a NAVAID is NOT operating properly, the controller should _______.
A. request a second aircraft to monitor the NAVAID and report status
B. call the AFS sector manager as soon as possible
C. use substitute routing until the NAVAID is restored to normal operation
D. advise the supervisor to shut down the NAVAID

A

A

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40
Q

What action must be taken before an aircraft under your control enters airspace delegated to another controller?
A. Verify the aircraft’s altitude
B. Make aircraft change to receiving controller’s beacon code.
C. Confirm route of flight
D. Coordinate with the receiving controller.

A

D

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41
Q

The instructions to an aircraft that the pilot make communications transfer at a specified time, fix, or altitude may be omitted when _______.
A. compliance is expected upon receipt
B. the changeover point is published in a SID
C. the aircraft is in the transferring controller’s airspace
D. the aircraft is at the handoff point

A

A

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42
Q

When unable to approve a pilot’s request for deviation from the filed flight plan, the controller should _______.
A. ignore the pilot
B. tell the pilot to make the request on the next frequency
C. inform the pilot you have the request
D. state “UNABLE” and give reason if time permits

A

D

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43
Q 
Control formation flights as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. a single aircraft
B. separate flights
C. two separate aircraft
D. formation leader only
A

A

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44
Q

When conditions such as weather, equipment status, potential sector overloads, emergency situations, and special flight operations may affect sector operations, a controller should _______.
A. Notify all aircraft under your control
B. Notify all controllers in your facility
C. Monitor conditions until sector operations are impacted, then immediately notify the Front Line Manager/Controller-in-Charge
D. Notify the Front Line Manager/Controller-in-Charge

A

D

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45
Q

The red direction arrows in space 23 can be used to _______.
A. determine the estimate for the next fix posting
B. determine the appropriate degree of divergence between two aircraft
C. determine the miles per minute an aircraft is traveling
D. determine opposite direction traffic

A

D

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46
Q

A flight progress strip should be removed from the sector when _______.
A. the aircraft has reported the fix and 10 minutes have elapsed
B. it is no longer needed for control use
C. you estimate the aircraft is no longer in your sector
D. the aircraft is more than 1 hour overdue

A

B

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47
Q 
Action should be taken to obtain a position report that affects separation NO later than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes after the aircraft was estimated to pass the fix.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
A

B

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48
Q 
If times are the same, sequence flight progress strips by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. altitude
B. ETA
C. Type of Aircraft
D. Aircraft Identification
A

A

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49
Q

A red W on a progress flight strip indicates all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. aircraft conflict
B. more than 10 minutes at the same fix and altitude
C. warning/prohibited area violation
D. MEA/MOCA violation

A

B

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50
Q 
The term "ATC" should be included in clearances relayed through a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. airline dispatcher
B. VFR tower
C. adjacent ARTCC
D. approach control
A

A

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51
Q 
Which of the following is an Area Navigation (RNAV) route published for use in the United States?
A. Q route
B. Jet route
C. Fixed area route
D. N route
A

A

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52
Q 
Which of the following are among the terms in which fixes or waypoints are defined?
A. Vector
B. Assigned altitude
C. Degree-distance from NAVAIDs
D. Bearing
A

C

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53
Q

The phraseology to reroute an aircraft via Victor Five New Hope without changing the remainder of the route is _______.
A. “Cleared via Victor Five New Hope, as filed.”
B. “Cleared via Victor Five then as filed to New Hope.”
C. “Cleared via Victor Five New Hope, rest of route unchanged.”
D. “Cleared on Victor Fixe New Hope, rest of route as filed.”

A

C

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54
Q 
When the assigned altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended, the controller must restate the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. applicable altitude restrictions
B. altitude twice
C. assigned altitude
D. full clearance
A

A

55
Q 
When making route assignments, use airways and routes consistent with the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. victor airway structure
B. altitude stratum being used
C. jet route structure
D. departure runway
A

B

56
Q 
The correct phraseology for issuing a clearance to an aircraft utilizing an airway above/below its route structure is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. "via the radials of Victor 9"
B. "fly the radials of Victor 9"
C. "via the Victor 9 radials"
D. "fly the Victor 9 radials"
A

A

57
Q

The normal clearance limit specified in a departure clearance is _______.
A. the approach fix serving destination airport
B. short-range fix to expedite traffic
C. the point at which the aircraft leaves controlled airspace
D. the destination airport

A

D

58
Q 
IFR departure clearance compatibility may be verified by asking the pilot if items obtained/solicited will allow the pilot to comply with obstruction avoidance, local traffic pattern, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. company regulations
B. aircraft performance
C. terrain
D. Federal Aviation Regulations
A

C

59
Q 
When a SID is assigned, the transition is included if \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. requested by the tower
B. necessary
C. traffic is moderate to heavy
D. weather is below VFR
A

B

60
Q 
Which of the following is a specified departure route from an airport or terminal area to an en route point where there is no further need for flow control?
A. Cleared Departure Route (CDR)
B. Preferential Departure Route (PDR)
C. Predefined Departure Route (PDR)
D. Authorized Departure Route (ADR)
A

B

61
Q

Which of the following is the correct procedure (in order) for assigning an altitude when issuing initial departure instructions?
A. 1) Altitude requested by the pilot 2) If requested altitude is not available, inform the pilot: What the final altitude is expected to be or when/where to expect the final altitude
B. 1) Inform the pilot what the final altitude is expected to be or when/where to expect the final altitude 2) Altitude requested by the pilot 3) Nearest possible to the requested altitude and inform the pilot when the requested altitude will be available, unless specified in a SID
C. 1) Altitude requested by the pilot 2) Nearest possible to the requested altitude and inform the pilot when the requested altitude will be available, unless specified in a SID 3) If requested altitude is not available, inform the pilot what the final altitude is expected to be or when/where to expect the final altitude

A

C

62
Q

What is necessary in order to use an abbreviated departure clearance?
A. The route of flight must not have been changed, except by the issuing controller.
B. All ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise control responsibilities.
C. None of the above
D. Both A and B

A

D

63
Q 
What must always be stated in an abbreviated clearance?
A. Route of flight
B. Assigned altitude
C. Transition
D. SID and transition
A

B

64
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of phraseology for hold for release instructions?
A. “(Clearance information) hold for release, expect (time in hours and/or minutes) departure delay.”
B. “Hold for release, (clearance information), expect (time in hours and/or minutes) departure delay.”
C. “Departure delay, hold for release, (clearance information), expect (time in hours and/or minutes).”
D. “(Clearance information), expect (time in hours and/or minutes) departure delay, hold for release.”

A

A

65
Q

When delays are in progress and aircraft elect to take their delays on the ground, in what order should departure clearances be issued?
A. Based on proposed departure times
B. In the order the original requests where made, if practicable
C. Based on filed true airspeed, fastest aircraft first
D. Air carrier, military, and general aviation

A

B

66
Q 
Unless automated data transfer is used, proposed departures must be coordinated if they are less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes flying time of receiving facility's boundary.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
A

C

67
Q 
Actual departure time need NOT be forwarded if within \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes of assumed departure time.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 15
A

B

68
Q

When issuing a clearance void time at an airport NOT served by a tower, request the pilot to _______.
A. read back the clearance void time, including a time check
B. advise ATC of the departure runway
C. advise ATC of intentions no later than 30 minutes after the clearance void time if not airborne
D. wait until the clearance void time expires before calling ATC with the actual departure time

A

C

69
Q

A release time may be issued to specify _______.
A. the earliest time an aircraft can begin a preflight checklist
B. the earliest time an aircraft may depart
C. a separation rule used by ATC
D. when the pilot may call for a departure clearance

A

B

70
Q

The phraseology for issuing the Jackson altimeter of 30.12 is “The _______.”
A. Jackson altimeter three zero one two
B. Jackson altimeter three zero point one two
C. altimeter at Jackson three zero one two
D. altimeter three zero one two

A

A

71
Q 
An altimeter setting must be issued to an en route aircraft below FL180 at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ time(s) while it is in your area of jurisdiction.
A. four
B. three
C. two 
D. one
A

D

72
Q 
If approach control service is not provided, an altimeter setting is to be issued approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles from the destination airport.
A. 125
B. 100
C. 75
D. 50
A

D

73
Q

An aircraft operating at FL310 is cleared to 12,000 feet. The altimeter setting is to be issued for the weather reporting station nearest the _______.
A. point the aircraft will leave the lowest usable flight level
B. destination airport
C. point the aircraft will leave FL310
D. next compulsory reporting point along the route

A

A

74
Q 
A12468 is requesting clearance from Jackson to Baton Rouge via V245. What are the correct altitudes for this flight?
A. 30, 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 150, 170
B. 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160
C. 40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160
D. 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 150, 170
A

C

75
Q 
N281, a Piper Apache, is requesting clearance from Jackson to Greenville via V74. What are the correct altitudes for this flight?
A. 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160
B. 30, 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 150, 170
C. 40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160
D. 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 140, 160
A

C

76
Q

Three circumstances that allow controllers to assign an inappropriate altitude for direction of flight are _______.
A. traffic conditions, inoperative NAVAID, and meteorological conditions
B. traffic conditions, aircraft limitations, and meteorological conditions
C. traffic conditions, aircraft limitations, and terrain
D. pilot request, aircraft limitations, and meteorological conditions

A

B

77
Q

What is the correct phraseology to assign one one thousand to an en route aircraft currently at niner thousand?
A. “Climb and maintain one one thousand.”
B. “Maintain one one thousand.”
C. “Climb to one one thousand.”
D. “After departure climb and maintain one one thousand.”

A

A

78
Q

When a route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended, _______.
A. specify altitude to which aircraft must climb/descend
B. cancel pilot’s discretion portion
C. authorize pilot’s discretion
D. restate all applicable restrictions

A

D

79
Q

Identify the correct phraseology for assigning more than one altitude.
A. “Block one five thousand.”
B. “Maintain and block one five thousand.”
C. “Maintain block one five thousand through one seven thousand.”
D. “Maintain one five thousand through one seven thousand.”

A

C

80
Q

When anticipating an altitude change, inform the aircraft _______ or _______.
A. when to expect climb/descent clearance; request altitude change from another facility
B. when to expect climb/descent clearance; to maintain standard separation
C. to maintain standard separation; to maintain current altitude
D. to maintain current altitude; request altitude change from another facility

A

A

81
Q 
What is the phraseology to confirm altitude information for an aircraft in level flight?
A. "SAY ALTITUDE."
B. "VERIFY ALTITUDE."
C. "CONFIRM AT (altitude/flight level)."
D. "VERIFY AT (altitude/flight level)."
A

D

82
Q

If a pilot is unable to accept a clearance _______.
A. re-issue the clearance with the term “I say again”
B. issue revised instructions to ensure positive control and standard separation
C. re-issue the clearance with the term “Expedite”
D. ask the pilot to state his/her intentions

A

B

83
Q 
When a delay is expected, holding instructions should be at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit fix. 
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5
A

D

84
Q

What is the phraseology for issuing holding instructions when the holding pattern is charted?
A. “Cleared to Jackson VORTAC, hold northwest as published, expect further clearance one one three five.”
B. “Cleared to Jackson VORTAC, hold northwest as charted, expect further clearance one one three five.”
C. “Cleared to Jackson VORTAC, expect further clearance one one three five.”
D. “Cleared to Jackson VORTAC, hold northwest, left turns, expect further clearance one one three five.”

A

A

85
Q

What is the correct sequence for issuing holding instructions for a noncharted pattern when a clearance limit has been issued in a previous clearance?
A. Direction of hold; holding fix; radial, course, bearing, track, azimuth, airway or route on which to hold; leg length; direction of turns; EFC
B. Holding fix; direction of hold; airway or route on which to hold; EFC; leg length; track; azimuth
C. Direction of hold; holding fix; EFC: radial; bearing; track; course; airway or route on which to hold
D. Holding fix; direction of hold; EFC; direction of turns; leg length; course; bearing; azimuth; airway or route on which to hold

A

A

86
Q

Which of the following is an instance when the direction of turns must be included in a holding clearance?
A. Aircraft is at or below 14,000 feet MSL
B. DME or RNAV is to be used
C. Aircraft is following a standard pattern
D. Left turns are to be made

A

D

87
Q

What action should be taken if you delay or intend to delay aircraft?
A. Broadcast delay information via ATIS.
B. Issue holding instructions.
C. Advise your supervisor or a TMU coordinator.
D. Advise all adjacent control facilities.

A

C

88
Q

If NO delay is expected, when should clearance beyond the fix be issued?
A. At least three minutes before the aircraft arrives at fix
B. Before aircraft starts slowing down
C. Before aircraft arrives at fix
D. As soon as possible

A

D

89
Q 
Select the phraseology to clear an aircraft whose route has NOT changed beyond a holding fix.
A. "AS FILED."
B. "VIA LAST ROUTING CLEARED."
C. "VIA LAST ROUTING FILED."
D. "VIA FILED FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE."
A

B

90
Q

When must arrival information be forwarded to approach control facilities?
A. Before issuing descent clearance
B. In time to provide Airport Advisory Service
C. Before transfer of control jurisdiction
D. Before clearing an aircraft for a visual approach

A

C

91
Q

Which group of items would be forwarded to a nonapproach control tower?
A. Type of approach, ETA, appropriate equipment suffix, and beacon code
B. Type of approach, ETA, control point, and crossing restriction
C. Type of approach, ETA, EFC, and fuel on board
D. Aircraft ID, type of aircraft, ETA, and type of approach

A

D

92
Q

When must coordination be accomplished if an aircraft is landing at an airport served by a nonapproach control tower?
A. At least 15 minutes prior to arrival
B. At least 3 minutes prior to arrival
C. In time to permit adjustment of traffic flow
D. In time to permit traffic advisory service

A

C

93
Q 
If holding instructions have been issued to an arriving aircraft, the controller must \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. issue alternate instructions
B. issue current weather
C. issue the approach sequence
D. issue an EFC if delay is anticipated
A

D

94
Q

“Authorization by ATC for a pilot to conduct an instrument approach” is the definition of a(n) _______.
A. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
B. approach clearance
C. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Chart
D. missed approach

A

B

95
Q

The phraseology to clear a pilot for a particular approach is, “CLEARED _______.”
A. FOR APPROACH
B. (type) APPROACH
C. (specific procedure to be flown) APPROACH
D. STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE

A

B

96
Q

When an aircraft is landing at an airport near the common boundary in adjacent center’s airspace, the controller must _______.
A. forward the flight data at least 1 hour in advance
B. coordinate and issue clearance to allow for normal descent and speed reduction
C. ask if the pilot will accept a lower altitude
D. issue an approach clearance and advise the receiving controller

A

B

97
Q

A pilot who has a cruise clearance is authorized to _______.
A. climb, descend, or level off at any altitude within the block of airspace
B. change altitudes only as authorized by ATC
C. stop at intermediate points along the route of flight at his/her discretion
D. descend to any altitude within the block of airspace, but climb only with ATC clearance

A

A

98
Q

A series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may me made visually is a(n) _______.
A. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
B. approach clearance
C. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Chart
D. missed approach

A

A

99
Q

A manuever conducted by a pilot when an instrument approach cannot be completed to a landing is a(n) _______.
A. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
B. approach clearance
C. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Chart
D. missed approach

A

D

100
Q 
After an aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or an instrument approach procedure, or has been assigned an altitude to maintain until established on a segment of a published route or an instrument approach procedure, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. issue the approach clearance
B. verify the altitude
C. verify obstruction clearance
D. authorize a cruise clearance
A

A

101
Q

The aeronautical data which is required to execute an instrument approach to an airport is a(n) _______.
A. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
B. approach clearance
C. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Chart
D. missed approach

A

C

102
Q 
One thousand feet of vertical separation is required at and below \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. FL430
B. FL410
C. FL390
D. FL350
A

B

103
Q 
The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL410 through FL600 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 5,000
A

C

104
Q

To provide minimum vertical separation (when pilots are NOT executing pilot’s discretion descent), assign an altitude _______.
A. only after the aircraft has reported at or passing through another altitude
B. after the aircraft previously at that altitude has been issued a climb/descent clearance and is observed or reports leaving the altitude
C. to an aircraft only after the aircraft previously at that altitude has reported another altitude
D. only to an aircraft that has reported at an altitude that provides minimum separation

A

B

105
Q 
Which of the following is an example of phraseology to obtain altitude reports?
A. "REPORT LEAVING ODD ALTITUDES."
B. "CALL LEAVING SEVEN THOUSAND."
C. "VERIFY LEAVING EVEN FLIGHT LEVELS."
D. "ADVISE WHEN YOU PASS SIX THOUSAND."
A

A

106
Q 
What is the phraseology to assign a higher altitude?
A. "CLIMB TO AND MAINTAIN (altitude)."
B. "CLIMB AND MAINTAIN (altitude)."
C. "CLIMB TO (altitude)."
D. "MAINTAIN (altitude)."
A

B

107
Q 
What is the phraseology to determine the altitude of an aircraft if it is known to be operating below the lowest usable flight level?
A. "SAY ALTITUDE."
B. "REPORT PRESENT ALTITUDE."
C. "WHAT IS YOUR PRESENT ALTITUDE?"
D. "VERIFY ALTITUDE."
A

A

108
Q 
N1234N has been issued a descent from 12,000 feet to 6,000 feet. N4567B is at 14,000 feet. N4567B can be assigned 12,000 feet when N1234N reports leaving \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. 9,000
B. 10,000
C. 11,000
D. 12,000
A

D

109
Q

Vertical separation is applied between aircraft experiencing severe turbulence by _______.
A. increasing minimums by 500 feet between aircraft altitudes
B. increasing minimums by 1,000 feet between aircraft altitudes
C. assigning an altitude only after an aircraft previously at that altitude has reported at or passing through another altitude separated from the first by the appropriate minimum
D. assigning an altitude only after an aircraft previously at that altitude has reported at or passing through another altitude separated from the first by 2,000 feet

A

C

110
Q

The rule for applying vertical separation between military aircraft conducting aerial refueling and other traffic is: _______.
A. Assign the refueling aircrafts’ altitude to another aircraft only after refueling aircraft reports at or leaving an altitude that provides separation
B. Increase minimums by 1,000 feet for each aircraft conducting refueling
C. When the receiver aircraft reports leaving its assigned altitudes, those altitudes may be used for other traffic
D. When the tanker aircraft reports leaving its block of altitudes those altitudes are again available

A

A

111
Q 
N74Y has been cleared to descend from 8,000 feet to 4,000 feet at pilot's discretion. A higher aircraft may be assigned 8,000 feet when N74Y reports \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. leaving 8,000
B. leaving 7,000
C. leaving 6,000
D. reaching 4,000
A

B

112
Q 
N1234A has been issued a descent clearance from 12,000 feet to cross JAN VORTAC at 6,000 feet. N4567B is at 14,000 feet. N4567B may be assigned 10,000 feet when N1234A reports leaving \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. 12,000
B. 11,000
C. 10,000
D. 9,000
A

D

113
Q 
N12B, at 6,000 feet, has been cleared for approach. The earliest an altitude of 6,000 feet can be assigned to another aircraft is when N12B reports \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. leaving 6,000 feet
B. leaving 5,000 feet
C. leaving 4,000 feet
D. on the ground
A

B

114
Q 
Aircraft operating at or below FL290 must be vertically separated fro the upper/lower limits of Special Use or ATC Assigned Airspace by at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. 2,000
B. 1,500
C. 1,000
D. 500
A

D

115
Q 
Aircraft operating above FL290 must be vertically separated from the upper/lower limits of active Special Use or ATC Assigned Airspace by at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet.
A. 1,500
B. 2,000
C. 500
D. 1,000
A

D

116
Q

Use DME/ATD procedures and minima only when _______.
A. DME routes are being flown by the aircraft involved
B. direct pilot-controller communications are maintained
C. at least one of the aircraft is using DME
D. the pilots are in direct communication and concur

A

B

117
Q 
The minimum longitudinal separation required when using the 44-knot rule is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles.
A. 10; 5
B. 10; 3
C. 5; 3
D. 3; 5
A

D

118
Q 
The minimum longitudinal separation required when using the 22-knot rule is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles.
A. 10; 5
B. 10; 3
C. 5; 10
D. 5; 5
A

C

119
Q

When are aircraft established on radials of the same NAVAID that diverge by at least 15 degrees considered to be laterally separated?
A. When aircraft are cleared to hold over different fixes at the same altitude.
B. When either aircraft is beyond airspace to be protected for the other.
C. When the slant-range is the line-of-sight distance between the aircraft and NAVAID.
D. When cleared aircraft on different airways or routes.

A

B

120
Q 
The size of the protected airspace of a holding pattern varies according to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. speed; direction of holding
B. altitude; wind speed
C. speed; altitude
D. altitude; direction of holding
A

C

121
Q 
To determine a distance for lateral separation when the degrees divergence falls between two values listed in the divergence table, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. use the lesser distance
B. take the average of the two distances
C. use the greater distance
D. take the sum of the two distances
A

C

122
Q 
The lateral separation provided for an aircraft on an established airway or route and within 51 miles from the NAVAID is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles either side of the centerline.
A. 10
B. 8
C. 5
D. 4
A

D

123
Q 
The protected airspace of a holding pattern must NOT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of an airway.
A. overlap the protected airspace
B. touch the centerline
C. overlap the centerline
D. touch the protected airspace
A

A

124
Q

Aircraft may be cleared to hold over different fixes at the same altitude if the _______.
A. pilot requests it
B. holding pattern airspaces do NOT overlap
C. fixes are on established airways
D. controller desires it

A

B

125
Q 
At what point (in miles) from a VOR will two converging aircraft lose separation if their angle of divergence is 15 degrees?
A. 15 miles
B. 17 miles
C. 19 miles
D. 21 miles
A

B

126
Q 
The degree of divergence (in miles) between V18 and V417, east of MLU VORTAC is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles.
A. 17
B. 10
C. 8
D. 6
A

A

127
Q 
At airports where airport traffic control service is provided, specify, as needed, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. initial heading azimuth to be flown
B. local traffic pattern
C. local wind information
D. obstructions
A

A

128
Q

Prior to including direction of takeoff in a clearance issued to an aircraft departing an airport within Class E airspace where airport traffic control service is NOT provided, the air traffic controller must _______.
A. solicit direction from the TRACON
B. obtain/solicit the pilot’s concurrence before issuing the clearance
C. coordinate with the destination airport
D. obtain clearance from the en route facility

A

B

129
Q 
When an aircraft is departing an airport located in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace, what should NOT be specified after takeoff as part of the departure clearance?
A. Direction of takeoff/turn
B. Altitude
C. Fix point
D. Clearance limit
A

A

130
Q 
When two aircraft will depart adjacent airports and their courses will diverge by 55° immediately after takeoff, what is the minimum separation that may be used?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 miles
D. 5 miles
A

A

131
Q 
When aircraft will fly the same course initially and you authorize 2 minutes of separation, courses must diverge within \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ after takeoff.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 nautical miles
C. 5 minutes
D. 13 miles DME
A

C

132
Q

All of the following are required conditions for authorizing a non-approach control tower to provide visual separation between aircraft within surface areas or designated areas EXCEPT _______.
A. at least one aircraft is visually observed by the tower
B. both aircraft must be visually observed by the tower
C. other separation is assured before the application of visual separation
D. other separation is assured after the application of visual separation

A

A

133
Q

What is the phraseology to authorize a non-approach control tower to provide visual separation between arriving and departing IFR aircraft?
A. “RELEASE SUBJECT YOUR DISCRETION (identification).”
B. “RELEASE YOUR DISCRETION WHEN (identification) IN SIGHT, LANDING ASSURED.”
C. “VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED, RELEASE WHEN (identification) IN SIGHT AND LANDING ASSURED.”
D. “VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED BETWEEN (identification) AND (identification). (Departing aircraft) RELEASED YOUR DISCRETION.”

A

D

134
Q

What is the phraseology to release N123 two minutes after N65K?
A. “November One Two Three released two minutes after November Six Five Kilo departs.”
B. “Release November One Two Three two minutes later than November Six Five Kilo.”
C. “November One Two Three is released two minutes after November Six Five Kilo departs McAlester.”
D. “Visual separation is approved between November One Two Three and November Six Five Kilo.”

A

A

FAA ATC En-Route Training Block 1 EXAM (1 decks)

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