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Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When did the Department of Labor create the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?

A

April 28, 1971

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2
Q

Ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance

A

OSHA

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3
Q

Principle federal agency engaged in research to eliminate on the job hazards and the TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE to OSHA

A

National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

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4
Q

SECNAVISNT 5100.10 series

A

DON Policy for Safety, Mishap Prevention, Occupational Health and Fire Protection Programs

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5
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.23 series

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual

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6
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.19 series

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual for Forces AFLOAT

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7
Q

What are the three volumes of the OPNAVINST 5100.19?

A

Volume I: NAVOSH and Major Hazard Specific Programs

Volume II: Surface Ship Safety Standards

Volume III: Submarine Safety Guideline

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8
Q

NAVMED P 5010 3 REV 2, Chapter 3

A

Prevention of Heat and Cold Stress Injuries/ Ashore, Afloat, and Ground Forces

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9
Q

The science that deals with the recognition, evaluation, and control, of potential health hazards in the work environment

A

Industrial Hygiene

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10
Q

A multi disciplinary field of general preventative medicine which is concerned with prevention and/or treatment of illness induced by factors in the workplace environment

A

Occupational Health

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11
Q

What are the major disciplines of Occupational Health?

A

a. Occupational Medicine
b. Occupation Health Nursing
c. Epidemiology
d. Toxicology
e. Industrial Hygiene
f. Health Physics

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12
Q

Who are the members of the Safety Council?

A

a. CO or XO (chairperson)
b. Safety Officer (recorder)
c. Training Officer
d. Department Heads
e. Medical Officer/Representative
f. Command Master Chief

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13
Q

How often does the Safety Council meet?

A

Quarterly or sooner

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14
Q

What are the responsibilities of Safety Council?

A
  1. DIRECTS corrective action for unsafe or unhealthful conditions
  2. Evaluates ship’s NAVOSH program
  3. Reviews issues/recommendations submitted by the Enlisted Safety Committee
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15
Q

Enlisted Safety Committee

A

a. Safety Officer (senior member)
b. Divisional Safety Petty Officers
c. Chief Master at Arms

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16
Q

How often does the Enlisted Safety Committee meet?

A

Quartely

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17
Q

What are the responsibilities of Individual Crew Members “ALL HANDS”?

A
  1. Accomplish assigned tasks and follow all applicable directives
  2. Know and comply with all safety precautions, standards, and use of PPE
  3. Report suspected unsafe/unhealthful work conditions
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18
Q

What issues should be immediately reported to their supervisor from All Hands?

A

a. Injury
b. Occupational illnesses
c. Property damage resulting from a mishap

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19
Q

Who is the designated occupational safety and health official for the DON?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Shipbuilding and Logistics)

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20
Q

Who implements and manages the NAVOSH program, establishes policy and standards for ALL Commanders. Establishes planning, programming, staffing and budgeting for NAVOSH programs?

A

Chief of Naval Operations

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21
Q

Ensures subordinate commands: Conduct an aggressive NAVOSH program and Develops a NAVOSH Management evaluation mechanism for afloat commands

A

TYCOMS (Fleet Commanders)

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22
Q

Assist afloat commands to ensure that afloat workplace Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) discrepancies beyond shipboard capability are identified and prioritized in the workload availability package

A

ISICs

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23
Q

Ensures Occupational Safety and Health aspects are considered in design and engineering of all ships, aircraft, weapons, weapons systems, facilities and equipment, and Engineering control of significant occupational health problems (noise, asbestos, HAZMAT).

A

Commander Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM)

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24
Q

Provides support in all aspects of Occupational Health, Industrial Hygiene and Environmental Health

A

Chief Bureau of Medicine and Surgery

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25
Q

Monitors safety and occupational health statistics and Provides direct support to fleet units on safety matters

A

Commander Naval Safety Center

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26
Q

Ensures all elements of the approved Navy Training Plan for NAVOSH afloat are properly executed

A

Navy Medicine Professional Development Center (NMPDC)

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27
Q

Conducts and aggressive and continuing program, designates command safety officer and ensures proper training. Establishes a Safety Council and Enlisted Safety Council.

A

Commanding Officer

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28
Q

Ensures compliance with current mishap reporting procedures, Ensures formal workplace safety inspections are conducted annually and IH surveys occur at least once during each operational cycle, and Establishes a hazard control and deficiency abatement program

A

Commanding Officer

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29
Q

Manages the NAVOSH program based on objectives established by the Commanding Officer, Reports Directly to the C.O. on occupational safety and health matters. Reports to the XO for the administration of the NAVOSH program

A

Safety Officer

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30
Q

Which Ships with have a primary duty Safety Officer assigned?

A

CVN - Carrier Nuclear
LHA - Landing Helo Assault
LHD - Landing Helo Dock
AS - Sub Tender

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31
Q

Who may be appointed as the collateral duty safety officer on small ships with a waiver?

A

Chief Petty Officers

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32
Q

Who does a Chief need a waiver from to be appointed as a collateral duty Safety Officer?

A

TYCOM

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33
Q

Direct access to the commanding officer regarding the MEDICAL ASPECS of the NAVOSH Program

A

Medical Officer/Medical Department Representative

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34
Q

Ensure Safe an Healthful Working Environment, Ensure work space is inspected and Hazard Free, and ensures all personnel are properly trained and have proper PPE?

A

Department Heads, Division Officers, and Work Center Supervisors

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35
Q

Inspect division spaces, submit safety hazard reports, advises DIVO on NAVOSH program status in the division.

A

Division Safety Petty Officers

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36
Q

What is the CORE of the NAVOSH Program?

A

Training, identification, control and elimination of safety and health hazards

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37
Q

What types of workplace inspections are there?

A
  1. Safety Inspections
  2. Industrial Hygiene Surveys
  3. Job-site Observation
  4. Master at Arms Force Inspections
  5. Shipboard Safety Survey
  6. INSURV
  7. Civilian Officials
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38
Q

How often do Safety Inspections take place and how long are the inspection results retained?

A
  1. Annually

2. Safety Officer retains the inspection results for 2 years

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39
Q

How long are the Safety inspection results retained?

A

at least 2 years

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40
Q

What does the Baseline Industrial Hygiene Survey contain?

A

a. Executive Summary of findings
b. Administrative Evaluation of IH and Occ Health Programs
c. List of eye hazardous processes
d. List areas requiring respiratory protection
e. Sound Level Survey with a list of noise hazardous areas
f. Air sampling results
g. Hazard evaluation
h. Ventilation Evaluation of exhaust systems to control contaminants
I. Medical Surveillance Requirements
j. Recommendations

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41
Q

When does a new Baseline IH Survey need to be done?

A

When system, equipment, or load out changes significantly affect onboard hazard and/or risk such as:

New or modified equipment, Introduction of new toxic chemical, Deterioration of existing controls

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42
Q

This workplace inspection’s purpose is to detect and correct hazards resulting from worker noncompliance and frequent noncompliance may warrant a safety stand down

A

Job site Observation

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43
Q

When should a Job site Observation be performed?

A

During the work day or During evolutions

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44
Q

Who can do a random Job site Observation?

A

a. CO
b. XO
c. Dept. Heads
d. DIVO
e. Work Center Supervisors

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45
Q

Which workplace inspection may elicit an on the spot correction and is done by roving safety inspectors?

A

Master at Arms Force Inspections

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46
Q

Which workplace inspection report stays at the “ships” level and does not require a follow up?

A

Shipboard Safety Survey

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47
Q

Evaluates ship compliance to NAVOSH and to promote day to day safety awareness and compliance

A

INSURV

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48
Q

OPNAV 3120/5

A

Safety Hazard Report

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49
Q

Process by which identified hazards that are not able to be immediately corrected are record and tracked to completion

A

Hazard Abatement Program

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50
Q

What does RAC stand for?

A

Risk Assessment Code

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51
Q

This hazard may cause death, loss of facility or grave damage to national interest

A

I - Catastrophic

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52
Q

Hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national interest

A

II - Critical

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53
Q

Hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage

A

III - Marginal

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54
Q

Hazard presents and minimal threat to personnel safety or health property

A

IV - Negligible

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55
Q

The likelyhood that a hazard will result in a mishap

A

Mishap Probability

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56
Q

Likely to occur immediately or in a short period of time

A

A (Mishap Prob code)

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57
Q

Probably will occur in time

A

B (Mishap Prob code)

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58
Q

May Occur in Time

A

C (Mishap Prob code)

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59
Q

Unlikely to Occur

A

D (Mishap Prob code)

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60
Q

What are the programs that fall under Occupational Safety and Health Programs?

A
  1. Asbestos Control Program
  2. Heat Stress Program
  3. Hazardous Material Control and Management Program
  4. Hearing Conservation Program
  5. Sight Conservation Program
  6. Respiratory Protection Program
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61
Q

Three methods of controlling hazards

A

a. Prevent the hazard at the design stage
b. Identify and eliminate existing hazards
c. Reduce the likelihood and severity of mishaps from hazards that cannot be eliminated

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62
Q

Name the Principles of Hazard Control (IN ORDER OF PREFERRED APPLICATION)

A

a. Substitution
b. Engineering Controls
c. Administrative Controls
d. PPE

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63
Q

Replacement of a process material of equipment having a lower hazard potential

A

Substitution

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64
Q

Primarily accomplished through design and advance planning

A

Engineering Controls

65
Q

What are 2 types of Engineering Controls?

A
  1. Isolation (Physical Separation)

2. Ventilation (Control of hazardous airborne substances)

66
Q

What are 3 types of Isolation Controls?

A

a. Physical Barrier (machine guards)
b. Time barrier (timed operation of semi automatic equipment)
c. Distance Barrier (remote control)

67
Q

What is an example of an Administrative Control?

A

Adjusting Work Schedules

68
Q

A fibrous material which may contain iron, magnesium, calcium or sodium

69
Q

What are some main characteristics of Asbestos

A

Fireproof, Acid resistant, High Tensile Strength, Good heating and electrical insulation properties

70
Q

What is the temperature of the heat resistance of Asbestos?

A

500-1500 Celsius

71
Q

Which type of asbestos material can be crumbled, pulverized or reduced to powder by hand pressure?

72
Q

Type of Asbestos material that cannot be crumbled, pulverized or reduce to powder by hand pressure

A

Non-friable

73
Q

Specific Work Activities that disturb the make up of asbestos materials

A

a. Punching
b. Grinding
c. Sanding
d. Machining

74
Q

What are the two major diseases resulting from Asbestos exposure?

A

Lung Cancer

Absbestosis

75
Q

A tumor which lines the chest and abdominal cavity and suspected to also cause cancer in the GI tract

A

Malignant Mesothelioma

76
Q

What time period does Mesothelioma usually present?

A

10-45 years later

77
Q

T/f Mesothelioma is a common type of cancer in many populations

A

False. Rarely found in people that have not been exposed to Asbestos

78
Q

This is a progressively worsening disease of the lung that is recognized as disabling or even a fatal occupational disease

A

Asbestosis

79
Q

What are the positions on an EART (Emergency Asbestos Removal Team)?

A

a. Supervisor
b. Cutter
c. Cleaner

80
Q

T/f It is possible to ID asbestos by visual inspection

81
Q

What types of laboratory analysis are required to ID asbestos?

A

Polarized Light Microscopy

Transfer Electron Microscopy

82
Q

Basic Principles for Controlling Asbestos Hazards

A

a. Substitution with less hazardous materials
b. Engineering Controls
c. Administrative Controls (rotating personnel so they don’t exceed PEL)
d. PPE

83
Q

What type of PPE is used in Asbestos Control?

A

a. TYVEK (full body one piece, disposable coveralls)
b. Medium weight rubber gloves w/ thin under glove
c. Slip resistant plastic shoe covers or heavy polyethylene shoe covers (slip resistant)
d. Safety glasses or vented goggles
e. Respiratory Protection

84
Q

What are the AMSP (Asbestos Medical Surveillance Program) inclusion criteria?

A

a. Identify signs and symptoms of asbestos related medical conditions as early as possible.
b. Identification of medical conditions which may increase employees risk of impairment
c. Placement of personnel into the AMSP based on history.
d. Placement into AMSP is depending upon INDUSTRIAL HYGIENE SAMPLING DATA

85
Q

What trainings must EART personnel complete?

A
  • (A-760-2166) Emergency Asbestos Response Team

* Respirator Fit-Testing, Selection, and Maintenance

86
Q

How many days is the (A-760-2166)?

A

2 day formal course

87
Q

What is the Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)?

A

0.1 f/cc of air, calculated as an 8 hr time weighted average (TWA)

88
Q

Excursion Limit (EL) for Asbestos

A

1.0 f/cc averaged over 30 min sampling period

89
Q

What is the personnel notification requirements of asbestos exposure?

A

Physician’s Written Opinion

90
Q

How is the Physician’s Written Opinion distributed and what should it not include?

A

Copy goes to the employee and employees command within 30 days.

Should not contain non-pertinent medical information

91
Q

What are documents that need to be included in the AMSP?

A
  1. SF 600 (Medical Matrix)
  2. OPNAV 5100/15 Part IV
  3. DD 2493-1
  4. DD 2493-2
  5. NAVMED 6260/5
  6. NAVMED 6260/7
  7. Physician’s Written Opinion
92
Q

SF 600

A

Preprinted Medical Matrix

93
Q

OPNAV 5100/15 Part IV

A

Medical Department Determination

94
Q

DD 2493-1

A

Initial Medical Questionnaire

95
Q

DD 2493-2

A

Periodic Medical Questionnaire

96
Q

NAVMED 6260/5

A

Periodic Health Evaluation, History and Physical Examination

97
Q

NAVMED 6260/7

A

AMSP X-ray Interpretation for Pneumoconiosis

98
Q

The Hearing Conservation Report to the Safety Officer should include what information?

A

All permanent threshold shifts toward deteriorated hearing and include:

  1. Name
  2. Rank
  3. Work Center
  4. Time Onboard
99
Q

What are the elements of the Hearing Conservation Program?

A

a. Survey work environments
b. Modify work environments
c. Ensure periodic hearing tests are conducted
d. Provide training

100
Q

NAVMED 6260/2

A

Hazardous Noise Warning Decal (8”x10”)

101
Q

Where should the NAVMED 6260/2 be placed?

A

Posted to the Outside doors/ hatches leading into a hazardous noise area

102
Q

Where should the NAVMED 6260/2 be placed on a weather deck?

A

To INSIDE of hatches

103
Q

What is the NAVMED 6260/2A used for?

A

Hazardous noise label (2”x2”) labels smaller individual pieces of equipment that produce a hazardous noise

104
Q

What are the hearing tests and medical surveillance in the Hearing Conservation Program?

A

a. Reference Hearing Test
b. Monitoring Hearing Test
c. Termination Hearing Test

105
Q

DD 2215

A

Reference Audiogram

106
Q

DD 2216

A

Monitoring Audiogram

107
Q

Which noise level requires hearing protection?

A

85 db or higher

108
Q

Noise levels above 104 db require?

A

Double hearing protection and placement in the HCP

109
Q

Record of noise measurements shall be kept by the measuring activity for?

110
Q

What defines a Significant Threshold Shift?

A

A change in hearing threshold relative to the current reference audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at 2000, 3000, and 4000Hz in either ear

111
Q

A positive STS indicates?

A

Poorer hearing

112
Q

T/f If an STS is positive, the hearing levels are poorer than the reference audiogram

113
Q

How long should you wait to retest after a positive STS?

A

14 hrs in a noise free environment

114
Q

What should be done if first retest showed STS and if frequencies below 3000 Hz are involved?

A

Screen for any medical issues through otoscope and tympanometry

  1. Record findings on an SF600
  2. If findings are abnormal, health care evaluation must be obtained and individual followed until cleared medically
  3. If findings are normal, perform a second retest
115
Q

T/f Second retest be administered on the same day as the first retest

116
Q

What should happen if the retest doesn’t indicate STS?

A

Return to annual monitoring

117
Q

What should you do if the second retest shows STS?

A

a. Hearing protection is evaluated
b. Results are forwarded to and audiologist and physician
c. Result of the second retest are used to re-establish a reference audiogram

118
Q

When should Supervisors be notified in writing and what form is used?

A

Within 21 days of positive STS

DD2216 will suffice

119
Q

What are the primary means of protection in Noise Abatement strategies?

A

Engineering Controls

120
Q

Controlling work schedules, and labeling noise hazardous areas are an example of what type of noise abatement strategy?

A

Administrative controls

121
Q

4 Noise Abatement Strategies

A

a. Engineering Controls
b. Administrative controls
c. Substitution of less noisy operations
d. Personal Hearing Protection Devices

122
Q

This person appoints the respiratory protection manager

123
Q

Main duties of a Respiratory Protection Officer

A

a. Ensure accurate guidance exists for respiratory protection
b. Develops and maintains a list of personnel in program
c. Provides guidance to supply officer on proper respirator types and adequate stock levels
d. Ensures respirator training for USERS, ISSUERS, and SUPERVISORs
e. Monitors program effectiveness
f. Ensures proper fit testing is performed

124
Q

Ensures personnel who use respirators obtain training, fit-testing and received medical qualification

A

Department Heads/DIVOs

125
Q

Requirements for Respirator Use

A

a. Personnel have been confirmed by MDR, and have no deployment limiting medical conditions
b. If IMR can’t be confirmed, formal respirator certification using Medical Matrix exam (716) must be used
c. Examiner
d. Disposition

126
Q

Who can be an Examiner for Respiratory Use certification?

A

Physician, RN, PA, Prev Med Tech, or an IDC

127
Q

What are the three dispositions for Respirator use exams?

A
  1. Medically qualified w/o restriction
  2. Medically qualified w/ restrictions
  3. Not medically qualified (MDR must sign)
128
Q

Any material dispensed from a pressurized container using a gas propellant

129
Q

A material tha under normal conditions of temperatures and pressure tends to occupy the space uniformly

130
Q

What is considered an Oxygen Deficient Atmosphere?

A

Below 19.5%. Must be 19.5% by volume to use an air-purifying respirator

131
Q

Respirators that remove air contaminants by filtering, or absorbing them as the air passes through the cartridge

A

Air purifying respirators

132
Q

What are surgical masks used for in the respiratory program?

A

Should NEVER be used as an air-purifying respirator. MEDICAL and DENTAL use only. They do not provide protection agains air contaminants

133
Q

T/f Military Gas Masks can be used in place of an Air purifying respirator

A

False. They are used for CBRNE only

134
Q

Used to protect against an aerosol containing a volatile organic solvent and adds another level of protection

A

Pre-filters

135
Q

Protects the user by supplying oxygen to ensure maintenance of life and the the environment is immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)

A

Atmosphere Supplying Respirators

136
Q

Under what circumstances are Atmosphere Supplying Respirators used?

A

When an environment is Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) or the contaminant has no warning property.

137
Q

What are the 3 types of Air-line respirators?

A

Demand
Pressure Demand
Continuous Flow

138
Q

This type of air-line respirator maintains continuous positive pressure within the face-piece, thus preventing contaminant leakage into the face piece

A

Pressure Demand

139
Q

This type of air-line respirator supplies air to the user on demand (inhalation) which creates a negative pressure within the face piece

140
Q

This type of air-line respirator provides a continuous positive pressure and flow of air within any of the breathing zone containment, thus preventing contaminant leakage into the containment.

A

Continuous Flow

141
Q

This respirator consists of a face-piece, helmet, hood, a breathing tube and a source of air or oxygen all of which is carried by the wearer

A

Self-contained breathing apparatuses (SCBAs)

142
Q

What are the two categories of SCBAs?

A

Closed-circuit (Rebreathing)

Open-circuit

143
Q

Exhaled air is expelled to the atmosphere and air is provided to the user from a compressed air cylinder

A

Open circuit SCBA

144
Q

Carbon dioxide in exhaled breath is removed prior to re-breathing.

A

Closed-circuit SCBA

145
Q

What are the different types of Open-circuit SCBAs?

A
  1. Demand
  2. Pressure demand
  3. Emergency Escape Devices
  4. Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD)
146
Q

This type of open-circuit SCBA must never be used for entry into a hazardous atmosphere

A

Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD)

147
Q

What is the measurement of iodine to water and time for the sanitation of the respirator face piece?

A

2 minutes in a water solution of iodine (0.8 ml of Iodine per L of water)

148
Q

What temperature of water is used to sanitize a face piece?

A

110 - 122 F

149
Q

What are the storage requirements of respirators?

A
  1. Place respirator in a clean plastic bag or other container and seal
  2. Zip lock plastic bag is preferred
  3. Ensure the respirator is completely dry before sealing to prevent mildew
  4. Store FLAT in a clean, dry, uncontaminated area without crowding which may distort the respirator face view
150
Q

Respirator testing that may performed by using Isomyl acetate (banana oil), Saccharin mist, and Irritant smoke (Preferred method)

A

Qualitative Fit Testing

151
Q

This type of respirator fit testing can only be performed by shore activities

A

Quantitative Fit Testing

152
Q

X-Small Ear Plug?

153
Q

Small Ear Plug

154
Q

Medium Ear Plug

155
Q

Large Ear Plug

156
Q

X-large Ear Plug

157
Q

What is the name of the single flange ear plugs the navy uses?

A

Ear Defender V-51R

158
Q

What is the name of the triple flange ear plug the Navy uses?

A

Comfit, Triple Flange

NAVOSH (1 decks)

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