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Paramedic Training > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

In 1985, Seattle Fire Department initiated a successful program of instructing callers in:

A

CPR

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2
Q

Your patient has unstable vital signs and AIDS. You fear for your safety and decide not to treat or transport the patient. Your actions are considered:

A

Unethical and illegal

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3
Q

Standards designed by a group which identify honorable behaviors are called:

A

Ethics

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4
Q

Direct medical control exists when the EMT-P:

A

Receives treatment orders by phone from a medical control physician

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5
Q

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle crash. You begin treatment of a patient who complains of neck pain. A physician arrives and disagrees with your treatment. You seek further direction from the:

A

Intervening physician

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6
Q

In most EMS programs, who of the following is ultimately responsible for the quality of patient care:

A

The Fire Chief

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7
Q

Local training standards for Paramedic courses are often based on the:

  • National medical control protocols for Paramedic curriculums
  • National Registry of EMTs curriculum for Paramedic
  • U.S. Department of Transportation’s national EMT-P curriculum
  • American Red Cross national EMT-P curriculum
A

National Registry of EMTs curriculum for Paramedic

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8
Q

A Paramedic who is working in a tiered-response system would commonly perform which activity first?

  • Establish contact with medical control
  • Determine the need for ALS care
  • Determine patient destination
  • Determine which unit should transport the patient
A

Determine the need for ALS care

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding medical responsibility at the prehospital emergency scene:
- Orders from the EMS direct medical control physician take precedence over orders from the patient’s personal physician who is at the scene

  • Orders from the EMS direct medical control physician take precedence over orders from any other physician at the scene who is not the patient’s personal physician
  • When EMS direct medical control cannot be reached, the paramedic’s decisions take precedence over orders from any non-EMS physician at the scene
  • When EMS direct medical control cannot be reached, orders from the Emergency Medical Dispatcher take precedence over orders from any non-EMS physician at the scene
A

Orders from the EMS direct medical control physician take precedence over orders from any other physician at the scene who is not the patient’s personal physician

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10
Q

When transferring patient care at a receiving facility (e.g. a hospital emergency department), paramedics should provide the receiving healthcare professionals with:
- Specific instructions for continued care

  • An accurate diagnosis of the current illness or injury
  • A briefing about the patient’s condition and treatment at the scene and during transport
  • A list of the conclusions made about the patient and his or her presentation
A

A briefing about the patient’s condition and treatment at the scene and during transport

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11
Q

Which is not a component of the SOAP format for patient reports:

  • Patient personal statistics
  • Assessment data
  • Objective data
  • Subjective information
A

Patient personal statistics

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12
Q

The most important infection-control practice a paramedic can practice is:

A

Proper hand washing

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13
Q

Which of the following is a primary reason for verbal communication of patient information to the hospital:
- To document proper patient care in order to avoid a malpractice lawsuit

  • To enable the emergency department staff to prepare for the needs of the patient
  • To alert the emergency department of a patient with a communicable disease
  • To allow the hospital time to ensure that the patient has the proper insurance
A

To enable the emergency department staff to prepare for the needs of the patient

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14
Q

Written EMS run forms are useful for all of the following purposes EXCEPT:
- As a part of the patient’s permanent record

  • As a legal record of the patient’s prehospital care
  • As a written record of the patient’s initial condition
  • As a document to report a communicable disease
A

As a document to report a communicable disease

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15
Q

Which of the following statements regarding chest lead placement is NOT correct:

- Lead V1 is placed to the left of the sternum at the fifth intercostal space
- Lead V4 is placed in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line
- Lead V3 is placed in a line midway between lead V2 and lead V4
- Lead V6 is placed at the mid-axillary line at the same level as lead V4

A

Lead V1 is placed to the left of the sternum at the fifth intercostal space

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16
Q

You see 3mm of ST elevation in two contiguous leads on the 12 lead ECG you have just taken. Of the following what is most likely:
- The patient is experiencing ischemia

  • The patient has high potassium
  • The patient is having an AMI
  • There is nothing to worry about as this indicates an old, not acute, MI
A

The patient is having an AMI

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17
Q

The leads that view the septal aspect of the heart are:

A

V1 and V2

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18
Q

The leads that view the inferior aspect of the heart are:

A

II, III and AVF

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19
Q

In the majority of the population, which coronary artery is the major blood supply for the inferior wall of the left ventricle:

A

Right coronary artery

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20
Q

The intrinsic rate of the AV node is:

A

40-60 beats per minute

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21
Q

Which of the following is an acute coronary syndrome:

  • Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • Third degree heart block
  • Stable angina
  • Unstable angina
A

Unstable angina

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22
Q

The three I’s of ACS are

A

Ischemia, Injury and Infarction

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23
Q

During ventricular systole the ventricles contract while the:

  • Pulmonic and aortic semilunar valves are closing
  • Tricuspid and mitral valves open
  • Atria simultaneously contract
  • Tricuspid and mitral valves are closed
A

Tricuspid and mitral valves are closed

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24
Q

The term contralateral means:

A

On the opposite side

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25
Q

The suffix - phasia refers to:

A

Speech

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26
Q

The prefix “inter” means

A

Within

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27
Q

The suffix referring to repairing or suturing is:

A

-plasty

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28
Q

The term that best describes the area behind the abdominal cavity is

A

Retroperitoneal

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29
Q

When referring to the heart’s conduction system the abbreviation AV means:

A

Atrioventricular

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30
Q

Which layer of the heart is usually first affected by an AMI:

A

Endocardium

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31
Q

Collateral circulation allows for:

A

Alternative path of blood flow in the event of occlusion

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32
Q

Vasa vasorum is best defined as:

A

A vessel that supplies blood to another vessel

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33
Q

Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral resistance. The formula for this is:

A

Blood pressure = cardiac output x systemic vascular resistance

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34
Q

In “V/Q mismatch”, the V stands for Ventilation. What does the Q stand for?

A

Perfusion Pressure

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35
Q

Physiology is defined as the study of

A

Body function

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36
Q

The human body is a hierarchical system in which the smallest structural element is the _____, and the largest is the _____:

A

Cell/organ system

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37
Q

Which of the following is an example of epithelial tissue:

  • Mucous membranes
  • Muscle tissue
  • Nerve tissue
  • The cardiovascular system
A

Mucous membranes

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38
Q

Bones, cartilage, and fat are all examples of:

A

Connective tissue

39
Q

The endocrine system includes the:

  • Spleen, lymph nodes, and lymphatic channels
  • Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
  • Pituitary, adrenal, and thyroid glands
  • Bone marrow, cartilage, and connective tissue
A

Pituitary, adrenal, and thyroid glands

40
Q

Serious medical emergencies may be created by a failure at the level of which of the following:

  • Cellular or tissue level only
  • Organs or organ systems
  • Organ systems only
  • Cells, tissues, organs or organ systems
A

Cells, tissues, organs or organ systems

41
Q

The appendix, ascending colon, and small intestine, are found in which abdominal quadrant:

A

Right lower quadrant

42
Q

When evaluating a patient with an altered level of consciousness of unknown origin, you should:

  • Do CPR
  • Put in a OPA
  • Intubate
  • Check blood sugar
A

Check blood sugar

43
Q

Which of the following means “as needed:”

  • lpn
  • po
  • npo
  • prn
A

prn - as needed

lpn - licensed practica nurse
po - by mouth or orally
npo - nothing by mouth

44
Q

The purpose of the primary assessment is to detect and treat

A

Life-threatening injuries

45
Q

The primary assessment includes which of the following:

  • Dispatch review and scene size-up
  • Assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation
  • Head-to-toe physical exam for all injuries
  • Measurement and recording of vital signs
A

Assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation

46
Q

Which of the following represents the correct order of the airway structures moving from the mouth toward the lungs:

  • Trachea, bronchi, larynx, pharynx
  • Bronchi, trachea, pharynx, larynx
  • Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi
  • Larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi
A

Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi

47
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ is often referred to as the fifth vital sign:
 	Heart rate
 	Blood pressure
 	Pulse oximetry
 	Blood glucose level
A

Pulse oximetry

48
Q

Identify 10 different causes (Differential Diagnoses) of “Hyperventilation”.

A
  1. Anxiety/Panic Attack
  2. Trauma
  3. Asthma
  4. COPD
  5. CHF
  6. Pulmonary Embolism
  7. Altitude Sickness/Bends
  8. Hyperglycemia
  9. Aspirin/Stimulant OD
  10. Pneumothorax
49
Q

COPD patient who retains CO2 would, in an uncompensated state, be likely to have

A

Respiratory acidosis

50
Q

To find out if the patient has an open airway and adequate breathing, you should:

A

Look, listen and feel

51
Q

Chronic bronchitis can be defined as:

  • Inflammatory changes and excesive mucus production in the bronchial tree
  • Chronic enlargement of the alveoli with loss of elasticity
  • Recurrent reactive bronchospasm
  • A chronic fungal infection leading to pus-filled epithelial tissue and bronchoconstriction
A

Inflammatory changes and excesive mucus production in the bronchial tree

52
Q 
Which of the following is an example of an "open ended" question:
 	"Is your pain sharp?"
 	"Why did you call today?"
 	"Are you nauseated?"
 	"When was your last bowel movement?"
A

“Why did you call today?”

53
Q

A patient with altered mental status will experience loss of orientation, from first to last, in what sequence:

  • Person, place, time, one’s own person
  • Place, time, one’s own person, other persons
  • Time, place, persons, one’s own person
  • One’s own person, other persons, place time
A

Person, place, time, one’s own person

54
Q

The proper size oropharyngeal airway may be determined by holding the airway beside the patient’s cheek and measuring from:

A

Corner of mouth to earlobe

55
Q

The chemical that reduces surface tension and helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing is known as:

A

Surfactant

56
Q

The mechanical process whereby air is taken into and out of the lungs is known as:

A

Ventilation

57
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding gas exchange in the lungs EXCEPT:

  • Oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the pulmonary/capillary membrane in opposite directions
  • Oxygen diffuses from the area of higher PO2 in the alveoli to the area of lower PO2 in the capillaries
  • CO2 diffuses from the area of higher PCO2 in the capillaries to the area of lower PCO2 in the alveoli
  • Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart for systemic distribution
A
  • Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart for systemic distribution
58
Q

All of the following statements regarding the trachea are true EXCEPT:

  • The trachea in the average adult is approximately 4-6 centimeters long
  • The trachea is kept in an open position be C-shaped, cartilaginous rings
  • The trachea divides into left and right main stem bronchi at the carina
  • The trachea is lined with epithelium cilia and mucus-producing cells
A

The trachea in the average adult is approximately 4-6 centimeters long

59
Q

Poor compliance while ventilating an intubated patient with a bag-valve should prompt the paramedic to check for all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A occluded endotracheal tube
  • Improper positioning of the endotracheal tube
  • A tear in the bag-valve apparatus
  • Tension pneumothorax
A

A tear in the bag-valve apparatus

60
Q

When attempting to intubate the medical patient, the head should be placed in the:

A

Sniffing position

61
Q

The tip of the curved laryngoscope blade should be inserted:

A

Into the vallecula

62
Q

The primary regulation of respiration lies in the

A

Medulla

63
Q 
Chemoreceptors located in the carotid bodies and aortic arch signal the brainstem to increase respirations when any of the following happens EXCEPT:
 	PaO2 is decreased
 	PaCO2 is increased
 	pH is decreased
 	pH is increased
A

pH is increased

64
Q

Tidal volume is

A

The amount of air inhaled in one breath

65
Q

The increased level of CO2 in the blood is known as:

A

Hypercarbia

66
Q

The non-rebreather mask, with a reservoir, can deliver 80% to 100% oxygen at a flow rate of:
2-6 liters per minute
6-10 liters per minute
You don’t need supplemental oxygen if you use a reservoir
10-15 liters per minute

A

10-15 liters per minute

67
Q 
Which of the following medications is not a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Versed
Anectine
Pavulon
Norcuron
A

Versed

68
Q

Levophed’s generic name is:

A

Norepinephrine

69
Q

When you see the ending pril on a medication container, what class of drug should you think of (i.e. Captopril):

A

Ace inhibitor (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor)

70
Q

When you see the ending olol on a medication container, what class of drug should you think of (i.e. Propranolol):

A

Beta blocker

71
Q 
A common trade name for Albuterol is:
 	Proventil
 	Sectral
 	Zepine
 	Restoril
A

Proventil

72
Q

You are giving Adenosine to an adult patient in PSVT. Your first IV dose is not successful in converting the rhythm. Your second dose would be:

A

12 mg

73
Q

When drugs reach their targeted tissue, they begin a chain of biochemical events that lead to the desired physiological changes. This is called the drug’s:

A

Absorption

74
Q 
When a drug is given parenterally (IV or IM), which of the following factors may DELAY absorption:
 	Physical exertion
 	Fever
 	Hyperthermia
 	Shock
A

Shock

75
Q

Which route of administration has the fastest rate of absorption and is the most predictable:

A

Intravenous

76
Q 
Your patient has been taking pain medication for several months. To maintain the desired effect, he must periodically increase his dose. The increased requirement is called:
 	Tolerance
 	Cumulative action
 	Additive
 	Hypersensitivity
A

Tolerance

77
Q

Which medication is indicated for a patient with PSVT that is refractory to vagal maneuvers and has stable vitals?

A

Adenosine

78
Q

You respond to a patient who has taken an overdose of aspirin tablets. The total number ingested was 30 tablets. If the tablets are 325mg. each, how much aspirin were taken?

A

9.75 g

79
Q

The Medic One Doctor orders 4 mg. of morphine sulfate for a chest pain patient. The morphine is in a tubex prefilled cartridge, 10 mg. in 1 ml. dilution. How many milliliters would you give:

A

0.4 ml

80
Q

Your patient tells you he weights 185 pounds. This is equal to:

A

84 kg

81
Q

You have been ordered to administer a repeat IV bolus dose of Lidocaine at 0.75 mg/kg. The patient weighs 150 lbs. The Lidocaine is packaged in a 5 ml. prefilled syring that contains 100 mg. of lidocaine. How many ml. of the prefilled Lidocaine syringe do you administer:

A

2.5 ml

82
Q

To administer a Lidocaine drip or infusion, you have mixed 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 ml of D5W. Medic One doctor orders a 2 mg./min infusion rate. Using a microdrip administration set, your drip rate will be:

A

30 drops/min

83
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a parenteral route of drug administration?
 	Intraosseous
 	Endotracheal
 	Intravenous
 	Oral
A

Oral

84
Q

An advantage of giving drugs by the intramuscular route is:

  • A rapid onset of action
  • A predictable rate of absorption
  • An absorption rate similar to the IV route
  • Any parenteral drugs can be given by this route
A

A predictable rate of absorption

85
Q

Pharmacokinetics can be partially described as:

  • The study of how drugs affect the body systems
  • The study of drugs’ actions within the body
  • The study of drugs’ effects on pregnancy
  • The study of how drugs reach their site of action
A

The study of how drugs reach their site of action

86
Q

The blood brain barrier is a protective mechanism that:

  • Allows only the proper amount of blood to reach the brain
  • Keeps brain cells from floating into the circulatory system
  • Selectively allows only a limited number of drugs into the brain
  • Allows only protein-bound drugs rapid entry into the brain
A

Selectively allows only a limited number of drugs into the brain

87
Q

The difference between effective and toxic concentrations of a drug is called:

A

therapeutic index

88
Q

Drugs that bind to a receptor on the surface of cell membranes and cause a response are referred to as:

A

Agonists

89
Q

Post-ganglionic nerves extend to several peripheral target tissues of the sympathetic nervous system. When stimulated, the effects may include:

  • Dilation of blood vessels in the skin
  • A decrease in heart rate and force of cardiac contractions
  • Bronchodilation
  • A decrease in blood flow to skeletal muscles
A

Bronchodilation

90
Q 
Medications that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system are called:
 	Sympatholytics
 	Sympathomimetics
 	Cholinergics
 	Antagonists
A

Sympathomimetics

91
Q

Medications that block the action of the parasympathetic nervous system are referred to as

A

Parasympatholytics

92
Q

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in

  • Papillary dilation
  • Decreased smooth muscle activity along the digestive tract
  • Bronchodilation
  • Reduction in heart rate and cardiac contractile force
A

Reduction in heart rate and cardiac contractile force

93
Q

An analgesic is defined as a drug that:

  • Causes bronchodilation
  • Relieves pain
  • Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
  • Halts seizures
A

Relieves pain

94
Q 
In the lungs, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the:
 	Bronchioles and peripheral capillaries
 	Alveoli and pulmonary bronchioles
 	Bronchioles and peripheral alveoli
 	Alveoli and pulmonary capillaries
A

Alveoli and pulmonary capillaries

Paramedic Training (3 decks)

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