Block 1-2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who developed the first cardiac catheterization procedures for diagnosis of cardiac diseases?

A

Werner Forssman

•Werner Forssman -Cardiac Catheterization (1956)
•Dr. Christiaan Bernard -First successful heart transplant in 1967
•Dr. Michael DeBakey -Developed artificial artery for arterial bypass operations
•Joseph Muray -Kidney organ transplantation in 1954 Trans1.1

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is false about the Fabrica by Vesalius which was published in 1543?

A

It was the first textbook of anatomy published

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3
Q

Which is the earliest known document about surgery?

A

Edwin Smith papyrus

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4
Q

The development of asepsis was one of the most important advances in surgery, was primarily due to the work of:

A

Joseph Lister

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5
Q

In the middle ages, which of the following problems did not hamper the growth of surgery?

A

Nutrition

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6
Q

What is the role of the French physiologist Claude Bernard in the development of surgery?

A

Bernard’s physiologic concepts and experiments led to our understanding of the body’s internal regulating systems

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7
Q

who was the first president of the philippine college of surgeons and what year was the association founded?

A

Gregorio Singian, 1935

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8
Q

The physician during 2nd century AD whose teachings were accepted as dogma by his followers so that ni advances in medicine were made for the next 1,500 year is:

A

galen

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9
Q

what type of suture is polyglactin?

A

Absorbable synthetic

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning electrocautery?

A

A bipolar cautery is more precise and usually confines the damage to the tissue between the tips of cauterizing forceps.

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11
Q

Sump suction drainage is best required in:

A

enteric fistula

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12
Q

The operating room (OR) should provide an environment that is as free of bacterial contamination as possible. This is achieved by:

A

use of high efficiency particulate filters that can remove bacteria

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13
Q

The primary credit for the development of general anesthesia is given to:

A

Crawford Long

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14
Q

The credit for the development and use of extracorporeal circulation is attributed to:

A

John Gibbon

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15
Q

Polyglactic acid:

A

absorbable suture

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16
Q

Cyanoacrylate

A

not a suture

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17
Q

Polypropelene

A

non-absorbable suture

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18
Q

Which of the following statement is true about William Halstead?

A

He began a residency training that trained generation of surgeons for academic positions

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19
Q

Nobel prize was given to the physician for his work fundamental work on vascular anastomosis:

A

Carrel

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20
Q

Nobel prize was given to the physician for his pioneering work on renal transplantation

A

Murray

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21
Q

Water constitutes approximately what percentage of the total body weight?

A

50-60%

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22
Q

Intracellular water makes up approximately 40% of the person’s total body weight, with the largest proportion located in the?

A

Skeletal muscle

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23
Q

Which of the following has the highest percentage of water in proportion to total body weight?

A

Newborns

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24
Q

What is the most common fluid disorder in surgical patients and can either be acute or chronic?

A

Extracellular volume deficit

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25
Q

Which of the following is not a cation?

A

Chloride

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26
Q

Causes of Hyperkalemia except :

A

Hyperaldosteronism

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27
Q

Hyponatremia is associated with what?

A

Hyperglycemia

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28
Q

Hypernatremia is associated with:

A

Cushing’s Disease

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29
Q

Daily water losses include 250 ml in the stool and 1200 ml in the urine. What is the most approximate amount of insensible water loss?

A

600 ml

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30
Q
  1. The osmolality of both the intracellular and extracellular fluids is maintained between what amounts in each compartment?
A

290–310 mOsm

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31
Q

Cardiovascular signs of tachycardia and orthostasis accompanied by oliguria and hemoconcentration predominate with what type of volume loss?

A

Acute volume loss

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32
Q

What is the medication that causes hyperkalemia?

A

Spironolactone

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33
Q

Volume excess is a common disorder in the post-operative period. What is the earliest sign of volume overload?

A

Weight gain

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34
Q

All of the following statements are true

A

a. TBW is divided into three functional fluid
compartments
b. Sodium is the principal cation
Typical individual consumes approx. 3 to
5 g of dietary salt per day

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35
Q

The Classic Signs of Hypovolemic Hypernatremia include:

A

a. Hypotension
b. Orthostasis
c. Tachycardia

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36
Q

T/F. Superfeeding results from overestimation of caloric needs, as occurs when actual body weight is used to calculate the BEE in patient populations such as the critically ill with significant fluid overload and the obese.

A

False

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37
Q

T/F. Overfeeding increases oxygen consumption and suppression of leukocyte function.

A

True

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38
Q

Starvation cannot be tolerated for 10 days by patients.

A

False

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39
Q

T/F. Cessation of feeding should be stopped in a 4- to 6-hour period or abdominal distention 200ml or less residuals

A

True

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40
Q

T/F. The most abundant amino acid in the body is Glutamine.

A

True

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following solutions is usually considered to be the standard or first-line formulas for stable patients with an intact gastrointestinal tract and contain no fiber bulk?
A

Low residue isotonic formulas

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42
Q

Which of the following contain soluble and insoluble fiber which delay intestinal transit
time?

A

a. Isotonic formulas with fiber

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43
Q

Which of the following is fortified with special nutrients with additives such as Glutamine, Arginine and omega 3 fatty acids?

A

Immune enhancing formulas

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44
Q
  1. This is suitable for patients requiring fluid restriction or those unable to tolerate large- volume infusions:
A

d. Calorie–Dense Formulas

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45
Q

Contain predigested nutrients and provide proteins in the form of small peptides with ease of absorption:

A

Elemental formulas

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46
Q

Formula with low fluid volume and concentrations of potassium, phosphorus, and magnesium:

A

Renal Failure formulas

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47
Q

Formula with a fat content is usually increased to 50% of the total calories, with a corresponding reduction in carbohydrate content to reduce carbon dioxide production is:

A

a. Pulmonary Failure Formulas

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48
Q
  1. Close to 50% of proteins are branched-chain amino acids to reduce aromatic amino acid levels and increase the levels of branched- chain amino acids, which can potentially reverse encephalopathy. These are called:
A

Hepatic Failure Formulas

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49
Q
  1. Enteral feeding access is/are:
A

a. PEG tube
b. NGT
d. Gastrostomy

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50
Q

What is the enteral feeding access that is used for short term but with high risk for aspiration?

A

NGT

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51
Q

What is given through continuous infusion of a hyperosmolar solution containing carbohydrates, proteins, fat, and other necessary nutrients through an indwelling central line catheter?

A

d. Parenteral Nutrition

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52
Q

What is the type of nutritional feeding that requires access to a large-diameter vein to deliver the entire nutritional requirements of the individual?

A

Total Parenteral Nutrition

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53
Q

Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?

A

Vitamin C

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54
Q

Which of the following is a long term complication of parenteral nutrition?

A

Sepsis thru catheter

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55
Q

What is the complication of parenteral nutrition
that that is due to lack of intestinal stimulation,
reduced IgA production and bacterial
overgrowth?

A

Intestinal atrophy

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56
Q

Which of the following statements with regard to diathermy is false?

A

Shave the patient’s hair over the site for the diathermy plate the day before the operation.

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57
Q

In scrubbing, which of the following statement is false?

A

The first scrub of the day should take about 3 min from start to drying.

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58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding D5 0.9% normal saline is true?

A

It has equimolar concentration of
sodium and chloride.

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59
Q

Severe post-traumatic response is detrimental. This can be modified by:

A

careful use of epidural anesthesia instead of general anesthesia

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60
Q

The operating room (OR) should provide an environment that is as free of bacterial contamination as possible. This is achieved by:

A

use of high efficiency particulate filters that can remove bacteria

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61
Q

The operating room (OR) should provide an environment that is as free of bacterial contamination as possible. This is achieved by:

A

use of high efficiency particulate filters that can remove bacteria

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62
Q

What is the most important cause when errors and complications occur in health care?

A

Communicate failures or losses

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63
Q

National Quality from “never events” include:

A

Retained surgical items

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64
Q

What is an example of patient’s disease and its complication?

A

Post-operative abscesses following perforated viscus repair

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65
Q

The failure of communication is therefore a common etiology for what?

A

Poor quality control

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66
Q

What is an error that does not result in patient’s harm?

A

Near Miss

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67
Q

Who is the primary physician provider for surgical patients during management of their disease process?

A

Surgeons

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68
Q
  1. What is the science that promotes the use of evidence –based medicine to minimize the impact of human error on delivery of services?
A

Patient’s Safety

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69
Q

whatis a sentinel event?

A

Injury involves loss of limb or Function

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70
Q

What is the core concept of any effective organization that is the key element to ensuing patient’s safety in the operating room?

A

Strong Teamwork

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71
Q

whatis the main reason why patient contacts for all types of interactions should be recorded?

A

To provide optimal documentation in medical record

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72
Q

Checklist or Briefing:

A

Preprocedure discussion of requirement and special issues of the procedure

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73
Q

“How often are patients harmed?”

A

Outcome

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74
Q

Negligence

A

Care that falls below a recognized standard of care

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75
Q

Sign Outs:

A

dunno

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76
Q

what is a validated survey instrument that can be used to measure a health care setting?

A

Safety Altitude Questionnaire

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of lawsuits in surgery

A

Failure to diagnose or delayed diagnosis

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78
Q
  1. What is the injury caused by medical management rather than the underlying condition of the patient?
A

Adverse Event

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79
Q

What is the most important risk factor for Retained Surgical Sponges?

A

Multiple procedures performed on
same patient

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80
Q

What is the most important process that must be included in the Operating Room briefing?

A

Error prone evaluation

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81
Q

What is the model that identifies three main types of improvements in structure, process and outcome?

A

Donabedian Model

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82
Q

A 70-kg -man with a laceration to the brachial artery loses a total of 800 mL of blood. What ACS (American College of Surgeons) class of hemorrhage would this represent?

A

Class II hemorrhage - 750-1500 mL

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83
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale is very useful in evaluating of consciousness. Which of the following findings is consistent with the score of 8?

A

eye opening to pain(2), inappropriate words(3), decorticate posture(3) = 8

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84
Q

Surgical exploration of the neck in trauma is indicated in:

A

A. radiographic evidence of narrowed mediastinum B. expanding pulsatile hematoma
C. sucking neck wound

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85
Q

A 24 year old male patient was hit by fast moving car. In the emergency room of a hospital, initial physical examination revealed that the patient was disoriented, there was eye opening on verbal stimulation, but obeys commands. Based on the initial GCS, after two hours the patient’s GCS decreased by 3 points. The right pupil became bigger by 2 mm than the left pupil and weakness was noted on the left arm. The injury is most likely due to:

A

epidural hematoma

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86
Q

A 30 year old female was brought to the emergency room after sustaining injuries to the head after being punched. She opens her eyes with painful stimuli (2), is confused (4), and localizes pain (5). What is the Glasgow Coma Score?

A

11

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87
Q

A non bleeding stab wound in the anterior triangle of the neck that has penetrated the platysma should be explored in order not to miss ocult injury even with stable vital signs.

A

True

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88
Q

A patient arrives in the ER following a severe vehicular accident with multiple injuries. Hypotension in this patient is defined as systolic blood pressure less than:

A

110

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89
Q

What are the “ABC’s” of the primary survey

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

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90
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about nasotracheal intubation?

A

is preferred for the unconscious patient without cervical spine injury

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91
Q

Paradoxical rib motion in flail chest will least likely produce: *

A

Increased alveolar oxygen level

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92
Q

Findings suggestive of major vascular injury:

A

R pupil 4mm, L pupil 2mm, weakness L upper extremity

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93
Q

In Von Willebrand’s disease

A

platelet function is depressed

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94
Q

What Glasgow coma scale is considered as moderate head injury? *

A

10

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95
Q

What is the most common indication for intubation in a trauma patient?

A

altered mental status

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96
Q

A male medical student slipped and accidentally fell from a 4 storey boarding house building. He was brought immediately to the emergency room of Iloilo Doctors Hospital. He had multiple fractures in both lower extremity and possibly had compression fracture in the lumbar spines. Initial survey showed that the patients was not breathing. What is the most appropriate and immediate action?

A

cricothyroidotomy

97
Q

A 2 year old female infant came in the emergency room severely dehydrated because of severe diarrhea. The patient was pale, cold and lethargic. The patient was having tachycardia, barely perceptible pulse, sunken eyeballs. Attempt at IV access was unsuccessful. What should be done next?

A

intraosseous catheter insertion

98
Q

Which of the following is required for platelet adherence to exposed areas of an injured blood vessel?

A

von Willebrand factor

99
Q

Hemophilia C is caused by a deficiency of:

A

D. Factor XI

100
Q

Trauma is the most common cause of death for all individuals between the ages of 1 and 44 years In USA?

A

TRUE

101
Q

Following blunt or penetrating trauma to the chest, it is NOT indicated to do an open Thoracotomy in:

A

flail chest

102
Q

Of the following positions, which is preferred for the patient suffering from hypovolemic shock?

A

patient supine with elevation legs only

103
Q

Prompt correction of fluid deficit is essential in treating patients suffering from septic shock. The preferred intravenous fluid to be used is:

A

balanced salt solution

104
Q

The most frequent source of gram negative infections in hospitalized patients is:

A

C. genito-urinary system

105
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the use of steroids in the treatment of septic shock is incorrect?

A

steroids may protect the cells from endotoxins

106
Q

Neurogenic shock is characterized by the presence of:

A

warm skin

107
Q

For control of pain in shock states, the preferred route of administration narcotic analgesic is:

A

intravenous

108
Q

This is not a characteristic of a fully developed hypovolemic shock:

A

bradycardia

109
Q

The earliest manifestations of serious gram negative infections include

A

tachypnea, hypotension and altered sensorium

110
Q

A patient has a blood pressure of 70/50. Cardiac output is 1.9 liters/min and CVP is 2 cm water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

B. cardiogenic shock

111
Q

Hemophilia B is a deficiency in:

A

IX

112
Q

A 30 year old man was stabbed in the epigastric area. In the emergency room, his blood pressure is 80/50mm hg and his neck veins are distended. He is most likely bleeding into the:

A

peritoneal cavity

113
Q

Which of the following drugs used to treat cardiogenic shock has effect on Beta receptors only?

A

dobutamine

114
Q

A 20 year old man was stabbed causing a laceration of his right femoral artery. Upon arrival to the emergency room the estimated blood loss of the patient is about 900 cc. What class of hemorrhage does the patient belong?

A

Class II

115
Q

As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems that oppose further thrombus formation. Which of the following is not a natural anticoagulant?

A

activated protein C

116
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning neurogenic shock?

A

cardiac function is depressed regardless of the level of injury

117
Q

If an abnormal PTT (partial thromboplastin time) is detected, what part of the clotting mechanism is involved?

A

intrinsic pathway

118
Q

The clotting factor which is not present in stored plasma is:

A

factor V

119
Q

The clotting factor which is not present in stored plasma is:

A

factor V

120
Q

Prothrombin time could not be used to evaluate the following clotting factor. *

A

D. Factor IX

121
Q

A potential bleeder is best identified by:

A

complete history and physical examination

122
Q

The mode of inheritance of Hemophilia A is:

A

sex linked recessive

123
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be transmitted by blood transfusion? *

A

viral hepatitis

124
Q

The important aspect of blood compatibility is: *

A

D. donor cell compatible with patient’s serum

125
Q

The following is NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion.

A

a leftward shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

126
Q

Vitamin K is necessary for the formation of:

A

prothrombin

127
Q

Hemolytic transfusion reaction occurring in a patient undergoing major surgery is most often suspected on the basis of :

A

hemoglobinuria

128
Q

A patient has a blood pressure of 70/50. Cardiac output is 1.9 liters/min and CVP is 2 cm water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

cardiogenic shock

129
Q

Which of the blood clotting factors is NOT synthesized by the liver?

A

factor VIII

130
Q

What is the he most common cause of abnormal bleeding encountered in surgical patients?

A

congenital bleeding disorders

131
Q

A 24 year old male patient had a big bruise on the anterior thigh after colliding with a player during a basketball game. After evaluation and reviewing the family history, the attending physician suspected a bleeding problem. The factor VIII level of 8% was obtained. This is considered as:

A

mild hemophilia

132
Q

A 70 kg man receives one unit of platelet transfusion. What is the most likely increase in the circulating platelet count?

A

10,000

133
Q

Following caustic injury to the skin with an alkaline agent the affected area should initially be

A

Treated with running water or saline for 2 hours

134
Q

The area most amenable to salvage by resuscitative and wound management techniques following thermal injury is called

A

Zoneofstasis

135
Q

Tissue ischemia resulting in wounds that area characterized as partial –thickness injury with blister formation is

A

SecondDegree

136
Q

54.A 3mm basal cell carcinoma (BCCA) of the skin should be treated with *

A

excision with 2 to 4 mm margin

137
Q

Trichilemmal cysts

A

c.are typically found in the scalp of females

138
Q

56.More than half of patients treated for BCCA will experience a recurrence within *

A

3 years

139
Q

57.The primary risk factor for the development of squamous cell carcinoma ( SCCA ) is *

A

UV exposure

140
Q

58.In the ABCDE of melanoma , the D stands for diameter greater than *

A

c.6mm

141
Q

The most common distant metastasis for melanoma is

A

lung

142
Q

The most common subtype of melanoma is

A

superficial spreading

143
Q

61.A 22 year old man is brought to the emergency room after a house fire. He has burns around his mouth and his voice is hoarse , but breathing is not labored. What is the most appropriate next step is:

A

Immediate endotracheal intubation

144
Q

62.What percentage burn does a patient have who has suffered burns to 1 lower extremity (circumferential) and the anterior trunk ? *

A

36%

145
Q

63.Which of the following is a common sequelae of
electrical injury ? *

A

brain damage

146
Q

An 8 year old boy was brought to the ER after accidentally touching a hot iron with his forearm . On examination , the burned area was weeping blisters and is very tender to the touch . What is the burn depth ?

A

Second degree

147
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding silver sulfadiazine ?

A

safe to use on full and partial thickness burn wounds , as well as skin grafts

148
Q

66.Successful antibiotic penetration of a burn eschar can be achieved with

A

Silver sulfadiazine

149
Q

67.A 14 year – old girl sustains a steam burn measuring 10 x12 cm over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm . Blisters develop over the entire area of the burn wound , and by the time the patients was seen 6 hours post injury some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously . All of the following therapeutic regimens might be considered appropriate for this patient EXCEPT

A

Heterograft application with sutures to secure it in place and daily wound care

150
Q

A forty two year old 70 kg man sustained multiple flame burns which includes superficial partial thickness burns in the face and neck , circumferential full thickness burn in both upper extremities except the hands , deep partial thickness burn in the anterior aspect of both lower extremities and superficial partial thickness burn half of anterior trunk. What is the the extent of total body surface area involve *

A

54

151
Q

A forty two year old 70 kg man sustained multiple flame burns which includes superficial partial thickness burns in the face and neck , circumferential full thickness burn in both upper extremities except the hands , deep partial thickness burn in the anterior aspect of both lower extremities and superficial partial thickness burn half of anterior trunk. What is the total fluid requirement for 24 hours? *

A

15.12 L

152
Q

A forty two year old 70 kg man sustained multiple flame burns which includes superficial partial thickness burns in the face and neck , circumferential full thickness burn in both upper extremities except the hands , deep partial thickness burn in the anterior aspect of both lower extremities and superficial partial thickness burn half of anterior trunk. What is the fluid requirement in the first 8 hours?

A

7.56 L

153
Q

A forty two year old 70 kg man sustained multiple flame burns which includes superficial partial thickness burns in the face and neck , circumferential full thickness burn in both upper extremities except the hands , deep partial thickness burn in the anterior aspect of both lower extremities and superficial partial thickness burn half of anterior trunk. What is the fluid rate for the first 8 hours? *

A

945 cc /hour

154
Q

A forty two year old 70 kg man sustained multiple flame burns which includes superficial partial thickness burns in the face and neck , circumferential full thickness burn in both upper extremities except the hands , deep partial thickness burn in the anterior aspect of both lower extremities and superficial partial thickness burn half of anterior trunk. What is the fluid requirement in the next 16 hours

A

7560cc

155
Q

Formulas for fluid resuscitation in burn patients *

A

evans, slater, brooke

156
Q

A technique in removing burn eschar in layers until all of the necrotic tissue has been excised and a viable bed is present

A

debridement

157
Q

Which of the following types of melanoma has equal predilection in Caucasian Americans and African Americans?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

158
Q

p photograph since birth. The lesion first became raised at puberty, and she is concerned about its appearance. This patient should be informed that she is at 10 % increased risk for development of

A

melanoma

159
Q

Histologic examination of a biopsy specimen of an expanding hemangioma is most likely to show

A

anomalous vasculature

160
Q

Mohs’ micrographic surgery is most appropriate in the management of which of the following types of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Sclerosing

161
Q

The most sensitive sign in hypovolemic shock is:

A

tachycardia

162
Q

Which level of the axillary lymph nodes is not included in the axillary dissection *

A

3

163
Q

When doing a modified radical mastectomy, the base should include

A

Pectoralis major fascia

164
Q

A 9 year old complained of a tender mass on the periareolar area, you suggest

A

Ultrasound

165
Q

A 25 year old female complained of a tender not well circumscribed doughy mass on the left upper outer quadrant of the breast a week prior to menses on tele-consult, you suggest

A

Self breast exam

166
Q

A 30 year on breast feeding suddenly noted pain, swelling and errythema on the left breast, the first thing that should be done is

A

b. Stop breastfeeding on involved breast

167
Q

The gold standard in the ancillary diagnostics for breast cancer is

A

Mammogram

168
Q

A 50 year old female complained of a 2 cm well-circumscribed movable on-tender mass on the right upper outer quadrant of the breast, you recommend

A

Mammogram

169
Q

The development of the breast during puberty is the response to

A

Increase production of estrogen

170
Q

A 25 year old female complained of a 5 cm fluctuant tender mass on the peri-areolar area noted three days prior to menses, this is managed by *

A

Incision and drainage

171
Q

20 year old complained a 4 cm well circumscribed movable non-tender mass on the lower quadrant of the left breast, you recommend

A

Ultrasound

172
Q

50 year old complained of bloody nipple discharge, this is most likely

A

Ductal papilloma

173
Q

After undergoing excision biopsy, the patient noted a tender cord like structure at the proximity of the incision site, you recommend

A

Re-excision

174
Q

A 35 year old had a needle biopsy of her 7 cm mass which showed high stromal activity and cellular anaplasia and leaf like clefts. Management is *

A

Wide Excision

175
Q

32 year old female diagnosed to have cStage III-B invasive ductal carcinoma, triple negative tumor, this is best managed by

A

Neo-adjuvant radiothrapy

176
Q

34 year old presented with a 2 cm right breast mass with a palpable axillary lymph node on the same side, with mammogram findings of clustered micro-calcification on the mass biopsy is done by

A

Ultrasound guided core needle biopsy of the breast mass

177
Q

Which is NOT part of breast conservation surgery for breast cancer (QuARt)

A

Chemotherapy

178
Q

70 year old female diagnosed to have Invasive Ductal Carcinoma pStage II-B, ER/PR- positive; HER 2/Neu negative should receive what adjuvant treatment

A

Aromatase inhibitor

179
Q

45 year old presented with a 3 cm mass on the right breast, no palpable axillary nodes, core needle biopsy showed Invasive ductal carcinoma, grade 2; Triple positive after neoadjuvant chemotherapy. What is the stage

A

Stage II-A

180
Q

Gene assays like Oncotype DX are done as a predictor of

A

Recurrence

181
Q

Which is a proliferation gene

A

. KI-67

182
Q

Who is considered the Father of Modern Surgery?

A

Joseph Lister

183
Q

In getting a urinalysis the expected microflora should be

A

Gram negative
Gram Positive
Anaerobe
None-answer

184
Q

What prevents the bacteria to proliferate in the small intestines

A

Sucus entericus

185
Q

What prevents the bacteria to proliferate in the small intestines

A

Sucus entericus

186
Q

What is the largest host defense

A

Integument

187
Q

An elevated errythematous tender mass was noted on the forearm with presence of axillary lymph nodes, this is considered

A

Loco-regional spread

188
Q

In combatting the CORONA virus, we are recommended to do regular exercises and sleep at least seven hours a day, what factor is being addressed *

A

Host defence potency

189
Q

After undergoing surgery for multiple gun shot wounds, at the Post anesthesia care (PACU) unit the patient had a T- 39 C, BP- 60/50, CR- 110/min, oliguria and Oxygen saturation of 89%. CBC showed; Hgb 10 and WBC of 20 The patient is having

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

190
Q

55 year old hypertensive diabetic was admitted because of non-healing wound on the left lower leg. Physical examination revealed a presence of purulent and brown-gray watery discharge with crepitus. Which organism is responsible for these findings *

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

191
Q

Patient was seen at the Emergency Room because of dog bite on the face and arm, after doing local wound care and giving anti-rabies and anti-tetanus prophylaxis, these wounds should be closed

A

Secondary intention

192
Q

Patient was brought to the emergency room with multiple abrasions on the knee, and arm due to a motorcycle accident, you would classify the wounds as class:

A

1

193
Q

What class of wound does a patient undergoing open cholecystectomy for Acute Calculous Cholecycstitis

A

2

194
Q

Prophylactic antibiotic should be administered

A

One hour prior to surgery

195
Q

Patient undergoing excision of breast mass, choice of antibiotic is

A

No need

196
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the renin-angiotensin system?

A

Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II primarily in the kidney

197
Q

Following acute blood loss, which of the following will NOT be elevated in the bloodstream?

A

insulin

198
Q

Immediately after wounding, which of the following is not stimulated:

A

D. thyrotropin

199
Q

Metabolic effects of neuroendocrine response to injury does NOT include: *

A

glycogen synthesis

200
Q

Hormone receptors are present on or within the target cells and allow signal transduction to progress intracellularly through the following, except:

A

there is no exception

201
Q

Cytokines are endogenous signals that mainly stimulate:

A

A. local cell proliferation within the wound
B. central nervous system to initiate fever C. production of acute phase proteins

202
Q

The cytokine that oppose the inflammatory process after injury is:

A

Interleukin 10

203
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about Eicosanoids?

A

secrete mainly by lymphocytes

204
Q

The oxidative derivative of arachidonic acid via the lipooxygenase pathway eventually
produce:

A

leukotrienes and HETE

205
Q

Protein loss after injury:

A

is commensurate with the protein catabolism needed to supply energy

206
Q

Which of the following statement is correct regarding IL-1?

A

expression is autoregulated in part

207
Q

During injury the skeletal muscle breakdown predominantly cause the liberation
of which amino acid?

A

Alanine

208
Q

In “catabolic” surgical patients, which of the following changes in body composition do not
occur?

A

A. Lean body mass increases

209
Q

The hormonal alterations that follow operation and injury favor accelerated gluconeogenesis. This new glucose is consumed by which of the following tissues?

A

D. Tissue in the healing wound.

210
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect?

A

Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability.

211
Q

All of the following are the blood supply of the thyroid, except?

A

middle thyroid artery ( from the internal Carotid artery)

212
Q

The left recurrent nerve arise from the vagus nerve and loops around to what structure?

A

Ligamentum Arteriosum

213
Q

RLNs innervate all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except:

A

cricothyroid muscles

214
Q

What is the 1st step in the process of thyroid hormone synthesis?

A

Iodide trapping

215
Q

A phenomenon is which excessively large doses of iodide may lead to initial increased organification followed by suppression

A

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

216
Q

Decreased TSH, Elevated T3 and T4

A

Primary hyperthyroidism

217
Q
  1. A 31 year old female underwent thyroid scan with 2 cm nodule at the right thyroid on Neck UTZ. The scan showed that the nodule trapped less radioactivity than the surrounding gland. What is the term for this nodule?
A

Cold Nodule

218
Q

It is an antithyroid drug that is safe to be given in pregnant patient *

A

PTU

219
Q

What medication you give to hypothyroid patient

A

Levothyroxine

220
Q

Struma lymphomatosa is also known as?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

221
Q

A 40 year old female with a 3cm mass at the left lobe of the thyroid, sought consultation to a surgeon. FNAB was requested which showed follicular neoplasm. What is the risk of malignancy of FN?

A

15-35%

222
Q

The above patient underwent thyroidectomy, final histopath on microscopic view showed cells are cuboidal with pale, abundant cytoplasm, crowded nuclei that may demonstrate “grooving,” and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions (leading to the designation of Orphan Anne nuclie). What will be your diagnosis to this patient?

A

Papillary carcinoma

223
Q

Prior to operation, patient had cough associated with of hyperthyroidism, fever, seizure, and hypertension. What do you call this condition?

A

Thyroid Storm

224
Q

Prior to operation, patient had cough associated with of hyperthyroidism, fever, seizure, and hypertension. What do you call this condition?

What will be the T scoring of the above patient?

A

T2

225
Q

The following are complications of gastroesophageal reflux except

A

Cancer

226
Q

are the anatomic results of disordered motility function

A

Radiographic abnormalities such as segmental spasm, corkscrewing, compartmentalization, and diverticulum

227
Q

The most common type of cancer in the lower esophagus is

A

Adenocarcinoma

228
Q

The most common site of esophageal cancer is at

A

Middle thoracic esophagus

229
Q

The following is/are true regarding esophageal perforation

A

Primary closure of the esophageal perforation should be done early

230
Q

The following is are true regarding caustic injury to the esophagus

A

A. Lyeandalkaliarebestneutralizedbe orange juice , half strength vinegar

231
Q

The following is/are true regarding esophageal hernia.

A

Paraesophageal hernia requires surgery

232
Q

Which of the following caustic agents causes coagulative necrosis of the esophageal mucosa? *

A

Acids

233
Q

Surgery is not initially indicated on the following diaphragmatic hernias

A

Sliding hernia

234
Q

Caustic agent that causes full thickness injury to the esophagus

A

Alkali

235
Q

The following are considered to be secondary to motility disorders of the esophagus.

A

C. Zenker’s Diverticulum

236
Q

Which hormone is produced in the Zona Reticularis of the Adrenal Cortex?

A

Androgens

237
Q

Which drug can cause Cushing’s Disease?

A

Prednisone

238
Q

Pheochromocytoma is usually caused by

A

Malignant adrenal tumor

239
Q

Adrenalectomy is outright recommended for

A

Adrenocorticalcancer