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genetics > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the 2 outermost phosphates of ATP are cleaves to release energy for what

A

formation of a phosphodiester bond

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2
Q

how is a nucleoside different from a nucleotide

A

nucleoside= base+sugar
nucleotide= base+sugar+phosphate

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3
Q

in a nucleotide, the base is connected to what number carbon

A

1

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4
Q

phosphodiester bonds are made between carbons __ and __ on adjacent molecules

A

3 and 5

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5
Q

new nucleotides are always added in the __’ to __’ direction

A

5’-3’

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6
Q

AT has __ H bonds
CG has __ H bonds

A

AT= 2
CG= 3

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7
Q

DNA helix is a hydrophobic or hydrophilic molecule

A

hydrophilic

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8
Q

if a DNA sequence is not marker either 5’-3’ or 3’-5’, it is assumed to be __’ to __’

A

5’-3’

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9
Q

what does Chargaff’s rule tell us

A

% of A= % of T
% of C= % of G

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10
Q

what is an exception to Chargaff’s rule

A

single stranded DNA viruses

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11
Q

is DNA a right or left handed helix

A

right

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12
Q

how many bases are in one complete rotation of a DNA helix

A

10

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13
Q

what form of DNA (A, B, or Z) is most predominant and stable under physiological conditions

A

B

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14
Q

what do prokaryotes and mitochondria do to reduce the size of their genome

A

supercoil

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15
Q

histone proteins are rich in what 2 amino acids

A

arginine
lysine

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16
Q

what histones make up a nucleosome

A

2 each of:
H2A
H2B
H3
H4

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17
Q

what is the function of H1

A

caps nucleosome and joins nucleosomes together

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18
Q

heterochromatin vs euchromatin appearance under microscope

A

heterochromatin- dark
euchromatin- light

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19
Q

in histone proteins, which amino acid is most often methylated

A

lysine

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20
Q

does acetylation or methylation cause genes to be turned on

A

acetylation
“acetylation= active”

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21
Q

origins of replication are rich in what DNA sequences, AT or CG

A

AT

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22
Q

how many origins of replication do prokaryotes have

A

1

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23
Q

how many origins or replication do eukaryotes have

A

many

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24
Q

new DNA is always made ‘-’

A

5’ to 3’

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25
Q

what enzyme separates double stranded DNA at the replication fork

A

DNA helicase

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26
Q

what is the function of single stranded DNA binding proteins

A

keeps the 2 strands of DNA separate

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27
Q

what is the difference between positive and negative supercoiling

A

positive supercoiling occurs ahead of the replication form
negative supercoiling occurs behind the replication fork

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28
Q

what is the function of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)

A

releases mechanical stress and tension

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29
Q

what is the function of DNA ligase

A

joins Okazaki fragments on lagging strand

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30
Q

what is the function of RNA primase

A

adds a primer to initiate new strand synthesis

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31
Q

what is the function of DNA polymerase I

A

replace RNA primer with DNA

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32
Q

what is the function of DNA polymerase III

A

main replicating enzyme

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33
Q

what enzyme removes RNA primers in eukaryotes

A

RNAase H

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34
Q

in prokaryotes, what DNA polymerase can proofread

A

I, II, and III

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35
Q

in eukaryotes, what DNA polymerase can proofread

A

delta
epsilon

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36
Q

with DNA proofreading, there needs to be what type of activity

A

3’-5’ exonuclease

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37
Q

what prokaryotic DNA polymerase can also remove bases in front of it since it has 5’-3’ exonuclease activity

A

DNA polymerase I

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38
Q

what is the function of telomerase

A

extends the 3’ end using an internal RNA guide

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39
Q

what type of enzyme is telomerase (DNA dependent DNA polymerase or RNA dependent DNA polymerase)

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

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40
Q

what amino acids can form dimers as a result of UV light

A

cysteine
thymine

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41
Q

how are thymine/cysteine dimers corrected

A

nucleotide excision repair

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42
Q

when in the cell cycle does nucleotide excision repair occur

A

G1

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43
Q

what class of enzyme performs nucleotide excision repair

A

endonuclease

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44
Q

a common example of base excision repair is due to cysteine spontaneously becoming ___

A

uracil

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45
Q

when in the cell cycle does base excision repair occur

A

G1

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46
Q

how does base excision repair work

A

base is removed, not deoxyribose or sugar, leaving an AP site
AP endonuclease recognizes this and removes the deoxyribose and sugar
missing base is replaced by DNA poly I (prokaryotes) or DNA poly beta (eukaryotes)
DNA ligase creates new phosphodiester bond

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47
Q

when in the cell cycle does mismatch repair occur

A

G2

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48
Q

what are microsatellite DNA sequences

A

short repeated sequences of 2, 3, or 4 bases

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49
Q

how are microsatellite DNA sequences used in cancer

A

mismatch repair has failed, microsatellite sequences have different lengths compared to nearby noncancerous tissue (microsatellite instability)

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50
Q

where in the cell cycle does DNA proofreading occur

A

S

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51
Q

are catabolic or anabolic genes normally on

A

anabolic

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52
Q

what does it mean to say catabolic genes are inducible

A

they’re normally off

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53
Q

in codons, each coding region has an individual __ and __ codon

A

start
stop

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54
Q

the lactose operon metabolizes __ into __ and __

A

lactose into glucose and galactose

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55
Q

what genes must be expressed in the prokaryotic lactose operon

A

lacA, lacY, lacZ

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56
Q

when are the lacA, lacY, and lacZ genes expressed in prokaryotes

A

presence of lactose, absence of glucose

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57
Q

what genes are involved in E.coli lac operon

A

LacI, LacZ, LacY, LacA

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58
Q

what does LacI do

A

make repressor protein that binds to operator, keeping operon off
always on

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59
Q

what does LacZ do

A

cleaves lactose by producing beta-galactosidase

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60
Q

what does LacY do

A

transports lactose into cell

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61
Q

what happens with the lac operon when lactose is present

A

lactose bind repressor protein causing a conformational change, removing it from the operator

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62
Q

what is a mechanism of lac operon control that involves RNA polymerase

A

if there is a change in sequence at -10 and -35 where RNA polymerase normally binds, RNA polymerase binds with more difficulty, reducing gene expression

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63
Q

what is diauxic growth

A

preferred way of bacteria to metabolize glucose rather than lactose

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64
Q

what must e.coli do to achieve diauxic growth

A

turn off lac operon if glucose is present in the cell

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65
Q

do e.coli prefer to use glucose or lactose

A

glucose

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66
Q

why do e.coli prefer to use glucose before lactose

A

glucose is an simple molecule, lactose is disaccharide that must be broken down

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67
Q

what gene must be turned off by bacteria in high glucose environment in order to metabolize glucose rather than lactose

A

ZYA (lacZ+Y+A)

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68
Q

low glucose= __(high/low) ATP= __(high/low) cAMP=__(stabilize/destabilize) RNA polymerase= ZYA (lacZ+Y+A genes) __(on/off)

A

low
high
stabilize
on

Low glucose= break down lactose

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69
Q

with the lac operon, under low glucose conditions, cAMP is __ and binds __ protein

A

high
CRP
*CRP is added under low glucose conditions
low glucose=low ATP=high cAMP

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70
Q

does cAMP with CRP in bacteria allow or inhibit transcription

A

allow

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71
Q

in low glucose environment, is ZYA turned on or off

A

on

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72
Q

is the trp operon on or off with no tryptophan present

A

on

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73
Q

what do the ZYA genes make proteins to do

A

degrade lactose

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74
Q

if tryptophan is present, it will bind to the trp repressor, enabling it to bind to trp operator, preventing or allowing transcription

A

preventing

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75
Q

what does the attenuator in the trp operon do

A

detects whether trp is available and working in the cell

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76
Q

what is located between the operator and the 1st structural gene in the trp operon

A

leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA

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77
Q

under high trp concentration, ribosome translates through trp codons and covers sections __ and __ of leader sequence

A

1 and 2

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78
Q

as a result of ribosome covering sections 1 and 2, sections __ and __ fold with rho-__ (dependent or independent) transcription. no new trp is synthesized

A

3 and 4
independent

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79
Q

if there is a fold in sections 2 and 3 of trp operon leader sequence, trp levels are __ (high or low), causing an __(increase/decrease) in trp transcription

A

low
increase

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80
Q

what are the 3 types of mRNA that participate in protein synthesis

A

mRNA
rRNA
tRNA

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81
Q

what RNA polymerase produces rRNA

A

I

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82
Q

what RNA polymerase produces mRNA

A

II

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83
Q

what RNA polymerase produces tRNA

A

III

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84
Q

is the top strand of DNA non-template (coding/sense) or template (non-coding/antisense)

A

non-template

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85
Q

is the bottom strand of DNA non-template (coding/sense) or template (non-coding/antisense)

A

template

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86
Q

in what direction is non-template/coding/sense strand, 3’-5’ or 5’-3’

A

5’-3’

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87
Q

in what direction is template/non-coding/antisense strand, 3’-5’ or 5’-3’

A

3’-5’

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88
Q

the mRNA and ___ (template or nontemplate) strand are complimentary to each other

A

non-template coding (5’-3’ strand)

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89
Q

what binds to the promoter DNA sequence

A

RNA polymerase

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90
Q

what sequence is the promoter DNA sequence

A

TATA

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91
Q

where is the promoter sequence (TATA box) located

A

5’ (upstream) at -10

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92
Q

at what location is the first base to be transcribed

A

+1

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93
Q

what are the 3 stages of transcription of DNA to RNA by RNA polymerase

A

initiation
elongation
termination

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94
Q

in prokaryotes, what binds TATA at -10 and -35

A

sigma protein

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95
Q

in eukaryotes, what binds TATA at -25 and -70

A

TFIID (TBP)

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96
Q

where are the RNA polymerase binding sites in prokaryotes

A

-10
-35

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97
Q

where are the RNA polymerase binding sites in eukaryotes

A

-25
-70

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98
Q

what are the subunits of prokaryotic RNA polymerase (sigma)

A

alpha, alpha, beta, beta prime, wo, sigma

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99
Q

once transcribing, does sigma remain or dissociate from RNA polymerase

A

dissociate

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100
Q

once transcribing, does TBP remain or dissociate from RNA polymerase

A

remain

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101
Q

does RNA polymerase use the top or bottom strand as a template

A

bottom

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102
Q

what provides energy for the formation of a new phosphodiester bond during elongation of transcription

A

release of terminal 2 phosphates from ATP

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103
Q

the RNA has the same sequence as the top or bottom DNA strand (except U for T)

A

top

104
Q

how is transcription ended in prokaryotes

A

formation of a hairpin loop due to a palindrome sequence stops RNA polymerase

105
Q

what is prokaryotic Rho dependent transcription termination

A

when RNA polymerase is stalled on a hairpin loop, Rho catches up and displaces RNA polymerase from the DNA helix

106
Q

what is prokaryotic Rho independent transcription termination

A

RNA polymerase is stalled on a hairpin loop on a sequence that is rich in unstable AU, causing release of RNA polymerase

107
Q

where do ribosomes of prokaryotes bind on mRNA

A

shine delgarno sequence 5’ to AUG

108
Q

what sequence makes up the poly-A tail

A

AAUAAA

109
Q

what is pre-mRNA (hnRNA)

A

unprocessed mRNA containing introns and exons

110
Q

what 2 forms of processing does mRNA undergo

A

poly-A tail to 3’ end
7-methyl guanine cap to 5’ end

111
Q

what are snRNPs

A

proteins that combine to form a spliceosome

112
Q

how are introns of mRNA removed

A

spliced out

113
Q

where are spliceosomes located

A

nucleus

114
Q

what are the bases of the start and end of a spliceosome

A

start= GU
end= AG

115
Q

what is alternative splicing

A

exons and introns can be removed to produce different proteins from one gene

116
Q

can mRNA be edited after transcription

A

yes, bases can be inserted, deleted, or changed

117
Q

what is an example of RNA editing with the addition of a stop signal

A

apolipoprotein B (B100) in the liver and VLDL and apolipoprotein B (B48) in the intestines

118
Q

what is the function of p-bodies

A

store or degrade mRNA

119
Q

what are the sizes of rRNA in prokaryotes

A

70S–50S, 30S
23S
16S

120
Q

what are the sizes of rRNA in eukaryotes

A

80S–60S, 40S
28S

121
Q

where is the location of ribosome production and assembly

A

nucleolus

122
Q

what ribosomes act as ribozymes

A

23S (prokaryotes)
28S (eukaryotes)

123
Q

how do 23S and 28S act as ribozymes

A

act as peptidyl transferases connecting 2 amino acids

124
Q

what end of tRNA, 5’ or 3’, has amino acid bound

A

3’

125
Q

what does the 3’ anticodon sequence of tRNA bind to

A

mRNA codon in ribosome P site

126
Q

what are microRNAs

A

short single stranded RNA molecules that bind to mRNA transcripts that need to be degraded or inhibited from translation

127
Q

what are small interfering RNAs

A

short single stranded RNA molecules involved in post-transcription gene silencing

128
Q

what is the start codon

A

AUG

129
Q

what amino acid does the start codon code for

A

Met

130
Q

what are the 3 stop codons

A

UAA, UGA, UAG

131
Q

where does transcription occur in prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

pro- cytoplasm
eu- nucleus

132
Q

where does translation occur in prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

pro- cytoplasm
eu- cytoplasm

133
Q

what type of bonds form between amino acids

A

peptide

134
Q

what allows for wobble

A

third codon base can be mismatched

135
Q

what are the 10 essential amino acids

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine

Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine

136
Q

why are certain amino acids said to be essential

A

we must obtain them from out diet

137
Q

amino acids are added to the correct tRNA by what enzyme

A

amino acyl tRNA synthetase

138
Q

what is the difference between the ribosome A vs P vs E site

A

A= amino acids arrive
P= polypeptides are pinned (growth)
E= tRNA exits

139
Q

what is the function of peptidyl transferase

A

create peptide bonds between amino acids

140
Q

how does translation begin in prokaryotes

A

small ribosomal subunit binds to Shine Delgarno sequence than large subunit binds with tRNA in P site

141
Q

what is the function of 16S rRNA

A

binds to Shine Delgarno sequence

142
Q

how does translation begin in eukaryotes

A

tRNA binds to ribosome small subunit and 5’ cap then scans towards 3’ to the first AUG
large subunit then binds with tRNA in P site

143
Q

what does eIF2 (eukaryotic initiation factor 2) do

A

binds GTP and initiator Met-tRNA, then to 40S

144
Q

what does eEF1 (eukaryotic elongation factor 1) do

A

binds GTP and promotes binding of tRNA to A site

145
Q

what does eEF2 (eukaryotic elongation factor 2) do

A

binds GTP and promotes translocation of polypeptide chain from A to P site

146
Q

how does translation end

A

a stop codon is reached in the A site causing a release factor to be released

147
Q

how much energy is required for each AA addition

A

2 ATP to join tRNA to AA in amino acyl tRNA synthase
1 GTP to add tRNA-AA to ribosome with eEF1
1 GTP to move ribosome one codon along mRNA with eEF2

148
Q

what are polysomes

A

many ribosomes are translating a single mRNA at the same time

149
Q

what molecule ensures the correct folding of newly translated proteins

A

chaperonin

150
Q

what molecule marks proteins for destruction by proteosome

A

ubiquitin

151
Q

what is a transversion

A

a change between purine and pyrimidine

152
Q

what is a transition

A

a change to another purine/pyrimidine

153
Q

what is a silent mutation

A

no change in AA/base

154
Q

what is a missense mutation

A

changes AA

155
Q

what is a nonsense mutation

A

creates a stop codon

156
Q

what is a frameshift mutation

A

adds or removes nonmultiple of 3 bases

157
Q

what is co-expression

A

both normal and mutated versions of the gene are expressed

158
Q

what is an example of co-expression

A

sickle cell

159
Q

how does a translated protein get to the correct part of the cell

A

first 7-8 AA in the protein are sigal sequences that direct the protein
next 7-8 are another signal sequence, and continued

160
Q

what are important signals that direct a protein to the lysosome

A

phosphorylation of mannose

161
Q

what is the function of proteolysis

A

cleavage of a protein to activate it

162
Q

what are 3 examples of proteolysis

A

proinsulin
prothrombin
trypsinogen

163
Q

what is prenylation

A

addition of lipids

164
Q

what is gamma carboxylation

A

adds COOH

165
Q

what is N-linked glycosylation

A

sugar binds amino group of asparagine

166
Q

what is O-linked glycosylation

A

sugar binds hydroxyl group of serine or threonine

167
Q

enzymes destined for the lysosome undergo phosphorylation in the __ to create __

A

golgi
mannose-6-phosphate

168
Q

what happens with failure to create mannose-6-phosphate

A

accumulation o inclusion bodies

169
Q

collagen is made of repeating units of ___

A

Gly-Pro-Hydroxyproline

170
Q

what is required as a co-factor for proline hydroxylation in collagen formation

A

vitamin C

171
Q

the cleavage of end terminals of procollagen is performed by what enzyme

A

procollagen peptidase

172
Q

helicase crosslinks of collagen fibrils is performed by what enzyme and helped by what 2 cofactors

A

lysyl oxidase
copper, O2

173
Q

what is anticipation

A

errors in DNA due to multiple trinucleotide repeats leads to:
1. increase in number of repeats
2. increased severity
3. early onset of symptoms

174
Q

does acetylation produce euchromatin or heterochromatin

A

euchromatin

175
Q

what enzyme adds or removes an acetyl group to histones

A

histone acyl transferase (HAT)

176
Q

what is an example of chromatin remodeling

A

addition of acetyl groups

177
Q

what enzyme is typically acetylated or deacetylated

A

Lysine

178
Q

addition of acetyl groups increases or decreases transcription

A

increases

179
Q

what regions of DNA are prone to methylation

A

CpG islands
(C phosphodiester G)

180
Q

EF2 is an example of what

A

transcription factor control

181
Q

what 4 molecule stops the action of E2F, stopping the cell cycle

A

hypophosphorylated Rb
inactive CDK2
active p51
active p53

182
Q

increased __ induces p21, which inactivates __= no G1/S progression

A

p53
CDK2

183
Q

enhancer and silencer DNA sequences are said to be __, while transcription factors are said to be __

A

cis-acting
trans-acting

184
Q

what needs to happen for something to be considered a transcription factor

A

bind DNA to one end and protein to the other end

185
Q

what are 4 examples of transcription factors with binding domains

A

leucine zipper
zinc finger
helix-loop-helix
helix turn helix

186
Q

what differs a helix-turn-helix from helix-loop-helix

A

number of amino acids between adjacent helices

187
Q

how does a zinc finger work

A

Zn has a high + charge (+2) which attracts - bits, changing the shape of the protein, allowing the protein to bind to the DNA helix

188
Q

what is the function of peroxisome proliferator activated receptors (PPARs)

A

regulate lipid metabolism

189
Q

what protein class are peroxisome proliferator activated receptors (PPARs)

A

zinc finger

190
Q

what is an example of a specific transcription factor binding an enhancer or silencer DNA sequence

A

cAMP response element binding (CREB)

191
Q

High __ (low blood sugar) stimulates PEPCK and enables synthesis of glucose by gluconeogenesis

A

glucagon

192
Q

the cortisol receptor enters the nucleus and binds glucocorticoid response elements (GRE) , inducing __ transcription and the process of __

A

PEPCK
gluconeogenesis

193
Q

what do homeotic genes code for

A

transcription factors that control body development

194
Q

what is the coding region sequence called that is contained in a homeotic gene

A

homeobox

195
Q

what is a homeodomain

A

an amino acid sequence encoded by a homeobox sequence

196
Q

can a protein with homeodomain bind DNA

A

yes

197
Q

what type of effects do mutations in homeotic genes cause

A

developmental

198
Q

Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) is an example of a homeotic genes which is essential for __, __, and __

A

embryonic development
CNS development
body part location

199
Q

mutation in SHH (sonic hedgehog) can cause what

A

cerebral hemispheres to remain together

200
Q

using 2 different promoters is a way to control what

A

gene expression

201
Q

what are 2 diseases caused by a chromosomal micro-deletion on chromosome 15

A

Prader-Willi syndrome
Angelman syndrome

202
Q

what is imprinting

A

the specific methylation of chromosomes

203
Q

what does DICER do

A

cleave dsRNA into 21-22 nucleotide fragments

204
Q

what does RISC do

A

binds to an mRNA, cleaves, prevents it’s expression

205
Q

does the active or inactive version of E2F turn on genes for DNA replication

A

active

206
Q

what transcription factor is activated by low blood glucose levels and stimulates the transcription of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase gene

A

CREB

207
Q

what transcription factor is activated by high stress levels and stimulates the transcription of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase gene

A

cortisol

208
Q

homeotic gene transcription factor proteins bind DNA by what

A

homeodomain

209
Q

chromosome 15q11 in females normally contains a methylated and inactivated ___ gene

A

SNRPN

210
Q

chromosome 15q11 in males usually contains a methylated and inactivated __ gene

A

UBE3A

211
Q

what molecule needs to be present in high concentration in order for RNA polymerase to bind to the lac operon promoter

A

cAMP

212
Q

in lineweaver burk if the x-axis moves to the right, Km __ (increases or decreases) and the enzyme has a __ (higher or lower) affinity for substrate

A

increases
lower

213
Q

in lineweaver burk plot, if the y axis moves up, Vmax __ (increases or decreases)

A

decreases

214
Q

statins act as a competitive inhibitor for HMG-CoA reductase that converts hydroxymethyglutaryl-CoA to ___

A

mevalonate

215
Q

methotrexate interferes with DNA replication in what part of the cell cycle

A

S

216
Q

where is hexokinase found

A

all cells

217
Q

where is glucokinase mostly found

A

liver cells

218
Q

is the Km of hexokinase for glucose higher or lower than glucokinase

A

lower

219
Q

is the affinity of hexokinase for glucose higher or lower than glucokinase

A

higher

220
Q

is the Vmax of hexokinase with glucose higher or lower than glucokinase

A

lower

221
Q

what is recombinant DNA

A

the joining of DNA from different sources to facilitate new expression and transfer

222
Q

what is a vector

A

a molecular transfer molecule (ex: plasmid)

223
Q

in recombinant DNA, the source DNA is usually present in a large or small amount

A

small

224
Q

what are the 5 steps to recombinant DNA

A
  1. isolate DNA, ligate into vector
  2. transfer vector to host cell
  3. grow host cells in vitro
  4. isolate/grow one cell line of interest
  5. recover DNA
225
Q

what are 3 steps of the method behind the human genome project

A
  1. cut human DNA into small fragments using restriction enzymes
  2. insert fragments into cloning vectors (plasmids)
  3. assemble sequences to form genome
226
Q

what do restriction enzymes recognize

A

palindromic DNA sequences

227
Q

are restriction enzymes endonucleases or exonucleases

A

endonucleases

228
Q

a sticky end restriction enzyme cuts the palindrome sequence symmetrically or asymmetrically

A

asymmetrically

229
Q

a blunt end restriction enzyme cuts the palindrome sequence symmetrically or asymmetrically

A

symmetrically

230
Q

what is a common DNA palindrome for restriction enzymes

A

GAATTC
CTTAAG

231
Q

what are sticky ends

A

overhangs following activity of a restriction enzyme cut

232
Q

what are blunt ends

A

ends of DNA with no overhang following activity of restriction enzyme cut

233
Q

what enzyme cuts the palindrome GAATTC
CTTAAG

A

EcoR1

234
Q

if 2 pieces of DNA are cut with the same restriction enzyme, can the DNA re-anneal

A

yes

235
Q

what is the size of the entire genome

A

3 billion

236
Q

what is a genomic library

A

a collection of restriction fragments that represent the entire genome of the organism of interest

237
Q

how do you make a genomic library

A

cut source DNA
stick it into plasmid
plasmid goes into bacteria

238
Q

what does reverse transcriptase do

A

copies mRNA into cDNA (copy DNA)

239
Q

where does cDNA (copy DNA) come from

A

from mRNA that is present in the cells at that time

240
Q

does cDNA contain introns

A

no

241
Q

what doe a cDNA library represent

A

the entire mRNA that is being expressed

242
Q

what is the difference between genomic library and cDNA library

A

promotors, enhancer, introns are not in a cDNA library

243
Q

what enzyme is used to make a genomic library

A

restriction endonuclease

244
Q

what enzyme is used to make a cDNA library

A

reverse transcriptase

245
Q

which library, genomic or cDNA, contains nonexpressed sequences of chromosomes

A

genomic

246
Q

which library, genomic or cDNA, contains complete sequences of clones genes

A

cDNA

247
Q

which library, genomic or cDNA, contains introns

A

genomic

248
Q

which library, genomic or cDNA, contain promoter sequences

A

genomic

249
Q

which library, cDNA or genomic, contains protein coding regions

A

both

250
Q

what 3 things can recombinant genes be inserted into

A

mutant cells
bacteria cells for therapy, vaccines, or monoclonal antibodies
viruses

251
Q

what are 4 different vectors that can be used for gene therapy

A

adeno-associated virus (AAV)
retrovirus
adenovirus
liposome

252
Q

what type of genome do adeno-associated viruses have

A

ssDNA

253
Q

what type of genome do retroviruses contain

A

RNA genome

254
Q

what is gene therapy

A

introduction of a normal replacement gene into the defective genome

255
Q

what is in-vivo vs ex-vivo (in-vitro)

A

in-vivo- directly add virus into patient
ex-vivo- cells from patient mixed with virus then put back in patient

256
Q

what are the 3 types of DNA sequences that would be found in the cDNA library

A

5’ UTR
3’ UTR
exons

genetics (4 decks)

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