Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the general size scale of prokaryotes in micrometers

A

5

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2
Q

what is the general size scale of eukaryotic cells in micrometers

A

10

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3
Q

what are bacteriophages

A

viruses that infect bacteria

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4
Q

what are the 3 classes/shapes of viruses that can infect human cells

A

nonenveloped icosahedral
enveloped icosahedral
nonenveloped helical

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5
Q

in nonenveloped icosahedral viruses, what is used to attach to the surface of the host cell

A

capsomere protein

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6
Q

in enveloped icosahedral viruses, what is used to attach to the surface of the host cell

A

glycoprotein

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7
Q

in enveloped viruses, where does the envelope come from

A

the previous host cell

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8
Q

are enveloped or nonenveloped viruses more stable

A

nonenveloped

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9
Q

what are the 7 steps of virus replication

A
  1. attach
  2. penetrate
  3. uncoat (acidify vacuole)
  4. early mRNA synthesis (proteins to shut off host cell and replicate viral genome) and late mRNA synthesis (capsomeres and glycoproteins)
  5. posttranslational modification
  6. assembly of new virus
  7. release (nonenveloped by lysis, enveloped by budding)
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10
Q

what type of viral genome does the human immune system recognize

A

dsRNA

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11
Q

where do viruses with DNA genomes typically replicate

A

nucleus

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12
Q

where do viruses with RNA genome typically replicate

A

cytoplasm

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13
Q

what is the difference between + and - sense RNA

A

+ is in the proper orientation to be translated
- is in the opposite orientation

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14
Q

what does TLR4 recognize

A

lipid A of gram - bacteria

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15
Q

what does TLR3 recognize

A

virus (dsRNA)
located inside cell (not on surface)

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16
Q

what does TLR1:TLR2 recognize

A

bacterial lipoproteins

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17
Q

what are features of gram + bacteria

A

thick peptidoglycan
lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
stains purple with gram stain

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18
Q

what does TLR2 and TLR6 recognize

A

bacterial lipopeptides

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19
Q

what does NOD2 recognize

A

NAM

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20
Q

what are 5 features of gram - bacteria

A

outer membrane (outer= lipopolysaccharide made of lipid A and polysaccharide, inner= phospholipids)
thin peptidoglycan
porin proteins
periplasmic space between cell wall and outer membrane and plasma membrane and cell wall
stains pink with gram stain

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21
Q

how does the gram stain work

A

bacteria with thick cell walls (gram +) are able to hold the color tighter, showing a darker color (purple)

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22
Q

what type of bacteria can be visualized with Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

acid fast

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23
Q

in Zeihl-Neelsen stain, acid fast bacteria stain what color

A

pink

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24
Q

what type of bacteria can form a capsule

A

gram + and -

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25
Q

what are the advantages of forming a capsule

A

avoid phagocytosis
protection against drying out
inhibition of effective immune response

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26
Q

are biofilms made by a single bacteria or groups of bacteria

A

groups

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27
Q

what additional advantages does biofilm formation have over capsule formation

A

antibiotic and antiseptic resistance

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28
Q

what does the prefix strepto- mean

A

chain

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29
Q

what does the prefix staphylo- mean

A

cluster

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30
Q

how are spirochete bacteria visualized

A

darkfield microscopy

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31
Q

monotrichous vs amphitrichous vs lophotrichous vs peritrichous

A

mono- one flagellum from one end
amphi- flagella on both poles
lopho- flagella from one side
peri- flagella all around

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32
Q

what does TLR5 recognize

A

flagellin

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33
Q

bacterial flagella are composed of a basal body attached to a flagellin filament. the innermost ring is attached to a mot protein. what does this mot protein resemble

A

ATP synthase

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34
Q

what causes a bacterial flagellum to spin

A

proton gradient

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35
Q

bacteria flagella spin counterclockwise and clockwise. what type of movement occurs when it is spinning clockwise vs counterclockwise

A

clockwise- tumble
counterclockwise- run

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36
Q

what is the type 3 secretion system used by bacteria for

A

uses a “needle” to inject proteins that restructure actin in host cells

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37
Q

the type 3 secretion system for injecting proteins is used by gram + or - bacteria

A

-

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38
Q

what are pili (fimbriae)

A

flexible extensions through the cell envelope that allows bacterial to attach, pull, then contract, pulling it along a surface

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39
Q

what are the 5 steps of bacterial cell division

A
  1. replicate DNA
  2. make new cell envelope material in the middle of the cell, cell lengthens
  3. pinch at septum with FtsZ
  4. new cell envelope material is made at septum where FtsZ is attached
  5. cell divides into 2
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40
Q

what occurs during the lag phase of a bacterial growth curve

A

cell adjusts and preps for division

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41
Q

what occurs during the log (exponential) phase of bacterial growth curve

A

cell division

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42
Q

where on the bacterial growth curve is generation time measured

A

mid log phase

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43
Q

what occurs during the stationary phase of bacterial growth curve

A

bacteria start running low on nutrients
toxic byproducts increase
replication stops
# of new bacteria=# of old bacteria

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44
Q

where on the bacterial growth curve are autolysins expressed

A

stationary phase

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45
Q

what occurs during the decline (death) phase of bacterial growth curve

A

nutrients decrease
toxic byproducts increase
autolysis

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46
Q

what are the 5 spore formation steps

A
  1. replicate DNA
  2. cytoplasm divides, PM folds over creating double membrane over replicated DNA
  3. peptidoglycan deposited between layers
  4. protein coat of dipicolinate deposited
  5. cell lyses, releasing spore
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47
Q

why do spore forming bacteria appear pink with gram stain when all spore forming bacteria are gram + rods

A

peptidoglycan was transferred to the spore

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48
Q

what stain allows direct visualization of spores

A

malachite green

49
Q

during which phase of the bacterial growth curve are sporulation genes expressed at the highest

A

end of stationary

50
Q

during which phase of the growth curve would there be the most spores

A

end of decline (death)

51
Q

all human and pathogen bacteria are what class of bacterial

A

mesophiles

52
Q

as you increase temperature, what happens to the content of AT vs CG

A

increase temp= more CG

53
Q

as you increase temperature, what happens to the concentration of saturated vs unsaturated fats

A

increase temp= increase saturated fats

54
Q

as you increase temperature, what happens to alpha helix vs beta sheet structure

A

increase temp= more beta sheets

55
Q

what are obligate aerobes

A

require oxygen

56
Q

what are obligate anaerobes

A

can’t have oxygen

57
Q

what are facultative anaerobes

A

prefer oxygen but can live without

58
Q

what are aerotolerant anaerobes

A

tolerate but don’t use oxygen

59
Q

what are microaerophiles

A

use small amount of oxygen

60
Q

what are the only anaerobe/aerobe class that is not catalase positive

A

obligate ananaerobes

61
Q

aerobes use cellular respiration (aerobic respiration). anaerobes use __

A

fermentation

62
Q

what are capnophiles

A

need CO2 (5-10%) to grow

63
Q

what does catalase do

A

breaks down free radicals (hydrogen peroxide)

64
Q

what is the purpose of a catalase test

A

used to visualize if bacteria form bubbles
bubbles are O2 as a result of catalase= aerobic bacteria

65
Q

is anaerobic or aerobic respiration more efficient for generating ATP

A

aerobic

66
Q

where does cellular respiration take place in eukaryotes

A

mitochondria

67
Q

where does cellular respiration take place in prokaryotes

A

plasma membrane

68
Q

what is always a product of fermentation

A

acid

69
Q

besides acid, what are 2 other possible products of fermentation

A

gas
alcohol

70
Q

what does phenyl red visualize

A

a change in pH as a result of fermentation

71
Q

what is the color change produced with phenyl red

A

pH 7= red
acidic pH= yellow

72
Q

what does it mean if phenyl red turned yellow

A

the bacteria uses fermentation, as an acid was produced, lowering pH

73
Q

what does a durham tube allow us to visualize about bacteria

A

if a gas was produced, liquid will be displaced by a gas bubble

74
Q

what does it mean if gas was produced in a durham tube

A

the bacteria uses fermentation, as gas is a byproduct of fermentation

75
Q

what does it mean for a bacteria to be alpha-hemolytic

A

bacteria grows, partially lyses RBC

76
Q

what does it mean for a bacteria to be beta-hemolytic

A

bacteria grows, completely lyses RBC

77
Q

what does it mean for bacteria to be gamma-hemolytic

A

bacteria grows, doesn’t lyse RBC

78
Q

satellite colonies grow only nearby other bacteria growth. what does this tell us

A

they need RBC to grow but can’t lyse them

79
Q

what is chocolate agar used for

A

it contains RBC that have already been lysed to allow bacteria that need hemin from RBC to grow but can’t lyse RBC on their own

80
Q

what are plasmids

A

small circles of DNA that can be shared among bacteria

81
Q

what types of genes are often on plasmids

A

antibiotic resistance
virulence factors

82
Q

what is bacterial natural transformation

A

bits of DNA in the extracellular environment are taken up and incorporated into the cell’s chromosome

83
Q

what enzyme is required whenever a piece of DNA is incorporated into a chromosome

A

recombinase

84
Q

what gene is required whenever a piece of DNA is incorporated into a chromosome

A

recA

85
Q

what is bacterial artificial transformation

A

construction of a plasmid with a gene scientists want a bacterium to express and forcing the bacteria to take up the plasmid

86
Q

can bacterial transformation (natural and artificial) be done with gram +, -, or both

A

both

87
Q

what is bacterial conjugation

A

a plasmid from a donor cell is transferred to a plasmid - recipient

88
Q

what bacterial can perform conjugation

A

gram - due to involvement of pili

89
Q

genes located where on a plasmid are most likely to be shared during conjugation

A

near the OriP (plasmid origin of replication)

90
Q

what is a high frequency of recombination plasmid (Hfr)

A

a plasmid with a palindrome that allows it to switch back and forth from being an independent plasmid to being incorporated into the bacterial chromosome
*when the plasmid comes out of the chromosome, it brings with it a piece of bacterial chromosome which may be transferred by conjugation

91
Q

in what type of bacterial genetic exchange must the donor be alive

A

conjugation

92
Q

in what type of bacterial genetic exchange must the DNA donor and recipient be closely related

A

conjugation
transduction

93
Q

a phage that is only ever lytic is called a __ phage

A

virulent

94
Q

what is the lytic cycle of a phage

A

phage turns bacteria into a virus assembly factory

95
Q

what is the CRISPR-Cas system of bateria

A

immune system of phages
phage injects DNA, DNA is cut by Cas, palindrome fragment added to library of phage DNA to compare to in the future

96
Q

what is the lysogenic cycle of a phage

A

phage DNA is incorporated into bacterial chromosome and suppressed lytic phage genes so bacterial cell is not harmed

97
Q

a phage that can be lysogenic is called a ___ phage

A

temperate

98
Q

what is lysogenic induction

A

triggering of a temperate phage to switch from lysogenic to lytic

99
Q

what is a cause of lysogenic conversion

A

high population of bacteria

100
Q

what stage of the bacterial growth curve does lysogenic conversion occur

A

end of log (exponential) due to increase in bacterial population size

101
Q

what is bacterial generalized transduction

A

bacteriophage injects DNA and replicates
during assembly, some bacteriophages take in bacterial DNA instead of viral DNA
bacteriophage infects a new recipient
bacterial DNA that was taken up is incorporated into new bacteria chromosome

102
Q

what is bacterial specialized transduction

A

bacteriophage injects and becomes lysogenic
DNA is incorporated into bacterial chromosome, bacterial cell undergoes cell division
phage becomes lytic
viral DNA removes from bacterial chromosome taking with it some bacterial genes, leave some viral DNA behind
*location of bacterial gene maters in how likely it is to be transferred (closer to viral= more likely to be transferred)

103
Q

do regulated genes tend to have higher AT or CG content

A

CG due to being less likely to be transcribed

104
Q

what is the trp operon

A

codes for genes to make tryptophan

105
Q

is the trp operon usually on or off

A

on
low trp= repressor dissociates from sequence so RNA polymerase can bind

106
Q

when is the trp operon off

A

when trp levels are increased

107
Q

what is the lac operon

A

genes to break down lactose

108
Q

is the lac operon usually on or off

A

off

109
Q

when is the lac operon on

A

when lactose is present, it bind to the binding region, changing shape of the promotor so the repressor is unable to bind

110
Q

what occurs with quorum sensing

A

as bacteria divide, they release autoinducers which are pumped out through an autoinducer pump
when bacteria population increases, autoinducer population increases, increasing the likelihood for an autoinducer to bind to an autoinducer receptor
when an autoinducer bind to an autoinducer receptor, the autoinducer is phosphorylated, causing a change in gene expression

111
Q

what is a heat shock sigma factor

A

protein turned on in times of stress to help the bacteria survive

112
Q

what type of bacterial have heat shock protein

A

all

113
Q

what are polycistronic genes

A

a single mRNA codes for multiple proteins expressed simultaneously

114
Q

how do polycistronic genes work

A

bacterial ribosome binds to shine delgarno sequence
moves until reaches a stop codon
ribosome reattaches to next shine delgarno sequence

115
Q

what is bacterial transposition

A

a mutation in which a gene moves from one location in a bacterial chromosome to another
*may now be expressed with anew operon

116
Q

what increases the likelihood of bacterial transposition

A

DNA palindromic sequences

117
Q

what is the only PAMP small enough to form a concentration gradient

A

f-met

118
Q

what are efflux pumps

A

modification of membrane proteins used to pump antibiotics out as soon as they diffuse into the cell
“is this food? No. Pump out”

119
Q

what is siderophore

A

a molecule secreted by bacteria to collect iron from the environment and transport it to the bacterial cell